Obesity and diabetes can affect breastfeeding

Obesity and diabetes can affect breastfeeding in several ways.

Obesity

  • Reduced milk production: Obese women may have lower levels of prolactin, the hormone responsible for milk production. This can lead to a reduced supply of breast milk.
  • Increased risk of mastitis: Mastitis is an inflammation of the breast tissue that can occur during breastfeeding. Obese women are at increased risk of developing mastitis.
  • Delayed lactogenesis II: Lactogenesis II is the “let-down” reflex that triggers the release of breast milk. Obese women may experience delayed lactogenesis II, which can make it more difficult for them to breastfeed.
  • Shorter breastfeeding duration: Obese women are more likely to stop breastfeeding early.

Diabetes

  • Increased risk of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) in the baby: Breast milk from mothers with diabetes may contain higher levels of glucose, which can lead to hypoglycemia in the baby.
  • Increased risk of macrosomia (large baby): Babies born to mothers with diabetes are at increased risk of macrosomia, which can make it more difficult for them to latch on and breastfeed.
  • Delayed lactogenesis II: Similar to obese women, women with diabetes may experience delayed lactogenesis II.
  • Shorter breastfeeding duration: Women with diabetes are more likely to stop breastfeeding early.

Despite these challenges, breastfeeding is still possible for women with obesity and diabetes. With proper support and education, these women can successfully breastfeed their babies.

Here are some tips for breastfeeding mothers with obesity or diabetes:

  • Work with a lactation consultant: A lactation consultant can provide support and education to help you breastfeed successfully.
  • Monitor your blood sugar levels: If you have diabetes, it is important to monitor your blood sugar levels regularly.
  • Eat a healthy diet: Eating a healthy diet can help you control your blood sugar levels and produce nutritious breast milk.
  • Get regular exercise: Regular exercise can help you control your weight and blood sugar levels.
  • Join a support group: Joining a support group can connect you with other breastfeeding mothers who are facing similar challenges.

Breastfeeding is a healthy and natural way to feed your baby. With proper care and support, women with obesity and diabetes can successfully breastfeed their babies.

Health Assessment: Ophthalmology- BCQs

  1. A 50-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of red, itchy eyes. He denies any history of eye injury, contact lens use, or recent travel. Examination reveals conjunctival hyperemia, chemosis, and mild discharge. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Bacterial conjunctivitis

(B) Viral conjunctivitis

(C) Allergic conjunctivitis

(D) Dry eye syndrome

  1. A 30-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of blurred vision in her right eye. She also reports eye pain, photophobia, and redness. Examination reveals conjunctival hyperemia, corneal clouding, and a 3 mm hypopyon. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Bacterial keratitis

(B) Viral keratitis

(C) Fungal keratitis

(D) Herpes simplex keratitis

  1. A 60-year-old male presents with a 2-year history of progressive vision loss in both eyes. He also reports difficulty seeing in low light and halos around lights. Examination reveals bilateral cataracts. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his vision loss?

(A) Age-related macular degeneration

(B) Diabetic retinopathy

(C) Glaucoma

(D) Cataracts

  1. A 55-year-old male presents with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is well-controlled on oral hypoglycemic agents. Examination reveals bilateral non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following is the most important next step in his care?

(A) Annual eye exams

(B) Laser photocoagulation

(C) Vitrectomy

(D) Systemic corticosteroids

  1. A 40-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of increasing intraocular pressure (IOP) in her right eye. She also reports halos around lights and difficulty seeing in low light. Examination reveals open angles in her anterior chambers and IOP of 30 mmHg in her right eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Primary open-angle glaucoma

(B) Primary angle-closure glaucoma

(C) Secondary glaucoma

(D) Ocular hypertension

Answers:

  1. (B) Viral conjunctivitis
  2. (A) Bacterial keratitis
  3. (D) Cataracts
  4. (A) Annual eye exams
  5. (A) Primary open-angle glaucoma

 

  1. A 55-year-old female presents with a 2-year history of progressive vision loss in her right eye. She also reports difficulty seeing in low light and halos around lights. Examination reveals cataracts in her right eye. What is the most likely cause of her vision loss?

(a) Age-related macular degeneration

(b) Diabetic retinopathy

(c) Glaucoma

(d) Cataracts

  1. A 60-year-old male presents with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is well-controlled on oral hypoglycemic agents. Examination reveals non-proliferative diabetic
  2. in both eyes. What is the most important next step in his care?

(a) Annual eye exams

(b) Laser photocoagulation

(c) Vitrectomy

(d) Systemic corticosteroids

  1. A 45-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of increasing intraocular pressure (IOP) in her left eye. She also reports halos around lights and difficulty seeing in low light. Examination reveals closed angles in her anterior chambers and IOP of 32 mmHg in her left eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Primary open-angle glaucoma

(b) Primary angle-closure glaucoma

(c) Secondary glaucoma

(d) Ocular hypertension

  1. A 30-year-old male presents with a 2-day history of blurred vision in his left eye. He also reports eye pain, photophobia, and redness. Examination reveals conjunctival hyperemia, corneal clouding, and a 2 mm hypopyon. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Bacterial keratitis

(b) Viral keratitis

(c) Fungal keratitis

(d) Herpes simplex keratitis

  1. A 50-year-old male presents with a 1-week history of red, itchy eyes. He denies any history of eye injury, contact lens use, or recent travel. Examination reveals bilateral conjunctival hyperemia, chemosis, and mild discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Bacterial conjunctivitis

(b) Viral conjunctivitis

(c) Allergic conjunctivitis

(d) Dry eye syndrome

Answers:

  1. (d) Cataracts
  2. (a) Annual eye exams
  3. (b) Primary angle-closure glaucoma
  4. (a) Bacterial keratitis
  5. (c) Allergic conjunctivitis

 

  1. Which of the following is the most common cause of vision loss in patients with diabetes?
    A. Cataract
    B. Diabetic retinopathy
    C. Glaucoma
    D. Macular edema

2. A 45-year-old patient presents with acute onset of severe eye pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
B. Corneal abrasion
C. Ocular migraine
D. Retinal detachment

3. What is the first-line treatment for a bacterial corneal ulcer?
A. Topical corticosteroids
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Topical antibiotics
D. Antiviral therapy

4. A 60-year-old patient with cataracts undergoes phacoemulsification. Which intraocular lens (IOL) type would provide the patient with the best near and distance vision without the use of glasses?
A. Monofocal IOL
B. Toric IOL
C. Multifocal IOL
D. Phakic IOL

5. What is the most common cause of irreversible blindness worldwide?
A. Cataract
B. Glaucoma
C. Age-related macular degeneration
D. Diabetic retinopathy

6. Which of the following clinical features is most indicative of a retinal detachment?
A. Painful red eye
B. Sudden onset of floaters and/or flashes
C. Gradual peripheral visual field loss
D. Central vision loss

7. What is the characteristic fundus finding in age-related macular degeneration (AMD)?
A. Optic disc pallor
B. Drusen deposits
C. Flame hemorrhages
D. Cotton wool spots

Health Assessment MCQs/BCQs

What is the primary purpose of a comprehensive health assessment?
A. To diagnose acute health problems
B. To create a baseline of health data
C. To prescribe medication
D. To perform a surgical evaluation

Which vital sign is typically assessed first during a physical examination?
A. Blood pressure
B. Temperature
C. Heart rate
D. Respiratory rate

When conducting a health assessment, which of the following is the most important aspect to consider?
A. The patient’s insurance coverage
B. The patient’s self-reported symptoms
C. The patient’s previous medical history
D. The patient’s ability to pay for treatment

A comprehensive health assessment usually includes which of the following components?
A. History taking and physical examination
B. Ordering and interpreting laboratory tests
C. Making a diagnosis
D. All of the above

Which assessment technique would a healthcare provider use to evaluate the presence of fluid in the lungs?
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Percussion
D. Inspection

The mnemonic “PQRST” is used during the assessment of:
A. A headache
B. Pain
C. A seizure
D. Diabetes management

What does the “S” in the SOAP note stand for?
A. Subjective
B. Symptomatic
C. Synopsis
D. Systematic

During an abdominal assessment, the proper sequence of techniques is:
A. Inspection, auscultation, palpation, percussion
B. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
C. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection

Which of the following is not a normal age-related change?
A. Increased blood pressure
B. Decreased maximal heart rate
C. Increased lung capacity
D. Thinning of the skin

Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated by:
A. Dividing weight in kilograms by height in meters squared
B. Dividing weight in pounds by height in inches squared and multiplying by 703
C. Dividing height in meters by weight in kilograms squared
D. Both A and B

Answers:

B. To create a baseline of health data
C. Heart rate
B. The patient’s self-reported symptoms
D. All of the above
B. Auscultation
B. Pain
A. Subjective
A. Inspection, auscultation, palpation, percussion
C. Increased lung capacity
D. Both A and B

Health Assessment MCQs/BCQs

1. Which of the following is a finding of a normal physical examination?
(A) A heart rate of 120 beats per minute (B) A respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute (C) A temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit (D) A blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg
2. What is the most common symptom of a heart attack?
(A) Chest pain (B) Shortness of breath (C) Nausea and vomiting (D) Lightheadedness
3. Which of the following is a risk factor for stroke?
(A) High blood pressure (B) High cholesterol (C) Diabetes (D) All of the above
4. What is the best way to prevent the spread of the common cold?
(A) Wash your hands frequently (B) Avoid close contact with sick people (C) Get vaccinated against the flu (D) All of the above
5. What is the recommended daily intake of fruits and vegetables for adults?
(A) 2 servings (B) 4 servings (C) 5 servings (D) 6 servings
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (C)
1. Which of the following is a sign of esophageal obstruction?
(A) Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) (B) Regurgitation (C) Chest pain (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common cause of acute gastritis?
(A) Infection with Helicobacter pylori (B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (C) Alcohol abuse (D) All of the above
3. Which of the following is a sign of peptic ulcer disease?
(A) Epigastric pain (B) Heartburn (C) Melena (black, tarry stools) (D) All of the above
4. What is the first-line treatment for irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?
(A) Dietary modifications (B) Antispasmodic medications (C) Antidepressants (D) All of the above
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for colon cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) Family history of colon cancer (C) Ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s disease (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (D)
1. Which of the following is a risk factor for coronary artery disease?
(A) High blood pressure (B) High cholesterol (C) Diabetes (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common symptom of a heart attack?
(A) Chest pain (B) Shortness of breath (C) Nausea and vomiting (D) All of the above
3. What is the purpose of an electrocardiogram (EKG)?
(A) To measure the heart rate and rhythm (B) To detect damage to the heart muscle (C) To diagnose heart attacks and other heart conditions (D) All of the above
4. What is the treatment for heart failure?
(A) Medications to improve heart function (B) Lifestyle changes, such as diet and exercise (C) Surgery, such as a heart transplant (D) All of the above
5. What is the best way to prevent stroke?
(A) Control blood pressure (B) Manage cholesterol (C) Treat diabetes (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (D)
6. A patient presents with chest pain that worsens with exertion and is relieved by rest. This is most consistent with:
(A) Angina pectoris (B) Myocardial infarction (C) Pericarditis (D) Heart failure
7. A patient has a heart murmur on auscultation. Which of the following is the most common cause of heart murmurs in adults?
(A) Mitral valve regurgitation (B) Aortic stenosis (C) Pulmonary stenosis (D) Tricuspid valve regurgitation
8. A patient has a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg. This is classified as:
(A) Stage 1 hypertension (B) Stage 2 hypertension (C) Severe hypertension (D) Hypertensive crisis
9. A patient has a history of atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of warfarin?
(A) Bleeding (B) Thrombosis (C) Elevated liver enzymes (D) All of the above
10. A patient is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. What is the main purpose of CABG surgery?
(A) To bypass blocked coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart muscle (B) To repair or replace damaged heart valves (C) To remove plaque from the coronary arteries (D) To implant a pacemaker or defibrillator
Answers:
6. (A)
7. (A)
8. (A)
9. (D)
10. (A)

1. Which of the following is a sign of meningitis?
(A) Severe headache (B) Stiff neck (C) Fever (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common type of stroke?
(A) Ischemic stroke (B) Hemorrhagic stroke (C) Transient ischemic attack (TIA) (D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
3. Which of the following is a symptom of Parkinson’s disease?
(A) Tremor at rest (B) Rigidity (C) Slowness of movement (D) All of the above
4. What is the most common cause of Alzheimer’s disease?
(A) Deposition of amyloid plaques and tau tangles in the brain (B) Vascular dementia (C) Lewy body dementia (D) Frontotemporal dementia
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for epilepsy?
(A) Head injury (B) Family history of epilepsy (C) Stroke (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (A)
5. (D)
6. A patient presents with weakness and numbness in the right arm and leg. This is most consistent with:
(A) Stroke (B) Multiple sclerosis (C) Myasthenia gravis (D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
7. A patient has difficulty speaking and understanding speech. This is most consistent with:
(A) Aphasia (B) Dysarthria (C) Apraxia of speech (D) All of the above
8. A patient has a headache that worsens with activity and is relieved by rest. This is most consistent with:
(A) Migraine headache (B) Tension headache (C) Cluster headache (D) None of the above
9. A patient presents with a seizure. What is the first-line treatment for seizures?
(A) Lorazepam (Ativan) (B) Levetiracetam (Keppra) (C) Valproic acid (Depakote) (D) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
10. A patient is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG). What is the purpose of an EEG?
(A) To measure the electrical activity of the brain (B) To diagnose seizures and other brain disorders (C) To monitor the effectiveness of anticonvulsant medications (D) All of the above
Answers:
6. (A)
7. (D)
8. (A)
9. (A)
10. (D)

1. Which of the following is a symptom of amenorrhea?
(A) Absence of menstruation (B) Heavy menstrual bleeding (C) Painful menstrual cramps (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common cause of infertility in women?
(A) Ovulation disorders (C) Tubal factor infertility (D) Endometriosis
3. Which of the following is a symptom of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
(A) Lower abdominal pain (B) Pelvic tenderness (C) Vaginal discharge (D) All of the above
4. What is the first-line treatment for chlamydia?
(A) Azithromycin (Zithromax) (B) Doxycycline (Monodox) (C) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) (D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for breast cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) Family history of breast cancer (C) Dense breasts (D) All of the above
6. What is the most common type of cervical cancer?
(A) Squamous cell carcinoma (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Adenosquamous carcinoma (D) None of the above
7. Which of the following is a symptom of testicular cancer?
(A) Painless lump in the testicle (B) Enlargement of the testicle (C) Change in the consistency of the testicle (D) All of the above
8. What is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction (ED)?
(A) Vascular disease (B) Neurological disease (C) Hormonal imbalance (D) All of the above
9. Which of the following is a risk factor for prostate cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) African American race (C) Family history of prostate cancer (D) All of the above
10. What is the first-line treatment for early-stage prostate cancer?
(A) Radical prostatectomy (B) Radiation therapy (C) Androgen deprivation therapy (D) Active surveillance
Answers:
1. (A)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (A)
5. (D)
6. (A)
7. (D)
8. (D)
9. (D)
10. (D)
1. Which of the following is a risk factor for testicular cancer?
(A) Cryptorchidism (undescended testicle) (B) Family history of testicular cancer (C) Klinefelter syndrome (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction (ED)?
(A) Vascular disease (B) Neurological disease (C) Hormonal imbalance (D) All of the above
3. Which of the following is a symptom of prostate cancer?
(A) Painful urination (B) Frequent urination (C) Difficulty urinating (D) All of the above
4. What is the first-line treatment for early-stage prostate cancer?
(A) Radical prostatectomy (B) Radiation therapy (C) Androgen deprivation therapy (D) Active surveillance
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for male infertility?
(A) Varicocele (enlarged veins in the scrotum) (B) Testosterone deficiency (C) Obstruction of the vas deferens (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (D)
1. Which of the following is a risk factor for breast cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) Family history of breast cancer (C) Dense breasts (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common type of cervical cancer?
(A) Squamous cell carcinoma (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Adenosquamous carcinoma (D) None of the above
3. Which of the following is a symptom of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
(A) Lower abdominal pain (B) Pelvic tenderness (C) Vaginal discharge (D) All of the above
4. What is the first-line treatment for chlamydia?
(A) Azithromycin (Zithromax) (B) Doxycycline (Monodox) (C) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) (D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for ovarian cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) Family history of ovarian cancer (C) Endometriosis (D) All of the above
6. What is the most common cause of infertility in women?
(A) Ovulation disorders (B) Tubal factor infertility (C) Endometriosis (D) All of the above
7. Which of the following is a symptom of endometriosis?
(A) Painful menstruation (B) Pelvic pain (D) Infertility (D) All of the above
8. What is the first-line treatment for endometriosis?
(A) Oral contraceptive pills (B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists (C) Laparoscopy (D) All of the above
9. Which of the following is a risk factor for premature menopause?
(A) Smoking (B) Autoimmune disorders (C) Chemotherapy or radiation therapy (D) All of the above
10. What is the first-line treatment for premature menopause?
(A) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) (B) Calcium and vitamin D supplements (C) Lifestyle changes, such as diet and exercise (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (A)
5. (D)
6. (D)
7. (D)
8. (D)
9. (D)
10. (D)

Pediatrics Best Choice Questions (BCQs)/ MCQs

1. What is the meaning of morbidity?
a) Health
b) Treatment
c) Care
d) Illness.
2. _____________is the number of deaths during the first year of life per 1000 live births?
a) Neonatal morbidity rate
b) Birth rate
c) Illness rate
d) Infant mortality rate.
3. What are the Factors affecting on infant mortality rate except?
a) Birth weight
b) Low level of maternal education
c) Full term birth.
d) Male gender
4. The MOST common cause of under-5 mortality in developing world is
a) Neonatal disease.
b) Diarrhea
c) Malaria
d) Measles
5. After the first year of life, the MOST common cause of death in children is mainly
a) Drowning
b) Burn
c) Accident.
d) War
6. The MOST successful injury prevention strategy is
a) Car seats
b) Water safety
c) Poison prevention.
d) Fall prevention
7. Regarding the physical growth of preschool children (3-5 yr); all the following are true EXCEPT
a) 4-5 kg weight increment/yr.
b) 6-7 cm height increment/yr
c) Brain myelinization stops by 8 yr
d) First deciduous tooth falls by 6 yr
8. Regarding the physical growth of middle childhood (6-11 yr); all the following are true EXCEPT
a) 3-3.5 kg wt increment/yr
b) 6-7 cm height increment/yr
c) Brain myelinization stops by 8 yr.
d) First deciduous tooth falls by 6 yr
9. In fetal period, all the following are true EXCEPT
a) 10 weeks the midgut returns to abdomen
b) 24 weeks surfactant production begun
c) 26 weeks recognizable human face formed.
d) During third trimester the weight triples
10. Prenatal exposure to cigarette smoke is associated with
a) Lower birthweight
b) Shorter length
c) Neonatal diabetes.
d) Learner problem
11. The age at which the infant achieve early head control with bobbing motion when pulled to sit is
a) 2 months
b) 3 months.
c) 3 months
d) 4 months
12. The age at which the infant can reach an object, grasp it and bring it to mouth and seems exited when see the food is
a) 4 months.
b) 5 months
c) 6 Month
d) 7 Month
13. By the age of 7 months the infant is able to do all the following EXCEPT
a) Transfer object from hand to hand
b) Bounces actively
c) Grasp uses radial palm
d) Cruises.
14. A 10-month-old child can do all the following EXCEPT
a) Says “mama” or “dada”
b) Points to objects
c) Speaks first real word.
d) Follows one-step command without gesture
15. The first permanent tooth to erupt is
a) Central incisor at 6 yr
b) Molar at 6 yr.
c) Premolar at 6-7 yr
d) Upper canine at 6-7 yr
16. The MOST common cause of sleeping difficulty in the first 2 months of life is
a) Gastro-esophageal reflux
b) Formula intolerance
c) Colic
d) Developmentally sleeping behavior.
17. All the following are compatible with the definition of obstructive sleep apnea EXCEPT
a) Repeated episodes of prolonged upper airway obstruction
b) ≥30% reduction in airflow
c) Apnea
d) ≥ 30% O2 desaturation.
18. following, the MOST common cause of obstructive sleep apnea in children is
a) Adenotonsillar hypertrophy.
b) Allergy
c) Obesity
d) Craniofacial abnormalities
19. Persons with Down syndrome are at particularly high risk for obstructive sleep apnea with up to 70% prevalence. All the following are considered as risk factors EXCEPT
a) Peculiar facial anatomy
b) Hypotonia
c) Developmental delay.
d) Hypothyroidism
20. All the following are parasomnia disorders EXCEPT
a) Narcolepsy.
b) Sleepwalking
c) Confusional arousal
d) Nightmare
21. The neurodevelopmental function (cognition) is dependent mainly on the development of the following functions EXCEPT
a) Visual–spatial
b) Sensory & Motor
c) Cerebellar.
d) Language
22. The major chemical modulator of attention is
a) Troponin
b) Serotonin
c) Dopamine.
d) Epinephrine
23. All the following are risk factors for specific learning disorders (SLD) EXCEPT
a) Extreme prematurity
b) Low birth weight
c) History of admission to neonatal care unit.
d) History of sibs or parents with SLD
24. All the following are red flags in the history of children with specific learning disorders (SLD) EXCEPT
a) Inconsistency in marks report from grade to grade.
b) Struggling with homework activities
c) Struggling with homework activities
d) Positive standard screening test
25. All the following are established modalities of treatment in a child with specific learning disorders (SLD) EXCEPT
a) remediation of skills
b) demystification
c) bypass strategies
d) Dietary interventions.
26. The MOST common specific learning disorder (SLD) of childhood is
a) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
b) Reading disorder (dyslexia).
c) spelling disorder
d) arithmetical skills disorders
27. You are assessing an eight-year-old male child with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Following, the LEAST useful test/investigation is
a) thyroid function test
b) EEG
c) Blood film.
d) Polysomnography
28. Following of the MOST common presenting behavior in girls with attention deficit/ hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is
a) Inattentive.
b) Hyperactive
c) Impulsive
d) Disruptive
29. Which of the following is TRUE statement of reading disorder?
a) 25% of affected children have affected parents
b) Diagnosis is usually clinical.
c) IQ will remain same with time
d) boys are more affected than girls
30. The MOST reported type of child abuse in Pakistan is
a) Neglect
b) Sexual abuse.
c) Physical abuse
d) psychological maltreatment

Advantages of Breastfeeding

1. Optimal Nutrition:

  • Breast milk is tailor-made for the infant, providing all essential nutrients.
  • Rich in antibodies, boosts the baby’s immune system.Are you a nursing mom? Pay attention to these 3 effective breastfeeding positions | HealthShots

2. Bonding and Emotional Well-being:

  • Skin-to-skin contact during breastfeeding fosters emotional connection.
  • Releases oxytocin, promoting maternal-infant bonding.

3. Lowered Risk of Infections:

  • Colostrum (first milk) contains antibodies and immunoglobulins.
  • Reduces the risk of respiratory, ear, and gastrointestinal infections.

4. Cognitive Development:

  • Omega-3 fatty acids in breast milk support brain development.
  • Linked to higher IQ and improved cognitive function.

5. Reduced Allergies and Asthma:

  • Lower incidence of allergies, eczema, and asthma in breastfed infants.
  • Protective factors in breast milk.

Your Baby and Breastfeeding

6. Digestive Health:

  • Easier to digest than formula, reducing the risk of constipation.
  • Decreases the likelihood of colic and gastroesophageal reflux.

7. Weight Management:

  • Promotes healthy weight gain in infants.
  • Decreases the risk of childhood obesity.

8. Cost-Efficient:

  • Breast milk is free, eliminating the need for formula.
  • Fewer doctor visits due to better health outcomes.

9. Environmental Sustainability:

  • Reduced carbon footprint compared to formula production.
  • Decreases plastic waste from formula containers.

10. Maternal Health Benefits: – Helps with postpartum weight loss. – Reduces the risk of postpartum depression. – Lowers the risk of breast and ovarian cancer.

Does breastfeeding hurt? | baby gooroo

Conclusion:

  • Breastfeeding is a crucial foundation for a healthy start in life.
  • Provides numerous advantages for both infants and mothers.
  • Promotes health, bonding, and environmental sustainability.
  • Encouraging breastfeeding contributes to a brighter and healthier future.

Dengue fever

DENGUE AND SMOG | Transport DepartmentDengue fever is a mosquito-borne viral infection that can cause flu-like symptoms and, in severe cases, potentially life-threatening complications. It is caused by the dengue virus, which is transmitted to humans primarily through the bite of infected female Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus. Dengue fever is common in tropical and subtropical regions of the world, including parts of Southeast Asia, the Pacific Islands, the Caribbean, and Central and South America.

Here are some key points about dengue fever:

Symptoms:

The symptoms of dengue fever typically appear 4-10 days after being bitten by an infected mosquito and can include high fever, severe headache, pain behind the eyes, joint and muscle pain, rash, and mild bleeding. In some cases, dengue fever can progress to a more severe form known as dengue hemorrhagic fever or dengue shock syndrome, which can be life-threatening.

Dengue fever presents with a wide range of signs and symptoms that can vary in severity. The disease typically has an incubation period of 4-10 days after being bitten by an infected mosquito. The symptoms of dengue fever can be categorized into three phases: the febrile phase, the critical phase, and the recovery phase. Not all individuals with dengue infection will progress through all three phases, and the severity of symptoms can vary from mild to severe. Here are the common signs and symptoms associated with each phase:

  1. Febrile Phase (Acute Phase):

High Fever: Sudden onset of high fever, often reaching up to 104°F (40°C).

Severe Headache: Intense frontal headache, which is a common feature of dengue fever.

Pain Behind the Eyes: Pain or discomfort, especially when moving the eyes.

Joint and Muscle Pain: Severe joint and muscle pain, often referred to as “breakbone fever.”

Rash: A rash may develop, typically starting a few days after the onset of fever. It can be maculopapular (red and raised) and sometimes itchy.

Fatigue: Extreme fatigue and weakness.

Nausea and Vomiting: Some individuals may experience nausea and vomiting.

Mild Bleeding: Minor bleeding manifestations such as nosebleeds, gum bleeding, or easy bruising can occur.

  1. Critical Phase (Warning Signs):

Around the 3-7 day mark, some patients with dengue fever may progress to a critical phase. Warning signs indicate increased severity and the potential for complications. These signs include:

Persistent Abdominal Pain: Severe abdominal pain may develop, which can be a sign of impending complications like dengue hemorrhagic fever.

Vomiting with Blood: Vomiting blood (hematemesis) or passing blood in the stool (melena) can occur.

Bleeding: Severe bleeding, such as from the nose or gums, petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin), or hematuria (blood in the urine).

Rapid Breathing: Increased respiratory rate and difficulty breathing.

Cold or Clammy Skin: Skin may become cold, pale, or clammy.

Restlessness: Agitation or restlessness may be observed.

  1. Recovery Phase:

After the critical phase, most patients gradually recover over the next few days to weeks.

The fever subsides, and other symptoms begin to improve.

Convalescence: Patients may experience fatigue and weakness during the recovery phase, which can persist for an extended period.

It’s important to note that not all individuals with dengue fever progress to the critical phase or develop severe symptoms. The majority of cases are mild, and with proper medical care and supportive treatment, the prognosis is usually favorable. However, severe dengue (such as dengue hemorrhagic fever or dengue shock syndrome) can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.

If you or someone you know exhibits the warning signs of dengue fever, it’s crucial to seek medical care promptly to prevent complications and ensure appropriate treatment and monitoring.

Diagnosis: Dengue fever is usually diagnosed through blood tests that detect the presence of the dengue virus or antibodies produced in response to the virus.

Laboratory findings play a significant role in the diagnosis and management of dengue fever. The results of various laboratory tests can help confirm the presence of the dengue virus, assess the severity of the infection, and guide treatment decisions. Here are some of the key laboratory findings associated with dengue fever:

Dengue Serology (Antibody Tests):

IgM Antibodies: In the early stages of the illness (usually within the first week), dengue-specific IgM antibodies can be detected in the patient’s blood. The presence of IgM antibodies suggests a recent dengue infection.

IgG Antibodies: Dengue-specific IgG antibodies may appear later and persist for a more extended period. Elevated IgG levels may indicate a past dengue infection.

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) Test:

Dengue PCR: This test detects the genetic material (RNA) of the dengue virus in a patient’s blood. It is most useful in the early days of infection, even before the appearance of IgM antibodies. PCR can help confirm an acute dengue infection and identify the specific serotype of the virus.

Complete Blood Count (CBC):

Platelet Count: One of the hallmark laboratory findings in dengue fever is a decrease in platelet count (thrombocytopenia). Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and low platelet levels can lead to bleeding tendencies.

Hematocrit (Hct) Levels: An elevated hematocrit (a measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood) can indicate hemoconcentration, which is common in dengue fever due to plasma leakage.

Liver Function Tests:

AST (Aspartate Aminotransferase) and ALT (Alanine Aminotransferase): Elevated levels of these liver enzymes are often seen in dengue patients, indicating liver involvement.

Coagulation Profile:

PT (Prothrombin Time) and APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time): These tests assess the blood’s clotting ability. Prolonged PT and APTT may be seen in severe cases of dengue with bleeding tendencies.

Electrolyte Levels:

Sodium (Na) and Potassium (K): Abnormal electrolyte levels can occur due to fluid imbalances in dengue patients, especially those with severe symptoms.

Creatinine and Urea Levels:

Kidney Function Tests: Elevated creatinine and urea levels may indicate kidney involvement in severe dengue cases.

Other Tests:

NS1 Antigen Test: This test can detect the presence of the dengue virus NS1 antigen in a patient’s blood and is useful for early diagnosis.

Dengue Serotyping: In areas with multiple dengue virus serotypes, it’s important to identify the specific serotype causing the infection as some serotypes are associated with more severe disease.

Laboratory findings in dengue fever can vary depending on the stage of the infection and the severity of the disease. These tests help healthcare providers confirm the diagnosis, assess the patient’s condition, and make decisions regarding treatment and monitoring. It’s important to note that dengue fever is a dynamic disease, and laboratory findings may change over the course of the illness, so repeated testing and close monitoring are often necessary, especially in severe cases.

Prevention:

The best way to prevent dengue fever is to avoid mosquito bites. This can be achieved by using insect repellent, wearing long-sleeved clothing, and staying in air-conditioned or screened-in accommodations. Additionally, efforts to reduce mosquito breeding sites, such as eliminating standing water around homes, are essential for dengue prevention.

Vaccination:

As of my last knowledge update in September 2021, there was an approved dengue vaccine called Dengvaxia. However, its use and availability varied by country, and it was primarily recommended for individuals who had previously been infected with dengue. Vaccine availability and recommendations may have evolved since then, so it’s essential to check with local health authorities for the most up-to-date information on dengue vaccines.

It’s important to note that dengue fever can be a serious illness, and early detection and medical care are crucial for managing the disease effectively, especially in severe cases. If you suspect you have dengue fever or are in an area where the disease is prevalent, seek medical attention promptly.

Treatment:

There is no specific antiviral treatment for dengue fever. Management primarily involves relieving the symptoms and providing supportive care, such as staying hydrated and taking pain relievers like acetaminophen. Aspirin and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided because they can increase the risk of bleeding.

The medical and nursing management of dengue fever involves a combination of supportive care and monitoring to alleviate symptoms, prevent complications, and promote recovery. Here’s a comprehensive overview of the medical and nursing management of dengue fever:

Medical Management:

Diagnosis: Accurate diagnosis through clinical evaluation and laboratory tests (serology or PCR) is essential to confirm dengue fever.

Hospitalization: Depending on the severity of the illness, some patients may require hospitalization. Hospitalization is especially crucial for patients with severe dengue or those at risk of complications.

Fluid Replacement: Adequate hydration is a cornerstone of dengue management. Intravenous (IV) fluids are often administered to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance. Nurses closely monitor patients’ fluid intake and output.

Pain and Fever Management: Analgesics such as acetaminophen are given to relieve pain and reduce fever. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and aspirin should be avoided, as they can increase the risk of bleeding.

Monitoring: Regular monitoring of vital signs, hematocrit levels, platelet counts, and other relevant parameters is crucial to assess the progression of the disease and the patient’s response to treatment.

Blood Transfusion: In severe cases of dengue with hemorrhagic manifestations, blood transfusion may be necessary to replace lost blood components.

Nursing Management:

Assessment: Nurses conduct a thorough assessment of the patient’s clinical status, including vital signs, hydration level, skin condition, and the presence of bleeding or shock symptoms.

Fluid Administration: Nurses administer IV fluids as prescribed by the physician, ensuring that the rate and type of fluid are appropriate for the patient’s condition.

Monitoring: Frequent monitoring of vital signs, especially blood pressure, pulse rate, and respiratory rate, is essential to detect any deterioration in the patient’s condition promptly.

Pain and Fever Control: Nurses administer pain relievers and antipyretics as ordered by the physician and monitor the patient’s response to these medications.

Emotional Support: Providing emotional support and reassurance to the patient and their family is essential, as dengue fever can be a distressing experience.

Education: Nurses educate patients and their families about the importance of hydration, medication compliance, and the signs and symptoms that require immediate medical attention.

Infection Control: Nurses ensure strict infection control measures to prevent the spread of the virus, particularly in healthcare settings. This includes proper hand hygiene and personal protective equipment (PPE) use.

Patient Education: Patients should be educated about the prevention of mosquito bites and the importance of seeking prompt medical care if their condition worsens.

Discharge Planning: When the patient is stable and ready for discharge, nurses provide instructions for continued care at home, including medication schedules and follow-up appointments.

The medical and nursing management of dengue fever should be tailored to the individual patient’s condition and may vary based on the severity of the illness. Close collaboration between healthcare providers, including physicians, nurses, and other healthcare staff, is crucial to ensure optimal patient care and recovery.

Application to Basic Mathematics to Medication Dosage

Conversion of the SI, British and Household systems of the selected problems:

Household to Household Conversion

  1. Convert 6 teaspoons to table spoons.

1 Solution:

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 tablespoon = 3 teaspoon              conversion factor = 3.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to larger units. Divide by the conversion factor.

6 teaspoon = 6 / 3 = 2

Hence 6 teaspoon = 2 tablespoon

For practice

  1. 7 T = ___ t
  2. 12t = ___ T
  3. ____T = 23 t

SI and Household Conversion

  1. ____ mL = 3t

Solution:

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 teaspoon = 5 mL              conversion factor = 5.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

3 teaspoon = 3 X 5 = 15 mL

Hence 3 teaspoon = 15 mL

For practice:

Calculate the equivalent measures.

  1. _____ mL = 4 t
  2. _____ mL = 3T
  3. _____ mL     = 7t
  4. 30 mL = _____ Tablespoon
  5. 20 mL = _____ teaspoons

SI and British Conversion

  1. ____ mL = 3 ounce

Solution:

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 ounce = 30 mL                 Conversion factor = 30.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

3 ounces = 3 X 30 = 90 mL

Hence 3 ounces = 90 mL

For practice:

Convert the following:

  1. 2 ounces = _____ mL
  2. 120 mL  = _____ ounces
  3. 2 T = _______ ounces

 

Other Drug Measures (Units and milliequivalents) 

Quantities of drugs may be included in units (U) or milliequivalents (mEq). Conversions for either milliequivalents or units are un-necessary. Drugs in these measurements are prescribed, prepared, and administered all in the same system.

Units and milliequivalents

A Unit (not a weight measurement) is an amount of a drug which produces a certain effect. The meaning of units varies with the particular drug being measured, since the amounts and the related effects of various drugs differ. Insulin is a familiar drug administered in Units.

A milliequivalent is a measurement of the weight of a drug contained in a certain volume of solution.  

The quantities of the Units and milliequivalents are written Arabic numerals followed by the appropriate symbol, U or mEq.

SYMBOLIC NOTATION                                       MEANING

10, 25, or 10,000 U etc                                                           10, 25 or 10,000 units

5,,10, or 25 mEq etc                                                               25 milli equivalents etc

READING DRUG LABELS

  1. Generic and Brand Name of the Drug

Most labels, however, identify a drug by two names, one is the official (generic) name of the drug, the other name is the brand or trade name which is identified by ®, the registration symbol.

For example:                                                        

Generic Brand Name

 

Ibuprofen Brufen

 

diclofenace sodium Tab: Dicloran, Dyclo, Voltral,

Cap: Philogen etc.

 

cephradine Velocef,

 

co-trimaxazole Septran, Penetrin, Biotran, Nicotrim etc.

 

Note:  Name of drug to be given (trade/brand name is started with capital letter & generic name is written with small letters)

  1. Dosage strength (weight of the drug)

The dosage strength or weight of the drug is written on the label with a unit of measure such as gram, milligram, Units, mEq, for example 250 mg, 2g, 250 U, 1000 U, 20 mEq etc.

Note:

Combination drugs are preparations which contain a mixture of several drugs together. Often the dosage strength is not listed for combination drug. They are ordered by tablet, capsule, or by milliliters, and not by dosage strength.

  1. Form of the drug

The drug may be in solid (tablet, capsule, etc) or liquid form (syrup, suspension, etc.). A tablet or capsule contains a certain weight of a drug. A volume of solution (usually stated in mL or cc) contains a certain weight of a drug.

  1. Supply Dosage (On Hand Dosage)

The supply dosage or On-Hand Dosage is the dosage strength (weight) together with the form of drug.

Dosage strength form Supply dosage On-Hand Dosage

 

Solid: 50 mg In        1 tablet 50 mg/tablet
Solid: 50 mg In         1cc 50 mg/cc
Solid: 200 mg In       1 capsule 200 mg/capsule
Liquid: 200mcg In        5 mL 200 mcg/5 mL
Liquid: 1000 U In        1 mL 1000 U/1 mL

 Note: The dosage ordered by the Physician may be expressed in terms of weight only. The order may not state the number of milliliters (or cc) necessary to deliver that dosage.

  1. Total Container Volume

The total number of milliliters (mL) or cubic centimeter (cc) in the container (bottle) is listed on the label. Today, many tablets or capsules are packed in unit dosage; that is, a single tablet or capsule in a blister pack. A container may hold multiple doses; while the total number of tablets or capsules is identified.

  1. Direction for mixing or Reconstituting powdered Drugs

Certain drugs that are supplied in powder form must be dissolved in a liquid before they can be administered. The directions for preparing solutions from powdered drugs may be printed on the drug label or may be included in the drug literature or inserters.

  1. Expiration Date and Additional Information

The expiration date is the last date on which the drug be used. Expiration may be abbreviated as EXP. Warnings regarding storage and the use of the drug are examples of other information which may be included on the drug label.

Basic Drug Abbreviations and Conversions

Conversion of units within the system: 

Length Conversions:

Convert 2.85 Kilometer to Meter.

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 km = 1000 m                    conversion factor =1000.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

2.85 km = 2.85 x 1000 = 2850 m

Hence 2.85 km = 2850 m

  1. 25 mm = ____ cm

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 cm = 10 mm                     conversion factor =10.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to larger units. Divide by the conversion factor.

25 mm = 25 / 10 = 2.5 cm

Hence 25 mm = 2.5 cm

  1. _____ m = 57 mm

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 m = 1000 mm                   conversion factor =1000.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to larger units. Divide by the conversion factor.

57 mm = 57 ÷ 1000 = 0.057 m

Hence 0.057 m = 57 mm

  1. 0.04 m = _____ cm

  Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 m = 100 cm                      conversion factor =100.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

0.04 m = 0.04 X 100 = 4 cm

Hence 0.04 m = 4 cm 

Length Conversion between Metric and English

  1. Convert 5 inches to centimeters.

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 in = 2.5 cm                       conversion factor =2.5.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

5 in = 5 x 2.5 = 12.5 cm

Hence 5 in = 12.5 cm

  1. Convert 5 feet 7 inches to centimeters

Step– 1: 5 feet 7 inches (5¢ 7²) must be converted to inches before converting to centimeters. 

As we know that 1 ft = 12 in then 5¢ 7² = (5 X 12) + 7 = 67 inches = 67²

Step– 2: Equivalent?

1 in =2.5 cm                            conversion factor =2.5.

Step-3: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

67² in = 67 x 2.5 = 167.5 cm

Hence 5¢ 7²  = 167.5 cm

  1. Convert 0.75 meter to inches

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 m = 39 in              conversion factor = 39.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

0.75 m = 0.75 x 39 = 29.55 in

Hence 0.75 m = 29.55 in

Conversion of units within the system:

S I Length Conversions:

  1. Convert 2.85 Kilometer to Meter.

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 km = 1000 m                    conversion factor =1000.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

2.85 km = 2.85 x 1000 = 2850 m,    Hence 2.85 km = 2850 m

On the Job Practice
  1. The heights of two patients were recorded. Convert the units.
  2. 1.8 m = _____ cm.
  3. 1.025 m = _____ cm.
  4. The range of lengths of newborn babies is 45-55 centimeters. Express the length in millimeters.

_______ mm – ________ mm.

  1. During a physical assessment, a mole on a patient’s back was noted and measured.

Mole: 21 mm = _____ cm.

  1. A child was admitted to the emergency room with a cut which was noted in the records.

Cut: 95 mm = _____ cm.

Additional Practice:

Convert the following units as indicated

  1. 60 in = _____ cm
  2. 5’5” = _____ cm
  3. 6 ft = _____ cm  

DESCRIBE SIMPLE PHYSICIAN ORDER  

Physician’s order is also called drug order. The order of physician to administer drug having the following information is called physician’s order.

  • Name of drug to be given(trade/brand name is started with capital letter & generic name is written with small letters)
  • Dosage and form
  • Route
  • Frequency
  • Additional description (for special instructions it may or may not be included)

Following are some examples of physician’s order

Name                                     Dosage                  Route                     Frequency                            additional description

Paracetamol                 500 mg tab      P.O                  q.3-4h. P.r.n.               severe muscle pain

NPH insulin                 25 units           SC                   q.d.                              a.c. breakfast

nitroglycerin                0.4 mg tab       SL                   p.r.n.                            chest pain

Interpretation of above drug orders:

  1. Administer a 500 mg tablet of Paracetamol by mouth every 3 to 4 hours as necessary for  severe muscle pain.
  2. Administer 25 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously every day before breakfast.
  3. Administer 0.4 mg tablet of nitroglycerin under the tongue as needed for chest pain.
On the Job Practice

Read the following and interpret the drug orders:

  1. morphine sulfate 15 mg SC       q4h.
  2. Tylenol 0.6 g                PO       q.6h                 p.r.n.    headache
  3. atropine sulfate(optic) 1% sol 2gtt OD      q.d.t.i.d.
  4. Demerol 75 mg IM       q.4h                 p.r.n.    pain

Dosage Measurement System

Discuss the equivalent of:

SI system

1.1.1 SI Units of Length

Metric Length Equivalents

 The conversion factor between meter and kilometer is 1000.          1 km   = 1000 m

The conversion factor between meter and millimeter is 1000.          1 m    = 1000 mm

The conversion factor between meter and centimeter is 100.          1 m    = 100 cm

The conversion factor between centimeter and millimeter is 10.      1 cm   = 10 mm

1.1.2 SI units of Volume 1 inch = 2.5 cm = 25 mm

Metric Volume Equivalents

 1 mL =         1 cc                                 The conversion factor is 1.

1 L     =       1000 mL                          The conversion factor is 1000.

1 L     =       1000 cc                            The conversion factor is 1000.

1.1.3 SI Units of Weight                                           

Metric Weight Equivalents

 1 kg   =       1000g                             The conversion factor is 1000.

1 g     =       1000 mg                          The conversion factor is 1000.

1mg   =       1000 mcg                         The conversion factor is 1000.

  • 2 Household System Units

 Household System Units of Volume and their Equivalent

 Unit                               Abbreviation                 Equivalent

Drop                              gtt                                 

Teaspoon                      t or tsp                           1t = 5mL   

Table spoon                   T or tbs                          1 T    = 3tsp =15mL

Teacup

Glass

 1.3 Apothecaries’ System Equivalents

 Symbolic Notation                                          Meaning

i          =          viii                                                      1 ounce            = 8 drams

pt i       =          z 16                                         1 pint               = 16 ounces, 1 ounce = 30mL

qt i       =          pt ii                                                      1 quart             = 2 pints

gal i     =          qt iv                                                     1 gal                = 4 quarts

1.4 British System Equivalents                                                          

1 foot           =       12 inches

1 yard          =       3 feet      = 36 inches

1   mile                  =       1760 yards

  1. Convert SI weight from one unit to another unit and SI volume from one unit to another unit.

Conversion of SI weight from one unit to another unit

Convert the following:

  1. Convert 28.5 g into mg. 

Solution:

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 g = 1000mg                      conversion factor =1000.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

28.5 g = 28.5 x 1000 = 28500 mg

Hence 28.5 g =28500 mg

  1.     _________ kg = 135 g
  2. Solution:

Solution:

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 kg = 1000g                       conversion factor =1000.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to larger units. Divide by the conversion factor.

135 g = 135 / 1000 = 0.135 kg

Hence 0.135 kg = 135 g

  1. _________ g = 4.5 kg

Solution:

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 kg = 1000 g                      conversion factor =1000.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

4.5 kg = 4.5 x 1000 = 4500 g

Hence 4500 g = 4.5 kg

 750 mg = _____ g

Solution:

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 g = 1000mg                      conversion factor =1000.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to larger units. Divide by the conversion factor.

750 mg = 750 / 1000 = 0.75 g

Hence 750 mg = 0.75 g

  1. _____ mcg =0.4  mg

Solution:

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 mg = 1000 mcg                conversion factor =1000.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

0.4 mg = 0.4 x 1000 = 400 mcg

Hence 400 mcg = 0.4 mg

On the Job Practice

 Convert the tablet dosage strength as indicated:

  1. Paracetamol 500 mg tablet              ______ g
  2. Triamcilone 4 mg tablet ______ g
  3. Codeine sulfate 0.03 g tablet ______ mg
  4. Morphine sulfate 0.015 g tablet ______ mg
  5. A premature baby, born before the 37-38 week of gestation, has a birth weight of less than 2.5 kilograms. 2.5 kg = _____ g

Conversion of SI Volume from one unit to another unit

  1. 2.85 L = _____ mL

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 L = 1000 mL                    conversion factor =1000.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

2.85 L = 2.85 x 1000 = 2850 mL

Hence 2.85 L = 2850 mL

  1. 750 mL = ____ L

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 L = 1000 mL                    conversion factor =1000.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to larger units. Divide by the conversion factor.

750 mL = 750 / 1000 = 0.75 L

Hence 750 mL = 0.75 L

  1. ____ cc = 0.85 L

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 L = 1000 cc                      conversion factor =1000.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

0.85 L = 0.85 X 1000 = 850 cc

Hence 850 cc = 0.85 L

  1. ____ mL = 25 cc

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 mL = 1 cc             conversion factor = 1

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

The Conversion is to the same size unit. The quantity of cubic centimeter will be equal to the quantity of milliliters.

Hence 25 mL = 25 cc. 

On the Job Practice

 The normal daily intake of fluid for an adult is about 1500- 2000 milliliters. Express this average in liters.

______ L = ______ L

  1. The average capacity of an adult urinary bladder is about 500 cc.

500 cc = _____ mL = _____ L

  1. The average adult excretes about 1200 – 1500 cc of urine every 24 hours. Express this range in milliliters first, then in liters.

1200 cc = _____ mL = _____ L

1500 cc = _____ mL = _____ L

  1. A given syringe holds 3cc of medication. The capacity of the syringe could be stated as _____ mL.
  2. A certain tuberculin syringe has a capacity of 0.5 mL. What is the volume of this syringe in cc. ____ cc.
  1. Convert kilogram to pound and pound to kilogram

Conversion between metric and English system 

  1. Convert 154 pounds to kilograms.

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 kg = 2.2 lb                        conversion factor =2.2.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to larger units. Divide by the conversion factor.

154 lb = 154 ÷ 2.2 = 70 kg

Hence 154 lb = 70 kg

  1. Convert 15.5 kilogram to pounds.

Step– 1: Equivalent?

As we know that 1 kg = 2.2 lb                        conversion factor =2.2.

Step-2: Multiply or divide?

Conversion is to smaller units. Multiply by the conversion factor.

15.5 kg = 15.5 X 2.2 = 34.1 lb

Hence 15.5 kg = 34.1 lb

On the Job Practice
  1. Solve simple word problems based on these measurement systems.

The weights of three patients were recorded. Convert the units.

  1. 196 pounds = _____ kg
  2. 157 pounds = _____ kg
  3. 61 kilograms = _____ lb