Manifestations Of Urinary System Disorders


General Manifestations Specific Manifestations Related to Urinary System
 Edema  Pain  Patterns of Urination  Urine Output  Urine Composition
Fatigue Facial (periorbital) Dysuria Frequency Anuria Concentrated
Headaches Ankle Flank or Urgency Oliguria Dilute
Blurred vision Ascites costovertebral Hesitancy of stream Polyuria Hematuria
Elevated blood pressure Anasarca angle Change in stream Pyuria
Anorexia Sacral Groin Retention Color (red, brown,
Nausea and vomiting Suprapubic Dysuria yellowish green)
Chills Nocturia
Itching Incontinence
Excessive thirst Stress incontinence
Change in body weight Dribbling
Cognitive changes

Urinary System

Health Perception–Health Management
• How is your energy level compared with 1 yr ago?
• Do you notice any visual changes?*
• Have you ever smoked? If yes, how many packs per day?
• How is your appetite?
• Has your weight changed over the past yr?*
• Do you take vitamins, herbs, or any other supplements?*
• How much and what kinds of fluids do you drink daily?
• How many dairy products and how much meat do you eat?
• Do you drink coffee? Colas? Tea?
• Do you eat chocolate?
• Do you spice your food heavily?*
• Are you able to sit through a 2-hr meeting or ride in a car for 2 hr without urinating?
• Do you awaken at night with the desire to urinate? If so, how many times does this occur during an average night?
• Do you ever notice blood in your urine?* If so, at what point in the urination does it occur?
• Do you ever pass urine when you do not intend to? When?
• Do you use special devices or supplies for urine elimination or control?*
• How often do you move your bowels?
• Do you ever experience constipation?
• Do you frequently experience diarrhea? Do you ever have problems controlling your bowels? If so, do you have problems controlling the passage of gas? Watery or liquid stool? Solid stool?
• Have you noticed any changes in your ability to do your usual daily activities?*
• Do certain activities aggravate your urinary problem?*
• Has your urinary problem caused you to alter or stop any activity or exercise?*
• Do you require assistance in moving or getting to the bathroom?*
• Do you awaken at night from an urge to urinate?*
• Do you awaken at night from pain or other problems and urinate as a matter of routine before returning to sleep?*
• Do you experience daytime sleepiness and fatigue as a result of nighttime urination?*
• Do you ever have pain when you urinate?* If so, where is the pain?
• How does your urinary problem make you feel about yourself?
• Do you perceive your body differently since you have developed a urinary problem?
• Does your urinary problem interfere with your relationships with family or friends?*
• Has your urinary problem caused a change in your job status or
affected your ability to carry out job-related responsibilities?*
• Has your urinary problem caused any change in your sexual pleasure or performance?*
• Do you have hygiene problems related to sexual activities that cause you concern?*
Coping–Stress Tolerance
• Do you feel able to manage the problems associated with your urinary problem? If not, explain.
• What strategies are you using to cope with your urinary problem?
• Has your present illness affected your belief system?*
• Are your treatment decisions related to your urinary problem in conflict with your value system?*

Adult Health Nursing MCQs/BCQs- 4th Semester

1. The Cranial nerves are ____ in pairs

  1. 10
  2. 8
  3. 6
  4. 4
  5. 12

2. Causes of Hyper parathyroidism

  1. Neck trauma
  2. Parathyroid adenoma
  3. Carcinoma
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the available choices

3. _________ is a group of metabolic disorders characterized by elevated levels of blood insulin

  1. Pineal gland
  2. Diabetes mellitus
  3. Thymus gland
  4. Hyper thyroidism
  5. Diabetes insipidus

4. Primary hypertension or essential hypertension observed in

  1. Obesity
  2. Use of salt in excess
  3. Aging
  4. All of the above
  5. Alcohol and smoking

5. Valve in the heart between left atrium and left ventricle is called

  1. Bicuspid valve
  2. Tricuspid valve
  3. Cardio Sphincter valve
  4. None of the available choices
  5. Ileocecal valve

6. The pituitary gland lies In the hypophyseal fossa of the ________

  1. Nasal bone
  2. None of the available choices
  3. Temporal bone
  4. Sphenoid bone of the cranial cavity
  5. Both nasal bone and temporal bone

7. An abnormally dilated tortures superficial vein caused by incompetent veins is observed in the disorder

  1. Deep venous thrombosis
  2. Varicose vein
  3. Venous thrombosis
  4. Atherosclerosis
  5. Arteriosclerosis

8. The Central Nervous system (CNS) is composed of

  1. Brain and spinal cord
  2. None of these
  3. Digestive system
  4. Lungs and heart
  5. Liver and kidney

9. It is characterized by progressive loss of joint cartilage and happens in the disorder:

  1. Osteoporosis
  2. Osteoarthritis
  3. Fracture
  4. Osteomalacia
  5. T.B of the bone

10. __________ is the disorder in which there is reduction of bone density in it, the rate of bone resorption is greater than the rate of bone formation

  1. Osteoarthritis
  2. Rheumatoid arthritis
  3. Osteoporosis
  4. Osteomyelitis
  5. Osteitis deformans

11. Cerebro Spinal Fluid (CSF)is secreted continuously at the rate of per day

  1. 800 ml
  2. 1000 ml
  3. 720 ml
  4. 400 ml
  5. 500 ml

12. A condition in where arteries become narrowed and hardened due to an excessive buildup of plaque around the artery wall the disorder is known as ?

  1. Varicose vein
  2. Aneurism
  3. Atherosclerosis
  4. Venous thrombosis
  5. Arteriosclerosis

13. The weight of the pituitary gland about _____ and consist _____ distinct parts that originate from different types of cells

  1. 350mg / 5parts
  2. 500mg / 2 parts
  3. 400mg / 2 parts
  4. 600mg / 4 parts
  5. 500mg / 3 parts

14. Following are the clinical manifestations of CVA or brain attack except one:

  1. Increase cognition
  2. Confusion or changes in mental status
  3. Visual disturbance
  4. Numbness
  5. Motor, perceptual & sensory loss

15. It causes decreased density and possible fracture and often referred to (Silent Disease)

  1. Osteomalacia
  2. Osteoporosis
  3. Bone tumor
  4. Tuberculosis
  5. Rheumatoid arthritis

16. _______ is a lens opacity or cloudiness or blurred vision a leading cause of disability in older patient:

  1. Conjunctivitis
  2. Foreign body in the eye
  3. Cataract
  4. Retinal detachment
  5. Glaucoma

17. The thyroid gland is situated in the neck in front of the larynx and trachea at the level of :

  1. None of the available choices
  2. 3rd 4th and 5th cervical and 2nd thoracic vertebrae
  3. 2nd 3rd and 4th cervical and 1st thoracic vertebrae
  4. 1st 2nd and 3rd cervical and 2nd thoracic vertebrae
  5. 5th 6th and 7th cervical and 1st thoracic vertebrae

18. Basal Ganglia, Thalamus, Hypothalamus are other parts of:

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Pons
  3. Mid brain
  4. Cerebellum
  5. Medulla oblongata

19. For descriptive purposes each hemisphere of cerebrum is divided into lobes

  1. 6
  2. 4
  3. 2
  4. 8
  5. 10

20. Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater are the layers of

  1. Spinal cord
  2. Both Brain and Spinal cord
  3. Heart
  4. Brain
  5. Vertebral column

21. A ________ an ischemic stroke or

  1. None of these
  2. CVS
  3. CVA
  4. CNS
  5. PNS

22. _______ is the largest part of the brain and it occupies the anterior and middle cranial fossa

  1. Mid brain
  2. Medulla oblongata
  3. Cerebrum
  4. None of the available choices
  5. Cerebellum

23. _______ is defined as acute hemorrhage from nostril, nasal cavity or nasopharynx

  1. Peptic ulcer
  2. Epistaxis
  3. T.B
  4. Gastritis
  5. Malena

24. _____ is the removal of a part of the body

  1. Soft tissue injury
  2. Paget’s disease of the bone
  3. Amputation
  4. Fracture
  5. Osteomyelitis

25. Following are the Key sign and symptoms occurs in as increased metabolic rate, weight loss, good appetite, anxiety etc.

  1. Hypothyroidism
  2. Cushing syndrome
  3. Hypo thyroidism
  4. Hyper thyroidism
  5. Hyper parathyroidism

26. The nursing intervention of trigeminal neuralgia except one?

  1. Recognize the patient’s anxiety
  2. Allow the patient to rub his/her face with soapy water
  3. Provide post-operative care
  4. Instruct the patient to rinse mouth after eating when tooth brushing cause pain
  5. Monitor patient for bone marrow depression during long term drug therapy

27. High Blood Pressure is said to be present if it is at or above in young men:

  1. 100/60mmHg
  2. 130/90mmHg
  3. 120/80mmHg
  4. 110/70mmHg
  5. 140/90mmHg

28. Clinical presentation as difficulty in breathing, wheezing, chest tightness, restlessness, shortness of breathing (SOB) found in :

  1. Emphysema
  2. Liver failure
  3. Asthma
  4. Renal failure
  5. Dyspnea

29. ______ is disorder of posterior lobe of pituitary gland due to deficiency of vasopressin the anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)?

  1. Addison’s disease
  2. Gestational diabetes mellitus
  3. Hypothyroidism
  4. Diabetes mellitus
  5. Diabetes insipidus

30. Which type of joint is freely moveable?

  1. Synarthrodial and Amphiarthrodial
  2. Diarthrosis
  3. Amphiarthrodial
  4. Synarthrodial
  5. None of the available choices

31. Following are the clinical manifestations of the hyperthyroidism except one?

  1. Decreased respiration rate
  2. Palpitations
  3. Nervousness
  4. Pulse rate between 90 and 160 beats per minutes
  5. Poor tolerance of heat

32. The functions of hypothalamus includes except one:

  1. Control of autonomic nervous system
  2. Thirst and water balance
  3. Body temperature
  4. Bone growth
  5. Appetite

33. According to classification of fracture the open fracture means:

  1. Severeal bone fracture
  2. Complete fracture
  3. Simple no break in skin
  4. Break the skin and mucous membrane
  5. Greenstick

34. Following sign and symptoms are often observed as bone fracture, recent weight loss, arthritis, pallor of skin, kidney stone, and constipation in disorder of:

  1. Anemia
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Hypoparathyroidism
  4. Hyperparathyroidism
  5. Hyperthyroidism

35. The causative agent of pulmonary tuberculosis is:

  1. Pneumococcus
  2. Mycobacterium
  3. E-coli
  4. Streptococcus
  5. H-influenza

36. ______ results from excessive adreno-cortical activity observed in:

  1. Systemic lupus erythematous
  2. Cushing syndrome
  3. Nephrotic syndrome
  4. Diabetes mellitus
  5. Addison’s disease

37. The key features observed as polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, fatigue, sudden vision changes I the disorder of:

  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. Gastroenteritis
  3. Cholicystitis
  4. Myasthenia gravis
  5. Hydro nephrosis

38. Diabetes insipidus is a disorder of:

  1. Pineal gland
  2. Pancreatic gland
  3. Thymus gland
  4. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland
  5. Posterior lobe of pituitary gland

39. The heart has _____ chambers in it

  1. 6
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 4
  5. 5

40. A chronic metabolic disorder in which a bone is excessively broken down is known as:

  1. Strain and sprain
  2. Paget’s disease of the above
  3. Osteoporosis
  4. Rheumatoid arthritis
  5. Osteoarthritis

Health Assessment MCQs/BCQs 4th Semester

1.The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is involved in the sensory supply to __________

  1. Abdominal muscles
  2. Face and muscles of mastication
  3. Respiratory muscles
  4. Head and neck muscles

2. While palpating Ms. Asia’s chest, the nurse should detect a 1cm soft, tapping vibration over the midclavicular line at the 5th intercostal space (ICS). This is correctly interpreted as

  1. Heave
  2. Lift
  3. Normal PMI
  4. Thrill

3. While preforming passive Range Of Motion (ROM), your client has a strong painful muscle contraction. Which is this involuntary movement called?

  1. Spasm
  2. Asterixis
  3. Fasciculation
  4. Tremor

4. _________ Is the inability to move the joints after a period of rest:

  1. Stiffness
  2. Swelling
  3. Deformity
  4. Locking

5. The normal breathing sound is:

  1. Monophonic wheeze
  2. Wheeze (rhonchi)
  3. Crackles (crepitation)
  4. Vesicular

6. A connection or point of contact between bones and cartilage is called as:

  1. Muscle
  2. Ligaments
  3. Joint
  4. Tendon

7. The normal chest AP ratio is:

  1. 2.5
  2. 2.6
  3. 1.2
  4. 1.3
  5. 1.4

8. Which one is true about Weber test?

  1. Air conduction is less than bone conduction
  2. Both are nothing
  3. Air conduction is greater than bone conduction
  4. Bone conduction is greater than air conduction

9. To palpate the chest for thrills, nurse should use what part of hand

  1. Ulnar surface
  2. Palm
  3. Back of hands
  4. Finger tips

10. 20/20 vision means:

  1. Ptosis
  2. Normal vision
  3. Myopia
  4. Hyper myopia

11. Amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle over 1 minute:

  1. Preload
  2. Cardiac output
  3. Stroke volume
  4. Afterload

12. Nail base angle should normally measure

  1. 180 Degrees
  2. 100 Degrees
  3. 130 Degrees
  4. 160 Degrees

13. Blue bloater is sign of

  1. Asthma
  2. Bronchitis
  3. Bronchiestasis
  4. Emphysema

14. Lymph nodes are:

  1. Transverse, round or oval shaped structures
  2. Longitudinal, round or oval shaped structures
  3. Round, oval or bean shaped structures
  4. Long, round or oval shaped structures

15. Ability to recognize common objects through the senses:

  1. Aphasia
  2. Apraxia
  3. Graphesthesia
  4. Ataxia

16. _________ is a thin, pearly gray, oval, semi-transparent membrane at the medial end of the outer ear

  1. Tympanic cavity
  2. Semicircular canals
  3. Eustachian tube
  4. Tympanic membrane

17. Moving the ankle to bring the dorsum of the foot forward to the tibia:

  1. Plantar flexion
  2. Supination
  3. Protraction
  4. Dorsiflexion

18. During physical chest assessment nurse found that Mr. Asad has anterior-posterior chest diameter that is approximately same as his lateral diameter of rib cage. Nurse documents this as:

  1. Normal chest diameter
  2. Barrel chest
  3. Pectus excavatum
  4. Pectus carinatum

19. Flat sound normally heard over

  1. Bone
  2. Infant lungs
  3. Adult lungs
  4. Abdomen

20. Hyper Resonance sound normally heard over:

  1. Bone
  2. Abdomen
  3. Adult lungs
  4. Infant lungs

21. The most outer layer of the heart is

  1. Endocardium
  2. Myocardium
  3. Pericardium
  4. Precordium

22. Heel to toe walking is called:

  1. Adjustment
  2. Healthy walking
  3. Standing with feet together
  4. Tandem walking

23. ________ is a palpable vibration transmitted through patent bronchi and lung parenchyma to the chest wall where they can be felt as vibrations:

  1. Tactile fremitus
  2. Periodontal fremitus
  3. Pleura fremitus
  4. Dental fremitus

24. The phase of ventricular contraction in which the ventricles have been filled, then contract to expel the blood into the aorta and pulmonary arteries:

  1. Systole
  2. Diastole
  3. Cardiac output
  4. Stroke volume

25. Joint capable for flexion, extension and opposition

  1. Elbow
  2. Knee
  3. Thumb
  4. Finger

26. Movement of bone towards the midline is

  1. Extension
  2. Abduction
  3. Adduction
  4. Flexion

27. An ability to discern the shapes and details of the things you see:

  1. Visual acuity
  2. Visual field and visual acuity
  3. Accommodation
  4. Visual field

28. Sac containing fluid that are located around the joints to prevent friction is

  1. Capsule
  2. Tendon
  3. Cartilage
  4. Bursa
  5. Joint

29. A normal resting heart rate

  1. 100 to 150
  2. 150 to 200
  3. 60 to 100
  4. 60 to 70

30. A sound produced in part by hemodynamic events immediately following closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves

  1. S4
  2. S2
  3. S3
  4. S1

31. A barrel chest is not an expected finding for

  1. Aging adults
  2. Teenagers
  3. Infants
  4. In old age

32. Which type of test is perform for the Position sense

  1. Rinne test
  2. Allan test
  3. Romberg test
  4. Weber test

33. _________ is the ability to perceive and recognize an object in the absence of visual and auditory information

  1. Hemiparesis
  2. Paresis
  3. Stereognosis
  4. Graphesthesia

34. The grating sound produced be two inflamed surface is refers:

  1. Murmur
  2. Crackles
  3. Pleural friction rub
  4. Wheezes

35. Pink puffer is a sign of

  1. Bronchiectasis
  2. Emphysema
  3. Asthma
  4. Bronchitis

36. The first sound results from the closing of the _______ and _______ valves

  1. Aortic and pulmonary valves
  2. Aortic and tricuspid valves
  3. Mitral and pulmonic valves
  4. Mitral and tricuspid valve

37. The Vagus nerve provides motor supply to the

  1. Facial muscles
  2. Larynx
  3. Pharynx
  4. Sternocleidomastoid

38. Which one is proper grading for reflexes :

  1. 1 to 6
  2. 0 to 2
  3. 1 to 5
  4. 0 to 4

39. The cranial nerve 01 which have sense of smell is called

  1. Olfactory
  2. Optic nerve
  3. Trochlear
  4. Oculomotor

40. An instrument used to look into the ear canal is:

  1. Laryngeal scope
  2. Stethoscope
  3. Otoscope
  4. Ophalmoscope

Health Assessment Solved Past paper 2019

Q1) define interview and explain the principles of interviewing

Interview Definition:

The interview is a process of communication or interaction in which the subject or interviewee gives the needed information verbally in a face to face situation.

Principles Of Interviewing:

  1. Interviewing is a special kind of conversation
  2. Has a definite purpose
  3. More structured
  4. Strong element of control
  5. Two parties only: interviewer and respondent
  6. Different amounts of speaking (30/70)
  7. A significant aspect of daily business

Q2) describe the component of health history that should be produced during the assessment of skin, head and neck

Subjective Data:

  1. Any previous skin disease or problem (infection, rashes, lesions, itching).
  2. How was it treated?
  3. Skin allergic problem
  4. precipitating factors (stress, weather, drugs)
  5. Any birth marks or tattoos.
  6. Change in skin color, pigmentation and lesions
  7. Any recent hair loss
  8. Amount of sun exposure

Examination of Skin:

1. Color


  1. lLocation/ distribution
  2. lMorphology
  3. –Primary
  4. –Secondary
  5. –Vascular
  6. –Cancerous

Q3) classify the structure landmarks of the nose mouth and pharynx


  1. The nose is the first segment of the respiratory system.
  2. It is the sensory organ of smell
  3. External nose (It shaped like a triangle with one side attached to the face on its leading edge.
  4. The superior part is the bridge and the free corner is the tip.
  5. The oval openings at the base of the triangle are the nares just inside, each nares widen into the vestibule.
  6. The upper third of the external nose is made of bone, the rest is cartilage. The parts of the nose are:
  7. Nasal cavity
  8. Septum
    iii.        Turbinate
    Paranasal sinuses
    vii.       Ethmoid
    VIII. Sphenoid


  1. Mouth is the first segments of the digestive system and the airway of the respiratory system.
  2. The oral cavity is the short passage boarded by the lips, palate, checks, and tongue.
  3. It continues the teeth, gums, tongue and salivary glands.
  4. The arching roof of the mouth is the palate, it is divided into two parts.
  5. The interior, hard palate; Posterior to this is the soft palate.
  6. The uvula is the free projection hanging down from the middle of the soft palate.
  7. The cheeks are the side walls of the oral cavity.
  8. Floor of the mouth is tongue and horse shoe shaped mandible bone.
  9. Parotid
  10. Submandibular gland
  11. Sublingual fold, duct and gland
  12. Teeth


  1. Oropharynx
  2. Tonsils
  3. Nasopharynx

Q4) describe the specific assessment to be made during the physical examination of abdomen


1. Inspect
a. Shape and contour
i. Look across abdomen left to right
ii. Can use pen light to look for visible bulging or masses
iii. Look for distention
b. Umbilicus – discoloration, inflammation, or hernia
c. Skin texture and color
d. Lesions or scars
i. Note details – length, color, drainage, etc.
e. Visible pulsations
f. Respiratory movements (belly breather)
2. Auscultate
a. Start in RLQ → RUQ → LUQ → LLQ
i. This follows the large intestine
b. Use diaphragm of stethoscope to listen for 1 full minute per quadrant
i. Active – Should hear 5-30 clicks per minute
ii. Hypoactive
iii. Hyperactive
iv. Absent – must listen for 5 minutes per quadrant to confirm this
c. Use bell of stethoscope to listen for bruits
i. Aorta – over the epigastrium
ii. Iliac and femoral arteries – Inguinal are
iii. Renal arteries – A few cm above and to the side of the umbilicus
1. Press firmly
iv. The presence of a bruit could indicate narrowing of the arteries – if this is a new finding, report to provider
3. Percuss
a. Percuss x 4 quadrants, starting in RLQ as with auscultation
b. Expect to hear tympany
c. Dullness could indicate a mass, fluid-filled bladder, blood in the belly, or significant adipose tissue
i. Exception – dullness over the liver is expected
d. CVA tenderness
i. Place nondominant hand flat over the costovertebral angle (flank).
ii. Strike your hand with the ulnar surface of your dominant hand
iii. Should be nontender
iv. Repeat bilaterally
4. Palpate
a. Light palpation – small circles in all 4 quadrants
i. Can do 4 small areas in each quadrant to be thorough
b. Deep palpation – deeper circles in all areas
c. Palpating for masses – make note of size, location, consistency, tenderness, and mobility
d. Make note of any guarding or tenderness
e. Assess for rebound tenderness
i. Press down slowly and deeply
ii. Release quickly
iii. Ask patient which hurt most (down or up)
iv. Rebound tenderness over RLQ could indicate appendicitis
f. If distended, perform Fluid-Wave test to look for ascites:
i. Place patient’s hand over umbilicus
ii. Place your hand on right flank, then tap or push on the left flank with your other hand
iii. If you feel the tap/push on the opposite hand, that’s a Positive Fluid-Wave test
1. Indicates Ascites
iv. You may also see the patient’s hand ‘wave’ with the fluid

Q5) define breast examination and discuss the steps of self-breast examination


A physical exam of the breast performed by a health care provider to check for lumps or other changes. Also called CBE.

steps of self-breast examination

 Step 1: stand up before the mirror and Start by looking for differences between your breasts

  1. Good breast self-exams should be concerned with both the look and feel of breasts. The look element should be performed while either standing or sitting in front of a mirror, with your clothes removed. Examine both breasts and look for:
  2. Visible lumps
  3. Any unusual differences between the two breasts

iii.  Dimpling or indentations in the breast tissue

  1. Redness, scaliness, or other changes to the skin or nipples that appear abnormal
  2. Changes to your nipples, for example a nipple that is newly inverted or pulling in

Step 2: Put your hands on your hips, pull your elbows forward

  1. Look for the same changes in the breasts from Step 1 — such as redness, lumps and indentations — this time with your hands resting on your hips

while squeezing your elbows forward since this might bring out lumps that might not appear otherwise. Keep your hands on your hips and slowly swivel from side to side to catch possible abnormalities from more angles.

  1. Next, lift your arms above your head to see if there’s any puckering or dimpling of the skin when you elevate them. “When you raise your arms, the mass, if there is one, stays there and the skin pulls in,” says Kruper.

Step 3: Use 3 fingers when examining your breasts

  1. The feel part of the breast self-exam should be done while lying down, with a pillow propping up your head and your arm resting behind it. With the opposite hand, take the first three fingers — index, middle and ring fingers — and use them to press down around the breast and surrounding area using circular motions. Using three fingers, rather than just one, keeps you from mistaking normal breast tissue for lumps. Increase the pressure you use with each pass around the breasts to ensure you are not just feeling superficial tissue.

Step 4: Examine the areas surrounding the breast

  1. After examining your breasts, it is important to perform a check of the areas around them. Continue to use circular motions and increasing pressure as you move from the collarbone to the sternum and down below the breast. From the lower part of the breast, travel up to the area under your arm to look for any swelling in the lymph nodes. “What you’re looking for is something that stands out — something that feels like a pea, or a marble or a walnut,” says Kruper. “Something that definitely feels different than the surrounding breast tissue.”

Step 5: Perform the test at the same time each month

A, Be sure to do the breast self-examination the same time every month. If you are still menstruating, Kruper recommends you do the exam about seven to 10 days after your menstrual cycle, since at that time there will likely be fewer cycle-related changes in the breast tissue. Women who are postmenopausal can do the exam at any time of the month, as long it is around the same time each month.

B, Keep in mind that there is some debate about whether women should perform routine breast self-exams to find potentially cancerous lumps.

According to current research, some of the issues depend on the possibility of false positives and the possibility that the screenings might not really increase a woman’s probability of survival.

Q6) classify the equipment needed to perform a physical examination

 The equipment needed to perform a physical examination

  1. Within reach and ready
  2. Arranged as per need
  3. Required equipment
  4. Extra supplies/equipment
  5. Clean or sterile equipment
  6. Warm metallic piece

The following are the more common but essential medical tools that are used during physical health exam.

  1. Medical Weighing Scale
  2. Sphygmomanometer
  3. Stethoscope
  4. Thermometer
  5. Ophthalmoscope
  12. GLOVES

Q7) define health assessment and identify types of health assessment


A health assessment is a plan of treatment that outlines a person’s unique requirements and how those needs will be met. A is provided by the hospital system or a skilled nursing facility. Health assessment is the evaluation of one’s health status through a physical exam and a health history. It is done to detect diseases in people who appear to be healthy.
There are four types of Health Assessment

1)   Comprehensive Initial Assessment:

  1. The initial assessment, also known as triage assessment.
  2. Performed shortly after admittance to hospital
  3. Performed by the nurse to collect data on all aspects of patient’s health
  4. It helps to determine the nature of the problem and prepares the way for the ensuing assessment stages.
  5. The initial assessment is used more than the other assessments used by nurses.
  6. Components may include obtaining a patient’s medical history or putting him/her through a physical exam, or preparing a psychosocial assessment for a mental health patient.
  7. Other components may include obtaining a patient’s vital signs and taking subjective statements from the patient, as well as double-checking the subjective symptoms with the objective signs of the condition.

2)   Focused Assessment:

  1. The focused assessment is the stage in which the problem is exposed and treated.
  2. Due to the importance of vital signs and their ever-changing nature, they are continuously monitored during all parts of the assessment.
  3. May be performed during initial assessment or as routine ongoing data collection
  4. Performed to gather data about a specific problem already identified, or to identify new or overlooked problems
  5. Performed by the nurse to collect data about the specific problem
  6. Depending on the problem, initial treatment for pain and long-term treatment for the root cause of the trouble is administered and monitored.
  7. Part of the goal of the focused assessment is to diagnose and treat the patient in order to stabilize her condition.
  8. Focused assessments may also include X Rays or other types of tests.

3)   Time-Lapsed Assessment:

  1. Once treatment has been implemented, a time-lapsed assessment must be conducted to ensure that the patient is recovering from his problem and his condition has stabilized.
  2. Depending on the nature of the problem, the time-lapsed assessment may span the length of one or two hours or a couple of months.
  3. Performed to compare a patient’s current status to baseline data obtained earlier
  4. Performed to reassess health status and make necessary revisions in plan of care
  5. Performed by the nurse to collect data about current health status of patient
  6. During the time-lapsed assessment, the current status of the patient is compared to the previous baseline during and prior to treatment.
  7. Similar to the focused assessment, the time lapsed assessment may also include lab work, X-rays or other diagnostic medical testing.

4)   Emergency Assessments:

  1. During emergency procedures, a nurse is focused on rapidly identifying the root causes of concern for the patient and assessing the airway, breathing and circulation (ABCs) of the patient.
  2. Once the ABCs are stabilized, the emergency assessment may turn into an initial or focused assessment, depending on the situation.
  3. If the nurse is not in a health care setting, emergency assessments must also include an assessment for scene safety so that no other individuals, including the nurse himself/herself are hurt during the rescue and emergency response process.
  4. Performed by the nurse to gather data about the life-threatening problem


Health Assessment Paper- MCQs/BCQs

1) When doing an assessment on a client’s eyes the very first thing that a nurse should look at is?
A. Eye internal structures
B. Eye external structures
C. The pupils reactivity to light
D. Color of the irises of the eye
2) While the nurse is inspecting the throat of a client with a tongue blade, the client begins to gag. What does this response indicate to the nurse?
A. The client is nauseated.
B. The client has nerve damage to his tongue.
C. The client has a functioning response.
D. The client has a malfunctioning response
3) During the health history, a client begins to talk about her dog and the trouble she is having housebreaking the new pet. To help the client return to the health interview, the nurse could use the communication skill:
A. Listening
B. Reflecting
C. Questioning
D. Focusing
4) After inspecting a client’s abdomen, which assessment technique should the nurse use next?
A. Light Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Deep Palpation
5) Nurse Tara asks her client Farhan to clench his jaw as she continues to palpate his head. When she asks him to do this what is Nurse Tara most likely trying to palpate?
A. Faran’s submandibular joint
B. Farhan’s submental joint
C. Farhan’s temporomandibular joint
D. Faran’s temporal artery
6) The nurse is planning to palpate a client’s bladder. Which area of the abdomen should this palpation be done?
A. Hypogastric region
B. Right hypochondriac region
C. Right Lower Quadrant
D. Left lumbar region
7) A 70-year-old male client comes into the clinic with weight loss and difficulty swallowing. Which of the following should the nurse document for this client?
A. Odynophagia
B. Bulimia
C. Dysphagia
D. Aphasia
8) A 15-year-old high school student came to the clinic with a 1-day history of nausea and anorexia. He describes the pain as generalized yesterday, but today it has localized to the right lower quadrant. You palpate the left lower quadrant and the patient experiences pain in the right lower quadrant. What is the name of this sign?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign
9) During eye assessment when you asked the patient to follow your finger or pencil as you move it in toward the bridge of the nose. Which of the following test you are performing?
A. Visual acuity
B. Visual Fields by Confrontation
C. Test for convergence
D. Visual fields
10) A nurse doing her assessment proceeds to palpate a client’s frontal and maxillary sinuses. What should she make sure she checks for?
A. Tactile signs of carcinoma
B. Swelling
C. Lesions
D. Tenderness
11) A nurse would use either a Snelling chart or the finger wiggle test to assess a client’s what?
A. Hearing
B. Vision
C. Consensual light reflex
D. Bone conduction
12) During assessment of pharynx you as the client to say “Ah” and uvula and soft palate rise centrally. It determines the function of which cranial nerve:
A. Spinal accessory
B. Vagus
C. Trochlear
D. Trigeminal
13) During the assessment of a client, the nurse gently touches the tip of a sterile cotton swab in the client’s eye. Which of the following would be considered an expected response for the client to make?
A. Begin sneezing.
B. Blink.
C. Scream in pain.
D. Swat the nurse’s hand away.
14) If assessing a client for kidney tenderness, where would you begin?
A. External Oblique Angle
B. Left Upper Quadrant
C. Right Upper Quadrant
D. Costovertebral Angle
15) The three things a nurse needs to check for when doing an examination on the eyes regarding the external structures is?
A. Eyelash texture, shape of eyes, redness
B. Shape of eyes, pupils reactivity, iris’s color
C. Drainage, possible tumors, irritation
D. Eyelash distribution, coloring, drainage
16) A 40-year-old female came for evaluation of abdominal pain. She stated that it is worse after eating, especially if she has a meal that is spicy or high in fat. She has taken antacids, but they have not helped the pain. After examining her abdomen, you strongly suspect cholecystitis. Which sign on examination increases your suspicion for this diagnosis?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign
17) During the percussion of a client’s abdomen, the nurse hears a loud high-pitched drum like tone. The nurse would document this sound as being:
A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Hyper-resonance
D. Flatness
18) What could the nurse assess based solely on the way the client walks into the room?
A. Signs of illness, well nourished
B. Dress and signs of illness
C. Gender and age
D. Gait and posture
19) Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of Bell’s palsy?
A. Asymmetry of the mouth
B. Asymmetry of the entire side of the face
C. Asymmetry of the lower face
D. Involuntary movements of the face
20) The nurse notices that a client walks with a limp and has long legs. Which of the following aspects of the general survey is this nurse assessing?
A. Physical appearance
B. Behavior
C. Mental status
D. Mobility
21) Test for shifting dullness is performed to assess:
A. Liver abscess
B. Ascites
C. Cholecystitis
D. Peritonitis
22) When a nurse performing the eye examinations, which piece of equipment does she/he use to inspect the eye structures?
A. Ultrasonic stethoscope
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Ophthalmoscope
D. Otoscope
23) The normal liver span of an adult is:
A. 7-12 cm
B. 5-12 cm
C. 6-12 cm
D. 4-12 cm
24) A client comes into the clinic for a routine breast and axilla exam. Which assessment technique does the nurse use first during this examination?
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion
25) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program…
C. A:
D. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E
26) Grade +2 pitting edema is:
A. 4 mm deep
B. 6 mm deep
C. 2 mm deep
D. 8 mm deep
27) The nurse is going to assess a client’s blood pressure. To do this, the nurse will need to have:
A. A stethoscope and sphygmomanometer
B. A tongue blade and tuning fork
C. A flashlight and gloves
D. A stethoscope and thermometer
28) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E.
C. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program.
D. Encourage all females to complete monthly breast exams
29) After auscultating the bowel sounds of a client, the nurse realizes the sounds were long. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to use to document this finding?
A. Intensity
B. Pitch
C. Quality
D. Duration
30) During the physical assessment of Mr. Ahsan’s skin, the nurse observed that Mr. Ahsan’s skin color is pale, the nurse expect that Mr. Ahsan may has:
A. Jaundice
B. Anemia
C. Heart failure
D. Pulmonary edema
31) The nurse assesses a client’s vision to be 20/150. The client asks for an explanation of the numbers. Which of the following would be a correct explanation for the nurse to say to the client?
A. You might need surgery to correct the nystagmus
B. You see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 150 feet.
C. You see at 150 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 20 feet.
D. You have impaired vision
32) A nurse conducting an assessment on a client’s head would do what first?
A. Inspect and palpate hair
B. Look at patient’s prior medical history
C. Inspect and palpate scalp
D. Inspect and palpate sinuses to control spread of germs
33) The nurse is planning to assess the abdomen of an adult male.
A. Place the client in side-lying position
B. Ask client to empty bladder
C. Tell client to raise arms above the head
D. Ask client to hold his breath for a few seconds
34) Normal angle at nail base is:
A. 10 degrees
B. 160 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 30 degrees
35) When performing an ear assessment, the nurse notes tenderness of the pinna and tragus to movement and the presence of drainage in the external canal. The nurse suspects which of the following?
A. Otitis Media
B. Otitis Externa
C. An inner ear infection
D. A negative rmberg’s sign
36) The nurse asks the client to move his eyes in the shape of an H and then in a large X. The portion of the physical assessment the nurse is completing with this client is:
A. Assessing the optic nerve
B. Assessing extra ocular muscle movements
C. Assessing the eyelids
D. Assessing the red reflex
37) As the nurse introduces the otoscope into a client’s ear, the client starts to jerk his head and complains of pain. Which of the following should the nurse do?
A. Remove the otoscope and reinsert taking care not to touch the sides of the ear canal.
B. Begin to remove the embedded cerumen.
C. Instill ear drops.
D. Document “unable to complete the examination.
38) Which cranial nerve is affected by Bell’s palsy?
A. Facial (CN VII)
B. Trigeminal (CN V)
C. Vagus (X)
D. Abducens (CN VI)
39) In medical which term is used for “impaired near vision”?
A. Amblyopia
B. Myopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Diplopia
40) During the physical examination of a male client’s scrotum, the nurse palpates a mass. What should the nurse do next with this information?
A. Perform transillumination to further assess the finding.
B. Nothing. This is a normal finding.
C. Document mass palpated, left testicle.
D. Ask the client how long he’s had a tumor in his testicle.
41) During the breast exam, the nurse asks the client to raise her arms over her head. Why did the nurse change the client’s position?
A. The client has small breasts.
B. The client has large breasts.
C. The nurse couldn’t palpate the axillae correctly.
D. Skin dimpling is accented in this position


Pathophysiology MCQs/BCQs

1) Total body water is:
1. 14L
2. 42L
3. 20 L
4. 28 L

2) All of the following are benign tumors, the most unlikely is:
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Meningioma
3. Fibroma
4. Leiomyoma

3) Neutrophils predominate in acute inflammatory infiltrate during:
1. First 06 -24 hours
2. First 08 hours
3. First 04- 06 hours
4. First 24-48 hours

4) Most effective Bactericidal system in neutrophils is:
1. Halideion
2. MPOsystem (Myeloperoxidase)
3. NADPHoxidasesystem
4. MP0-H202Halidesystem

5) What is the most important prognostic factor for human cancer is proved to be of greater clinical value:
1. Stage
2. Vascular invasion.
3. Lymphocytic infiltration
4. Grade.

6) Most reliable feature that differentiates malignant tumor from benign is:
1. Local invasion
2. Metastasis
3. Irregular surface
4. Capsule

7) Regarding type – I hypersensitity:
1. Initial response is characterized by vasoconstriction
2. Late phase reaction occurs after few minutes
3. Develop after few days
4. Characterized by release of mast cell mediators

8) Reaction due to injection of horse serum (serum sickness) is example of:
1. Type – IV hypersensitivity
2. Type – Il hypersensitivity
3. Type – Ill hypersensitivity
4 Type – I hypersensitivity

9) Antibody mediated hypersensitivity does not occur in:
1. Erythroblastosis fetalis
2. Autoimmune Hemolytic anemia
3. Arthus reaction
4. Transfusion reaction

10) A 50 years old male develops sudden severe abdominal pain radiating to back. His lab values shows raised Amylase level. Regarding this case fat necrosis may occur in which of the following organ:
1. Brain
2. Skeletal muscle
3. Pancrease
4. Heart


11) Regarding Necrosis, which of the following statement is true:
1. Pancreas shows coagulative necrosis
2. Heart shows coagulative necrosis
3. Brain shows coagulation Necrosis
4. Heart shows liquefactive necrosis

12) In full term pregnancy, which one of the following cell adaptation has maximum contribution to increase in the size of uterus?
1. Dystrophy
2. Hyperplasia
3. Anaplasia
4. Atrophy

13) AIDS can be transferred through following factors except:

2. Blood
3. Direct contact
4. Saliva
14) All of the following are malignant tumors, the most unlikely is
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Fibrosarcoma
3. Teratoma
4. Leukemia

16) Which of the following complement proteins may act as Opsonins:
1. c3b
2. C3a
3 C5b 9 complex
4. C3a & C5a

17) All of the following are malignant tumors, the most unlikely is:
1. Leukemia
2. Adenocarcinoma
3. Fibrosarcoma
4. Osteoma

18) Which one of the following mediator causes, chemotaxis of the leukocytes?
1. C1
2. C5a
3. c2a
4. C4

19) Granuloma with caseous necrosis is seen in:
1. Lymphoma
2. Tuberculosis
3. Sarcoidosis
4. Foreign body granuloma

20) Which of the following lab diagnostic technique is most convenient and suitable for the initial diagnosis and management of the patient suffering from swelling infront of neck (goiter)?
1 Smear
3. Immunohistochemistry
4. Biopsy


21) ———— is also called Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity because it utilizes antibodies that can destroy normal cells by complement lysis or by antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
1. Type-ll hypersensitivity
2. Type-l hypersensivitiy
3. Type-IV hypersensivitiy
4. Type-ll hypersensivitiy

22) Most common chornic inflammatory cells are:
1. Neutrophils
2. Macrophages
3. Eosinophils
4. Plasma cells

23) Malignant tumor arising from mesenchymal tissue is most likely called as:
1. Adenomna
2. Sarcoma
3. Hepatoma
4. Fibroma

24) Metastasis of cancer most unlikely occur by:
1. Lymphatic spread
2. Direct seeding of body cavities
3. Aerosol droplet
4. Hematogenous spread

25) Regarding anaplasia which of the following statement is true:
1. Nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio 1:6
2. Increase mitosis
3. Well differentiated cells
4. Normal size of shape of cells

26) Laboratory test most commonly used for diagnosis of AIDS is:

27) Multiple sclerosis is example of:
1. Type – l hypersensitivity
2. Type- IV hypersensitivity
3. Type-Ill hypersensitivity
4. Type – I hypersensitivity

28) Generalized edema through the body is termed as:
1. Anasarca
2. Anaplasia
3. Sarcoma
4. Pitting edema

29) Major component of innate immunity are all of following, the most unlikely is:
1. Epithelial barrier
2. B-lymphocyte
3. Complement proteins
4. NK cells

30) A 40 years old male suffering from cervical lymphadenopathy. Biopsy report shows granuloma with caseous necrosis. The most likely diagnosis will be
1. Tuberculosis
2. Sarcoidosis
3. Lymphoma
4 Foreign body granuloma


31) Pathological hyperplasia of thyroid gland occurs in:
1. Thyroid connective tissue
2. Thyroid follicles
3. Whole thyroid tissue
4. Thyroid stroma

32) A 55 years old female with ovarian Carcinoma developed ascities. Cytological analysiss of ascitic fluid show malignant cells. Which of the following pathway best explaining the spreading of tumor to the peritonium:
1. Seeding of body cavity
2. Lymphatic spread
3. Hematogenous spread
4. Direct Extension

33) Weakness and wasting of the body due to severe chronic illness is referred to:
1. Neoplasm
2. Cachexia
3. Anorexia
4. Fatigue

34) Which of the following is earliest stage of vascular events of acute inflammation?
1. Vasodilation
2. Initial vasoconstriction
3. Redness
4. Leukocytic migration

35) Increased concentration of potassium in the blood is termed as:
1. Hypernatremia
2. Hyperkalemia
3. Hypokalemia
4. Hyponatremia

36) Loss of uniformity of cells & Ioss of arachitectural orientation is most likely called as:
1. Desmoplasia
2. Metaplasia
3. Dysplasia
4. Anaplasia

37) Arthus reaction is example of:
1. Type – lll hypersensitivity
2. Type – II hypersensitivity
3. Type- IV hypersensitivity
4. Type – I hypersensitivity

38) All are causes of atrophy, the most unlikely is:
1. Diminished blood supply
2. Denervation
3. Decrease workload
4. Increase workload

39) Excessive intake of acid containing foods and beverages may lead to development of:
1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Respiratory alkalosis
3. Metbolic alkalosis
4. Respiratory acidosis

40) In full term pregnancy, which one of the following cell adaptations has maximum contribution to increase in the size of uterus?
1. Dystrophy
2. Hyperplasia
3. Anaplasia
4 Atrophy

41) Goodpasture syndrome is example of:
1. Type -Ill hypersensitivityy
2. Type – I hypersensitivity
3. Type-ll hypersensitivity
4. Type – IV hypersensitivity


Adult health Nursing-I Solved past papers- 2019

Q1) Explain Strategies for managing patient with urinary stress incontinence

Ans :- The nurse instructs the patient to:

1)Avoid bladder irritants, such as caffeine, alcohol, and aspartame (NutraSweet).

2)Avoid taking diuretic agents after 4 pm.

3)increased awareness of the amount and timing of all fluid intake.

4)Perform all pelvic floor muscle exercises as prescribed, every day.

5)Stop smoking (smokers usually cough frequently, which increases incontinence).

6)Take steps to avoid constipation: Drink adequate fluids, eat a well-balanced diet high in fiber, exercise regularly, and take stool softeners if recommended.

7)Void regularly, 5–8 times a day (about every 2–3 hours):

  • First thing in the morning
  • Before each meal
  • Before retiring to bed
  • Once during the night if necessary

Q2) a) difference between AIDS and HIV

  1. b) explain the prevention of HIV


HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus)

HIV is the acronym for human deficiency virus

Virus that invades the immunity system

Patient may suffer minor difficulties; symptoms will be similar to flu


AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)

AIDS is the acronym for acquired immune deficiency syndrome

Large stage of spectrum of conditions, initially caused by the infection of (HIV)

Patient will experience severe sign and symptoms, disrupting the quality of life

Prevention of HIV

Individuals can reduce the risk of HIV infection by limiting exposure to risk factors.

1)Male and female condom use before sex

2)Testing and counselling for HIV and STIs

3)Testing and counselling, linkages to tuberculosis (TB) care

4)Avoid sharing contaminated needles, syringes and other injecting equipment and drug solutions when injecting drugs

5)Elimination of mother-to-child transmission of HIV

Q3) enlist types of hypersensitivity and explain management of any one of them And :- Definition

Hypersensitivity is an excessive or aberrant immune response to any type of stimulus

Types of hypersensitivity

1)Anaphylactic (Type I) Hypersensitivity

2)Cytotoxic (Type II) Hypersensitivity

3)Immune Complex (Type III) Hypersensitivity

4)Delayed-Type (Type IV) Hypersensitivity

Anaphylactic (Type I) Hypersensitivity Management

1)​Antihistamines act​to block the effects of ​histamine​, which reduces ​vascular permeability ​and ​bronchoconstriction​.
2)Corticosteroids ​which can be used to reduce the inflammatory response, as well as epinephrine​, which is sometimes given during severe reactions via intramuscular injections through an EpiPen or ​intravenous​injection.
3)​Epinephrine​can help constrict blood vessels and prevent ​anaphylactic shock​.

Q4) enlist complication of chemotherapy

Ans :- ​Complication of chemotherapy

  • Hair loss.
  • Easy bruising and bleeding.
  • Anemia (low red blood cell counts)
  • Nausea and vomiting.
  • Appetite changes.

Q5) explain immediate post operative care of patient after appendectomy Ans :-

Post Operative care

1)Monitor vital sign.
2)Assess level of consciousness.
3)Assess bleeding at wound site.
4)Give clear fluid for first POD.
5)Monitor for infection and any complication at the wound incision.
6)Administer IV prophylaxis antibiotics as ordered.
7)Maintain aseptic technique during dressing.
8)Encourage patient to do ROM exercise.

Q6) English types of abortion and explain management of any one Ans :- Definition

Interruption of pregnancy or expulsion of the product of conception before the fetus is viable is called abortion. The fetus is generally considered to be viable any time after the fifth to sixth month of gestation.

Types of abortion

1)Threatened abortion:-

The term threatened abortion is used when a pregnancy is complicated by vaginal bleeding before the 20th week. Pain may not be a prominent feature of threatened abortion, although a lower abdominal dull ache sometimes accompanies the bleeding. Vaginal examination at this stage usually reveals a closed cervix. 25% to 50% of threatened abortion eventually result in loss of the pregnancy.


The patient is kept at rest in bed until 2 days after blood loss has ceased. Intercourse is forbidden. As soon as the initial bleeding has stopped an ultrasound scan is performed. This will reveal whether or not the pregnancy is intact. The prognosis is good when all abnormal signs and symptoms disappear and when the resumption of the progress of pregnancy is apparent.

2)Inevitable abortion:-

In case of inevitable abortion, a clinical pregnancy is complicated by both vaginal bleeding and cramp-like lower abdominal pain . The cervix is frequently partially dilated, attesting to the inevitability of the process.


The uterus usually expels its contents unaided , and examination must be made with strict aseptic technique. If the abortion is not quickly completed, or if hemorrhage becomes severe, the contents of the uterus are removed with a suction curettege.

3)Incomplete Abortion:-

In addition to vaginal bleeding, cramp-like pain, and cervical dilatation , an incomplete abortion involves the passage of products of conception , often described by the women as looking like pieces of skin or liver.


Patients require admission to the hospital. Treatment is aimed at preventing infection, controlling bleeding and obtaining an empty and involuting uterus. The chief risks associated with retained products are hemorrhage and sepsis.

4)Missed Abortion: –

The term missed abortion is used when the fetus has died but is retained in the uterus, usually for some weeks. After 16 weeks’ gestation, dilatation and curettage may become a problem. Fibrinogen levels should be checked weekly until the fetus and placenta are expelled.


Once the diagnosis has been made the uterus should be emptied. Early in gestation evacuation of the uterus is usually accomplished by suction curettage. The prognosis for the mother is good. Serious complications are uncommon.

5) Recurrent Abortion: –

Recurrent abortion refers to any case in which there have been three consecutive spontaneous abortions. Possible causes are known to be genetic error, anatomic abnormalities of the genital tract, hormonal abnormalities, infection, immunologic factors, or systemic disease.


Paternal and maternal chromosomes should be evaluated. The mother should be ruled out the presence of systemic disorders such as DM, SLE, and thyroid disease. It should rule out the presence of Mycoplasma, Listeria, Toxoplasma etc. infectious disease. Pelvic examination

Q7) English types of abortion and explain management of them

Types of abortion
1)Threatened abortion
2)Inevitable abortion
3)Incomplete Abortion
4)Missed Abortion
5)Recurrent Abortion