Tag Archives: BSc Nursing

Health assessment MCQs

Posted on by
Reply

1) When doing an assessment on a client’s eyes the very first thing that a nurse should look at is?
A. Eye internal structures
B. Eye external structures
C. The pupils reactivity to light
D. Color of the irises of the eye

2) While the nurse is inspecting the throat of a client with a tongue blade, the client begins to gag. What does this response indicate to the nurse?
A. The client is nauseated.
B. The client has nerve damage to his tongue.
C. The client has a functioning response.
D. The client has a malfunctioning response

3) During the health history, a client begins to talk about her dog and the trouble she is having housebreaking the new pet. To help the client return to the health interview, the nurse could use the communication skill:
A. Listening
B. Reflecting
C. Questioning
D. Focusing

4) After inspecting a client’s abdomen, which assessment technique should the nurse use next ?
A. Light Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Deep Palpation

5) Nurse Tara asks her client Farhan to clench his jaw as she continues to palpate his head. When she asks him to do this what is Nurse Tara most likely trying to palpate?
A. Faran’s submandibular joint
B. Farhan’s submental joint
C. Farhan’s temporomandibular joint
D. Faran’s temporal artery

6) The nurse is planning to palpate a client’s bladder. Which area of the abdomen should this palpation be done?
A. Hypogastric region
B. Right hypochondriac region
C. Right Lower Quadrant
D. Left lumbar region

7) A 70-year-old male client comes into the clinic with weight loss and difficulty swallowing. Which of the following should the nurse document for this client?
A. Odynophagia
B. Bulimia
C. Dysphagia
D. Aphasia

8) A 15-year-old high school student came to the clinic with a 1-day history of nausea and anorexia. He describes the pain as generalized yesterday, but today it has localized to the right lower quadrant. You palpate the left lower quadrant and the patient experiences pain in the right lower quadrant. What is the name of this sign?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign

9) During eye assessment when you asked the patient to follow your finger or pencil as you move it in toward the bridge of the nose. Which of the following test you are performing?
A. Visual acuity
B. Visual Fields by Confrontation
C. Test for convergence
D. Visual fields

10) A nurse doing her assessment proceeds to palpate a client’s frontal and maxillary sinuses. What should she make sure she checks for?
A. Tactile signs of carcinoma
B. Swelling
C. Lesions
D. Tenderness

11) A nurse would use either a Snelling chart or the finger wiggle test to assess a client’s what?
A. Hearing
B. Vision
C. Consensual light reflex
D. Bone conduction

12 ) During assessment of pharynx you as the client to say “Ah” and uvula and soft palate rise centrally. It determine the function of which cranial nerve:
A. Spinal accessory
B. Vagus
C. Trochlear
D. Trigeminal

13) During the assessment of a client, the nurse gently touches the tip of a sterile cotton swab in the client’s eye. Which of the following would be considered an expected response for the client to make?
A. Begin sneezing.
B. Blink.
C. Scream in pain.
D. Swat the nurse’s hand away.

14) If assessing a client for kidney tenderness, where would you begin?
A. External Oblique Angle
B. Left Upper Quadrant
C. Right Upper Quadrant
D. Costovertebral Angle

15) The three things a nurse needs to check for when doing an examination on the eyes regarding the external structures is?
A. Eyelash texture, shape of eyes, redness
B. Shape of eyes, pupils reactivity, iris’s color
C. Drainage, possible tumors, irritation
D. Eyelash distribution, coloring, drainage

16) A 40-year-old female came for evaluation of abdominal pain. She stated that it is worse after eating, especially if she has a meal that is spicy or high in fat. She has taken antacids, but they have not helped the pain. After examining her abdomen, you strongly suspect cholecystitis. Which sign on examination increases your suspicion for this diagnosis?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign

17) During the percussion of a client’s abdomen, the nurse hears a loud high-pitched drum like tone. The nurse would document this sound as being:
A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Hyper-resonance
D. Flatness

18) What could the nurse assess based solely on the way the client walks into the room?
A. Signs of illness, well nourished
B. Dress and signs of illness
C. Gender and age
D. Gait and posture

19) Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of Bell’s palsy?
A. Asymmetry of the mouth
B. Asymmetry of the entire side of the face
C. Asymmetry of the lower face
D. Involuntary movements of the face

20) The nurse notices that a client walks with a limp and has long legs. Which of the following aspects of the general survey is this nurse assessing?
A. Physical appearance
B. Behavior
C. Mental status
D. Mobility

21) Test for shifting dullness is performed to assess:
A. Liver abscess
B. Ascites
C. Cholecystitis
D. Peritonitis

22) When a nurse performing the eye examinations, which piece of equipment does she/he use to inspect the eye structures?
A. Ultrasonic stethoscope
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Ophthalmoscope
D. Otoscope

23) The normal liver span of an adult is:
A. 7-12 cm
B. 5-12 cm
C. 6-12 cm
D. 4-12 cm

24) A client comes into the clinic for a routine breast and axilla exam. Which assessment technique does the nurse use first during this examination?
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion

25) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. a. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. b. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program…
C. A:
D. c. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E

26) Grade +2 pitting edema is:
A. 4 mm deep
B. 6 mm deep
C. 2 mm deep
D. 8 mm deep

27) The nurse is going to assess a client’s blood pressure. To do this, the nurse will need to have:
A. A stethoscope and sphygmomanometer
B. A tongue blade and tuning fork
C. A flashlight and gloves
D. A stethoscope and thermometer

28) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E.
C. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program.
D. Encourage all females to complete monthly breast exams

29) After auscultating the bowel sounds of a client, the nurse realizes the sounds were long. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to use to document this finding?
A. Intensity
B. Pitch
C. Quality
D. Duration

30) During the physical assessment of Mr. Ahsan’s skin, the nurse observed that Mr. Ahsan’s skin color is pale, the nurse expect that Mr. Ahsan may has:
A. Jaundice
B. Anemia
C. Heart failure
D. Pulmonary edema

31) The nurse assesses a client’s vision to be 20/150. The client asks for an explanation of the numbers. Which of the following would be a correct explanation for the nurse to say to the client?
A. You might need surgery to correct the nystagmus
B. You see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 150 feet.
C. You see at 150 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 20 feet.
D. You have impaired vision

32) A nurse conducting an assessment on a client’s head would do what first?
A. Inspect and palpate hair
B. Look at patient’s prior medical history
C. Inspect and palpate scalp
D. Inspect and palpate sinuses to control spread of germs

33) The nurse is planning to assess the abdomen of an adult male.
A. Place the client in side-lying position
B. Ask client to empty bladder
C. Tell client to raise arms above the head
D. Ask client to hold his breath for a few seconds

34) Normal angle at nail base is:
A. 10 degrees
B. 160 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 30 degrees

35) When performing an ear assessment, the nurse notes tenderness of the pinna and tragus to movement and the presence of drainage in the external canal. The nurse suspects which of the following?
A. Otitis Media
B. Otitis Externa
C. An inner ear infection
D. A negative rmberg’s sign

36) The nurse asks the client to move his eyes in the shape of an H and then in a large X. The portion of the physical assessment the nurse is completing with this client is:
A. Assessing the optic nerve
B. Assessing extra ocular muscle movements
C. Assessing the eyelids
D. Assessing the red reflex

37) As the nurse introduces the otoscope into a client’s ear, the client starts to jerk his head and complains of pain. Which of the following should the nurse do?
A. Remove the otoscope and reinsert taking care not to touch the sides of the ear canal.
B. Begin to remove the embedded cerumen.
C. Instill ear drops.
D. Document “unable to complete the examination.

38) Which cranial nerve is affected by Bell’s palsy?
A. Facial (CN VII)
B. Trigeminal (CN V)
C. Vagus (X)
D. Abducens (CN VI)

39) In medical which term is used for “impaired near vision”?
A. Amblyopia
B. Myopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Diplopia

40) During the physical examination of a male client’s scrotum, the nurse palpates a mass. What should the nurse do next with this information?
A. Perform transillumination to further assess the finding.
B. Nothing. This is a normal finding.
C. Document mass palpated, left testicle.
D. Ask the client how long he’s had a tumor in his testicle.

41) During the breast exam, the nurse asks the client to raise her arms over her head. Why did the nurse change the client’s position?
A. The client has small breasts.
B. The client has large breasts.
C. The nurse couldn’t palpate the axillae correctly.
D. Skin dimpling is accented in this position

Adult health Nursing-I solved past paper -2015

Posted on by
Reply

Q1) a) define Folic acid deficiency anaemia

Folate​-​deficiency anaemia​is the lack of ​folic acid​in the blood. ​Folic acid​is a B vitamin that helps your body make red blood cells. If you don’t have enough red blood cells, you have ​anaemia​. Red blood cells carry oxygen to all parts of your body.

  1. b) write down the dietary sources of Folic acid

Good sources include:

  1. broccoli
  2. brussels sprouts
  3. leafy green vegetables, such as cabbage, kale, spring greens and spinach
  4. peas
  5. chickpeas and kidney beans
  6. liver (but avoid this during pregnancy)
  7. breakfast cereals fortified with folic acid
  8. Okra
  9. Beets
  10. Orange juice
  1. write down the importance of Folic acid in human body
    1. Helps your body form red blood cells and DNA
    2. Promotes normal growth and development
    3. May play a role in prevention of certain cancers
    4. Reduces your risk for heart attack and stroke
    5. Can Prevent some Birth Defects

 

Q2) a) define renal failure

Renal failure is defined as a significant loss of renal function in both kidneys to the point where less than 10 to 20% of normal GFR remains.

  1. b) difference between acute and chronic renal failure
Acute renal failure Chronic renal failure
1) Onset – over days to weeks Onset 1) Onset – over weeks to months
2) Reversibility – Invariably reversible 2) Usually Irreversible
3) Cause – Pre-renal or post-renal 3) Mostly Renal.
4) Urinary volume – Oliguria & Anuria. 4) Polyuria & Nocturia.
5) Renal failure casts – Absent 5) Renal Failure casts – Present.
6) Specific Gravity – High. 6) Specific Gravity – Low & fixed.
7) Past history of renal disease – Absent 7) Present
8) Dialysis – Required for short period 8) Required repeatedly.
9) Renal transplantation – Not required 9) Required.

Q3) a) define leukemia

Definition It is a group of malignant disorder, affecting the blood and blood –forming tissue of the bone marrow lymph system and spleen.

  1. b) discuss the sign symptoms and diagnosis of Leukemia

Common leukemia signs and symptoms include:

  1. Fever or chills.
  2. Persistent fatigue, weakness.
  3. Frequent or severe infections.
  4. Losing weight without trying.
  5. Swollen lymph nodes enlarged liver or spleen.
  6. Easy bleeding or bruising.
  7. Recurrent nosebleeds.
  1. Tiny red spots in your skin (petechiae)

Diagnosis Of Leukemia

  1. History and physical examination
  2. Clinical features
  3. Blood Examination (work up)
  4. Peripheral blood examination
  5. Chest X ray
  6. Bone marrow studies: BM biopsy, imprint and aspiration.
  7. Flow cytometry
  8. Cytological differentiation and immunophenotyping: FISH, RTPCR, chromosome analysis

Q4) a) define ovarian cyst

ovarian cyst

An ovarian cyst is a semi-solid or fluid-filled sac within the ovary.

  1. b) discuss the causes and management of ovarian cyst

Cause Ovarian Cysts

  1. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that causes lots of small, harmless cysts to develop on your ovaries. The cysts are small egg follicles that do not grow to ovulation and are the result of altered hormone levels.

Medical Management

  1. Watchful waiting (observation):​ An ultrasound scan will be carried out about a month or so later to check it, and to see whether it has gone.
  2. Hormonal birth control pills: prevent the development of new cysts in those who frequently get them.
  3. Analgesic (Pain relievers):​such as nonsteroidal ant-inflammatory drugs, opioids analgesic.

Surgical Management

  1. Laparoscopy (keyhole surgery)
  2. Laparotomy

 

Q5) a) define Fluid volume excess

Fluid overload or volume overload (hypervolemia) is a medical condition where there is too much fluid in the blood. Excess fluid, primarily salt and water, builds up throughout the body resulting in weight gain.

  1. enlist the clinical manifestation and nursing management of fluid volume excess

Signs of fluid overload may include:

  1. Rapid weight gain.
  2. Noticeable swelling (oedema) in your arms, legs and face.
  3. Swelling in your abdomen.
  4. Cramping, headache, and stomach bloating.
  5. Shortness of breath.
  6. High blood pressure.
  7. Heart problems, including congestive heart failure.

Nursing Management of Fluid Volume Excess

  1. I&O and daily weights; assess lung sounds, oedema, other symptoms; monitor responses to medications- diuretics
  2. Promote adherence to fluid restrictions, patient teaching related to sodium and fluid restrictions
  3. Monitor, avoid sources of excessive sodium, including medications
  4. Promote rest
  5. Semi-Fowler’s position for orthopnoea
  6. Skin care, positioning/turning

Q6) a) define colorectal cancer

Colorectal cancer​is cancer that occurs in the colon or rectum. Sometimes it is called colon cancer

  1. b) discuss the risk factors and nursing management of colorectal cancer

Risk factors

  1. Genetics
  2. Family history
  3. Obesity
  4. Race
  5. Irritable bowel syndrome
  6. Type 2 diabetes

Nursing Management of Colorectal Cancer

1.Prevention is primary issue

2.Client teaching

3.Diet: decrease amount of fat, refined sugar, red meat; increase amount of fiber; diet high in fruits and vegetables, whole grains, legumes

4.Screening recommendations

5.Seek medical attention for bleeding and warning signs of cancer

6.Risk may be lowered by aspirin or NSAID use

Q7) write a short note on the following

1) CT scan

A computerized tomography (CT) scan combines a series of X-ray images taken from different angles around your body and uses computer processing to create cross-sectional images (slices) of the bones, blood vessels and soft tissues inside your body. CT scan images provide more-detailed information than plain X-rays do.

2) upper and lower GI endoscopies

Endoscopy is a procedure in which the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is viewed through a fiber-optic camera known as an endoscope, inserted either through the mouth (upper) to scan the oesophagus, stomach, and small intestines, or through the anus (lower) to examine the large intestine, colon and rectum.

3) ultrasound

Ultrasound is sound that travels through soft tissue and fluids, but it bounces back, or echoes, off denser surfaces. This is how it creates an image. The term “ultrasound” refers to sound with a frequency that humans cannot hear. For diagnostic uses, the ultrasound is usually between 2 and 18 megahertz (MHz).

4) barium studies

Barium studies are specialized X-ray examinations of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract such as the oesophagus, stomach, small and large intestines using a solution containing barium.

5)Biopsy (liver)

A liver biopsy is a procedure to remove a small piece of liver tissue, so it can be examined under a microscope for signs of damage or disease.

Adult health Nursing-I Solved past paper -2014

Posted on by
Reply

Q1) define cirrhosis of liver write its specific nursing management

Cirrhosis is a chronic progressive disease of the liver characterized by extensive degeneration and destruction of the liver parenchymal cells.

Specific Nursing Management

Nursing management for the patient with cirrhosis of the liver should focus on promoting rest, improving nutritional status, providing skin care, reducing risk of injury, and monitoring and managing complications.

Q2) define pancreatitis what are its clinical manifestations

Define pancreatitis

An inflammation of pancreas is called pancreatitis.

Clinical Manifestations

1.Pain in epigastrium region or in left upper quadrant

2.Constant pain

3.Low grade fever

4.Weight loss

5.Shock in severe condition

6.Nausea/Vomiting

7.Steatorrhea (fatty stool)

8.Decrease bowel movement

9.Breathlessness

10.Weak pulse

11.Low body temperature

12.Bluish discoloration of skin.

Q3) differentiate between peptic and duodenal ulcer

Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the inside lining of your stomach and the upper portion of your small intestine. The most common symptom of a peptic ulcer is stomach pain. Peptic ulcers include Gastric ulcers that occur on the inside of the stomach.

A duodenal ulcer is a peptic ulcer that develops in the first part of the small intestine (duodenum). An oesophageal ulcer occurs in the lower part of your oesophagus. Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the inside lining of your stomach and the upper portion of your small intestine.

Q4) define peritonitis and write its specific nursing management

Define peritonitis

An acute or chronic inflammation of peritoneum layer and peritoneal cavity.

Specific Nursing Management

1.Blood pressure monitoring

2.Medications

3.Pain management

4.I & O charting

5.Iv fluids

6.Drainage monitoring

Q5) define Iron deficiency anaemia write down its clinical manifestations and nursing management

Iron deficiency anaemia ​is a common type of anaemia — a condition in which blood lacks adequate healthy red blood cells. Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body’s tissues. As the name implies, iron deficiency anaemia is due to insufficient iron.

Iron deficiency anaemia signs and symptoms may include:

  1. Extreme fatigue.
  3. Pale skin.
  4. Chest pain, fast heartbeat, or shortness of breath.
  5. Headache, dizziness, or light-headedness.
  6. Cold hands and feet.
  7. Inflammation or soreness of your tongue.
  8. Brittle nails.

Nursing management

  1. Assess cardiovascular & respiratory status
  2. Monitor vital signs
  3. Recognizing s/s bleeding
  4. Monitor stool, urine, and emesis for occult blood
  5. Diet teaching—foods rich in iron
  6. Provide periods of rest
  7. Supplemental iron
  8. Discuss diagnostic studies
  9. Emphasize compliance
  10. Iron therapy for 2-3 months after the haemoglobin levels return to normal

Q6) define acute renal failure write down its specific nursing management

Renal failure ​is defined as a significant loss of renal function in both kidneys to the point where less than 10 to 20% of normal GFR remains.

Acute Renal Failure Nursing Management:

  1. Monitor for complications.
  2. Participate in emergency treatment of fluids and electrolyte imbalances
  3. Provide physical and emotional support
  4. Monitor fluid and electrolyte balance
  5. Reduce metabolic rate
  6. Promoting Pulmonary function

Q7) define urinary incontinence write down its clinical manifestations

Define urinary incontinence

Urinary incontinence is the involuntary leakage of urine. It means a person urinates when they do not want to. Control over the urinary sphincter is either lost or weakened.

1.Stress incontinence:​increased intra-abdominal pressure (sneezing, coughing, changing position)

2.Urge incontinence:​strong urge to void that cannot be suppressed (neurological dysfunction)

3.Reflex incontinence ​: hyper reflex in the absence of normal sensation (spinal cord injury)

4.Overflow incontinence:​over distention of the bladder (spinal cord lesions, tumours, strictures, prostatic hyperplasia.

5.Functional incontinence:​cognitive impairment, Alzheimer’s disease)

6.Lactogenic incontinence: ​Extrinsic medical factors (alpha-adrenergic agents

7.Mixed incontinence:​Combination of stress and urge incontinence

English MCQs/BCQs

Posted on by
Reply

English- BSN (Generic)

1. Yesterday she sent ______ SMS to me.
A. A
B. All of these
C. An
D. The

2. That day he _________ do as I asked him to do.
A. Does not
B. Did not
C. would not
D. Will not

3. Where is__________ pen, I gave you yesterday?
A. this
B. a
C. the
D. an

4. Are you waiting for him __________the airport?
A. Inside
B. Onto
C. On
D. At

5. An eagle flies faster than any other bird of prey (Identify underlined phrase)
A. Pronoun
B. Interjection
C. Adjective
D. Adverb

6. They are walking ______the North.
A. Since
B. Towards
C. Under
D. On

7. He drove his car very slowly (identify the marked phrase)
A. conjunction/ adjective
B. adverb/ adverb
C. adverb/ adjective
D. adjective/ adverb

8. I have already _____________this movie, you must buy another one.
A. Watch
B. Watches
C. Watched
D. Watching

9. They have been working in Karachi_______16 years.
A. from
B. since
C. up to
D. for

10. The jet sped into the deep blue sky. (Identify underlined phrase)
A. noun
B. preposition
C. adjective
D. conjunction
E. adverb

11. ______Sun rises in ______east.
A. X/An
B. A/An
C. A/The
D. The/The

12. They will be driving______2pm____4pm.
A. from/up to
B. since/x
C. from/to
D. for/x

13. Sana has_________ her book to me to mark important chapters that may help her in her interview.
A. Given
B. Gave
C. Gives
D. Give

14. Last Tuesday it _________raining since morning.
A. had
B. had been
C. has
D. have

15. She did not _______her convocation ceremony.
A. attends
B. attend
C. attended
D. have been tending
E. attending

16. Sobia & Fehmida _______plucked many flowers four garden recently.
A. have been
B. has
C. have
D. are

17. They usually _______English in their offices thus, we don’t face problem in understanding their instructions.
A. speaking
B. spoke
C. speak
D. speaks

18. Mr. Saleem is ____lecturer in our college.
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. x

19. Why were you so angry? (Identify underlined phrase)
A. Adverb
B. Preposition
C. Pronoun
D. Adjective

20. The way he answered me was really so sweet (identify the marked phrase)
A. adjective
B. preposition
C. conjunction
D. adverb

21. You have been doing your lab work___________24 hour
A. till
B. Since
C. for
D. from

22. Last Sunday they _________me several questions before my flight to Dubai.
A. asks
B. ask
C. asked
D. asking

23. Our team has been maintaining the score ____________15 minutes and 37seconds.
A. until
B. from
C. for
D. Since

24. Your friend is really sweet (identify the underline phrase)
A. verb
B. adjective
C. adverb
D. noun

25. Did you ___________attention to the announcement?
A. Paying
B. Pay
C. Pays
D. Had paid

26. Did Ayesha call her brother yesterday? Yes, she__________
A. called
B. did not called
C. call
D. have not been calling

27. He is an intelligent but a lazy boy (identify conjunction)
A. lazy
B. intelligent
C. but
D. an

28. Farhan has gone home _______he had to leave for his job interview in the afternoon.
A. But
B. Asif
C. Because
D. Therefore

29. Ali and Ahsan have been living in Islamabad ______January.
A. from
B. up to
C. since
D. for

30. She is my ___aunty, she is very sweet:
A. the
B. none of these
C. a
D. an

31. Several planets are bigger than the earth. (Identify subject)
A. the earth
B. Several
C. Planets and earth
D. several planets

32. He is _________honest man among all.
A. The
B. A
C. All these
D. An

33. My sibling did not ____________to meet their class fellow.
A. Will go
B. Gone
C. Went
D. Go

34. She answered every question very beautifully. (Identify underlined phrase)
A. interjection
B. preposition
C. Adjective
D. adverb

35. Today Hammad ________helping his brother to complete his task.
A. has
B. is
C. were
D. will

36. Zara decided to-do ______best she could.
A. An
B. A
C. The
D. None of these

37. Next year we ___________admission in Lahore.
A. Will get
B. have got
C. got
D. will got
E. get

38. These days she is trying to _________some different research work.
A. Do
B. Doing
C. Did
D. Done

39. Salman is such a tremendous player; he is ______Shahid Afridi of our team.
A. a
B. none of these
C. an
D. the

Answer Key

  1. C
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. C
  6. B
  7. D
  8. C
  9. D
  10. E
  11. D
  12. C
  13. A
  14. B
  15. B
  16. C
  17. C
  18. A
  19. D
  20. A
  21. C
  22. C
  23. C
  24. B
  25. B
  26. A
  27. C
  28. A
  29. A
  30. D
  31. C
  32. D
  33. D
  34. C
  35. A
  36. C
  37. A
  38. A
  39. A

Islamiat MCQs/BCQs

Posted on by
Reply

Islamiat |1stYear| 2nd Semester| BSN (Generic)

  1. The conquest of Makkah was held in year:
    A) 6 hijra
    B) 9 hijra
    C) 7 hijra
    D) 8 hijra
    E) 10 hijra
  2. The name of grandfather of the Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H):

Abdul Mutalib

3. The Qureshi were used profession of
A) Farming
B) Teaching
C) Trading
D) Hunting
E) Fishing

4. When Prophet Muhammad(PBUH) left his followers physically the Muslims take an oath on the hand of:
A) Hazrat Ali R.A
B) Hazrat Abu Bakar R.A
C) Hazrat Usman R.A
D) Hazrat Talha R.A
E) Hazrat Umar R.A

5. The batle of Khyber was fought in hijrah:
A) 9th
B) 7th
C) 5th
D) 8th
E) 6th

6. The First Battle was fought between Muslim of Madina Quraish of Makkah was:
A) Khyber
B) Muta
C) Khandak
D) Uhad
E) Badar

7. In the battle of Baddr the leader of Quraysh was :
A) Aamir Al Hazar
B) Utbabin Rabia
C) Abu Sufyan
D) Abu Jihil
E) Umar bin abdwud

8. The name of the 1st wife of the Prophet (P.B.U.H):
A) Bibi Ume-e-Salma R.A
B) Bibi Ayesha R.A
C) Bibi Hafsa R.A
D) Bibi Khadija R.A
E) Bibi Safia R.A

9. Hazrat Ali R.A belong to:
A) Bano Quraiza
B) Bano Nazir
C) Bano Hashim
D) Bano Abbas
E) Bano Ummya

10. The Name of The Prophet whom the people had took into the fire was:
A) Hazra Essa A.S
B) Hazrat Zakarya A.S
C) Hazrat Ibrahim A.S
D) Hazrat Mussa A.S
E) Hazrat Daud A.S

11. The number of Khulafa-e-Rashdin are:
A) Two
B) Five
C) Three
D) Four
E) Six

12. The prophet (P.B.U.H) go this 1st marriage at the age of:
A) 25 years
B) 35 years
C) 30 years
D) 20 years
E) 40 years

13. In Battle of Uhud the number of Muslim Army was:
A) 600
B) 900
C) 700
D) 1000
E) 800

14. Abu Jahl Was Killed In battle of:
A) Khandak
B) Badar
C) Khyber
D) Hunain
E) Uhad

15. In The Islamic History the 1st time“Azan”call for prayer was given by:
A) Hazrat Usman
B) Hazrat Ali
C) Hazrat Umar
D) Hazrat Bilal
E) Hazrat Zubair

16. The work of taken out soul from the human body is done by the angel:
A) Hazrat Izraeel A.S
B) None of these
C) Hazrat Meekail A.S
D) Hazrat Israfeel A.S
E) Hazrat Jibraeel A.S

17. When the Holy Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) left for Madinah from Makkah, he stays on his bed:
A) Hazrat Usman R.A
B) Hazrat Ali R.A
C) Hazrat AbuBakar R.A
D) Hazrat Umar R.A
E) Hazrat Hassan R.A

18. Khana Kabah was built by:
A) Hazrat Moosa A.S
B) Hazrat Mutalib
C) Hazrat AbuTalib
D) Hazrat Daud A.S
E) Hazrat Ibrahim A.S

19. The Name of the1st daughter of the Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H):
A) Bibi Ruquia R.A
B) Bibi Sakeena R.A
C) Bibi Zainab R.A
D) Bibi Ume Kulsoom R.A
E) Bibi Fatima R.A

20. The Holy book “Quran” was revealed on the prophet:
A) Hazrat Muhammad (PBUH)
B) Hazrat Zakria A.S
C) Hazrat Daud A.S
D) Hazrat Essa A.S
E) Hazrat Mussa A.S

21. The pact of Messak-e-Madina was held in:
A) 1st Hijrah
B) 4th Hijrah
C) 2nd Hijrah
D) 3rd Hijrah
E) 5th Hijrah

22. The Heart of Holy Quran is:
A) Suray Taha
B) Surah Al Ahzab
C) Surah Furqan
D) Surah Yaseen
E) Surah Rehman

23. The total no. of the Holy verses of the “Quran” are:
A) 113
B) 116
C) 114
D) 117
E) 115

24. The saying of the Holy Prophet Muhammad(PBUH)is known as:
A) Sahifa
B) Fiqah
C) Quran
D) None of these
E) Hadees

25. The sacred building of Islam is situated in the center of Makkah is known as:
A) Arafat
B) Kabah
C) Meekat
D) Riazul Janat
E) Janatul Baqi

26. The Prophet (P.B.U.H) tookhis1st travel with his mother in the age of:
A) 8 years
B) 9 years
C) 7 years
D) 6 years
E) 5 years

27. The last pillar of Islam is:
A) Nimaz
B) Fasting
C) Zakat
D) Haj
E) Kalma Tayaba

28. The Number of Devine books are:
A) Three
B) One
C) Two
D) Five
E) Four

29. The wife of Holy Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) Bibi Ayesha R.A was the daughter of:
A) Hazrat Umar R.A
B) Hazrat Zaid R.A
C) Hazrat Abu Bakar R.A
D) Hazrat Usman R.A
E) Hazrat Zubair R.A

30. The longest surah of the Holy Quran is:
A) Surah Alaq
B) Surah Al Hijrat
C) Surah Yaseen
D) Surah Rehman
E) Surah Baqarah

31. The revelation of the holy Quran was through the angle:
A) Meekaile A.S
B) Izraiel A.S
C) Israfeel A.S
D) Jibraiel A.S
E) None of these

32. The fasting has been done in the month of:
A) Safar
B) Shouban
C) Rajab
D) Moharam
E) Ramzan

33. When Bibi Khadija Got The marriage with the Prophet (P.B.U.H) her age was:
A) 25 years
B) 40 years
C) 30 years
D) 45 years
E) 35 years

34. Due to the social boycott of Quraish of Makkah the family of Hazrat Abu Talif has stay in the valley “Shoaib Abi Talib” almost:
A) Four year
B) One year
C) Three year
D) Five year
E) Two year

35. The Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H) delivered his last sermon at the place of:
A) Taif
B) Uhad
C) Arafat
D) Hudabia
E) Safa Marvah

36. Batle of Uhad was fought in the year of :
A) 5 hijri
B) 6 hijri
C) 4 hijri
D) 3 hijri
E) 2 hijri

37. The Prophet (P.B.U.H) belongs to the linage of:
A) Hazrat Daud (A.S)
B) Hazrat Noonh (A.S)
C) Hazrat Ibrahim (A.S)
D) Hazra tMussa (A.S)
E) Hazrat Idrees (A.S)

38. 1st Soorah of the Holy Quran:
A) Surah Alaq
B) Surah Fateh
C) Surah Ikhlas
D) Surah Naas
E) Surah Falaq

39. The Prophet (P.B.U.H) had preached Islam hiddenly almost :
A) 2 year
B) 5 year
C) 1 year
D) 3 year
E) 4 year

40. Bait-e-Uqba Oola has been in the year of Nabvi:
A) 13
B) 14
C) 11
D) 12
E) 10

Answer key:

1. D
2. Abdul Mutalib
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. D
8. D
9. D
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. E
19. C
20. A
21. A
22. D
23. A
24. E
25. B
26. E
27. D
28. E
29. C
30. E
31. D
32. E
33. B
34. C
35. C
36. D
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. E

Epidemiology MCQs

Posted on by
Reply

1. Which of the following is NOT a part of continuum of natural history of the disease?
a) Stage of Susceptibility
b) Stage of preclinical
c) Stage of prevention
d) Stage of recovery

2. Which of the following is also known as retrospective studies?
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

3. Total number of deaths reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) death rate
b) Crude death rate
c) mortality rate
d) proportional mortality

4. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) Birth Rate
b) Growth Rate
c) Crude Fertility rate
d) Crude Birth Rate

5. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated number of women age 15 to 44 years mid interval is known as;
a) Crude Fertility Rate
b) Birth Rate
c) Growth Rate
d) Sex ratio

6. Number of current cases(new and old) of specified disease identified over a given time interval from estimated population at mid interval is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Period Prevalence
c) Point Prevalence
d) Disease Prevalence

7. Use of statistics to analyze characteristics or changes to a population is termed as;
a) population Pyramid
b) vital statistics
c) Population statistics
d) Population dynamics

 

8. Which of the following term provides true representation of whole population?
a) Sampling
b) Random Sampling
c) Case reporting
d) Sample
9. Measure of the frequency of occurrence of death in a defined population during a specified interval is called;
a) Crude death rate
b) Mortality Rate
c) Death ratio
d) Mortality

10. Public health surveillance DOES NOT consists on the following step;
a) Systematic collection
b) Analysis
c) Planning
d) Interpretation

11. Surveillance system information cycles include;
a) Family and community
b) Public, Health care provider and Health agencies
c) None of the above
d) Public, Health care provider only

12. Epidemiology can be defined as follow EXCEPT;
a) Distribution of health related states
b) Community leaders and their family crises
c) Determinant of health related events
d) Apply to the control of health problems

13. A state of disorder that results from communication ONLY by direct contact is termed as;
a) Infectious disease
b) Contamination
c) Epidemic
d) Contagious disease

14. Which of the following is NOT a basic measurement in epidemiology;
a) Rate
b) Nominator
c) Ratio
d) Proportion

15. Which of the following is usually expressed as percentage;
a) Rate
b) Nominator
c) Ratio
d) Proportion

 

16. Measurement of disease, disability or death and converting this information in to rates and ratio is defined as;
a) Specificity
b) Screening
c) Frequency
d) Sensitivity

17. Measurement of current status of disease is termed as;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) Cumulative Incidence
d) Mid interval population

18. A person who harbors the microorganisms of a disease and excretes them without self suffering from symptoms is called;
a) Reservoir
b) Carrier
c) Host
d) Agent

19. The modes of transmission of infectious diseases are as follow EXCEPT;
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Physiological
d) Biological

20. The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) a and b
d) Cumulative incidence

21. Epidemiological methods can be categorized as follow;
a) Descriptive, cohort and case control
b) Descriptive, cross sectional and experimental
c) Descriptive, prospective and experimental
d) Descriptive, Analytical and experimental

22. In descriptive epidemiology disease described in terms of;
a) What, Why and How
b) Host, Agent and Environment
c) Time, Place and Person
d) Agent, Place and Person

23. Which of the following is also known as prospective study;
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

24. In epidemiological triad environmental factors can be classified as;
a) Physical
b) Chemical
c) Social
d) Biological

25. Which of the following ratio provide us an estimate of risk in case control study;
a) Odd ratio
b) Sex ratio
c) Disease ratio
d) Dependency ratio

26. The entire group of people or elements that have at least one thing is common is known as;
a) Sample
b) Parameter
c) Hypothesis
d) Population

27. Sampling done on the basis of some pre determined ideas and its result can not be generalized is defined as follow;
a) Snow ball sampling
b) Purposive sampling
c) Probability sampling
d) Non-probability sampling

28. Tertiary prevention includes;
a) Disability limitation
b) Prompt treatment
c) Rehabilitation
d) a and c
e) a and b

29. Agents such as vitamins, protein, fat etc. are an examples of;
a) Physical Agents
b) Nutritive Agents
c) Chemical Agents
d) All of the above

30. Which of the following are key components of Epidemiological triangle,
a) Host, Agent and Physical Environment
b) Host, Genes and Physical Environment
c) Host, Agent and Environment
d) None of the above

31. Tertiary prevention Does not includes;
a) Disability limitation
b) Prompt treatment
c) Rehabilitation
d) a and c
32. Agents such as vitamins, protein, fat etc. are an examples of;
a) Physical Agents
b) Nutritive Agents
c) Chemical Agents
d) All of the above
33. Which of the following are not key components of Epidemiological triangle,
a) Host and Agent
b) Host and Environment
c) Host, Agent and Environment
d) Time, Place and Person
34. Which of the following is a part of continuum of natural history of the disease?
a) Stage of health promotion
b) Stage of prevention
c) Stage of Recovery
d) Stage of sampling
35. Which of the following are also known as retrospective studies?
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

36. A person who harbors the microorganisms of a disease and excretes them without self suffering from symptoms is called;
a) Reservoir
b) Carrier
c) Host
d) Agent
37. The modes of transmission of infectious diseases are as follow EXCEPT;
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Physiological
d) Biological

38. Total number of deaths reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) death rate
b) Crude death rate
c) mortality rate
d) proportional mortality
39. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) Birth Rate
b) Growth Rate
c) Crude Fertility rate
d) Crude Birth Rate
40. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated number of women age 15 to 44 years mid interval is known as;
a) Crude Fertility Rate
b) Birth Rate
c) Growth Rate
d) Sex ratio

41. Number of current cases(new and old) of specified disease identified over a given time interval from estimated population at mid interval is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Period Prevalence
c) Point Prevalence
d) Disease Prevalence
42. Use of statistics to analyze characteristics or changes to a population is termed as;
a) population Pyramid
b) vital statistics
c) Population statistics
d) Population dynamics
43. Measure of the frequency of occurrence of death in a defined population during a specified interval is called;
a) Crude death rate
b) Mortality Rate
c) Death ratio
d) Mortality
44. Public health surveillance DOES NOT consists on the following step;
a) Systematic collection
b) Analysis
c) Planning
d) Interpretation
45. Surveillance system information cycles include;
a) Family and community
b) Public, Health care provider and Health agencies
c) None of the above
d) Public, Health care provider only

46. A state of disorder that results from communication ONLY by direct contact is termed as;
a) Infectious disease
b) Contamination
c) Epidemic
d) Contagious disease
47. Which of the following is NOT a basic measurement in epidemiology;
a) Rate
b) Nominator
c) Ratio
d) Proportion
48. Measurement of current status of disease is termed as;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) Cumulative Incidence
d) Mid interval population
49. The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) a and b
d) Cumulative incidence
50. Which of the following is also known as prospective study;
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

51. Which of the following ratio provide us an estimate of risk in case control study;
a) Odd ratio
b) Sex ratio
c) Disease ratio
d) Dependency ratio
52. The entire group of people or elements that have at least one thing is common is known as;
a) Sample
b) Parameter
c) Hypothesis
d) Population
53. Sampling done on the basis of some pre determined ideas and its result can not be generalized is defined as follow;
a) Snow ball sampling
b) Purposive sampling
c) Probability sampling
d) Non-probability sampling

54. Graphical illustration that shows the distribution of various age groups in population is known as;
a) Dependency Ratio
b) Age Ratio
c) Population Pyramid
d) Population Dynamics
55. Ratio of population who are economically not active to those who are economically active can be defined as;
a) Dependency Ratio
b) Age Ratio
c) Population Ratio
d) Risk benefit ratio
56. In which of the following sampling there is a minimum chance of bias and equally chances of being selected for study.
a) Accidental Sampling
b) Simple Random Sampling
c) Purposive Sampling
d) Snow ball Sampling
57. In study if we are selecting every seventh subject it comes under which of the following sampling method?
a) Stratified Sampling
b) Quota Sampling
c) Systematic Sampling
d) Purposive Sampling
58. Systematic errors produced by your sampling procedure is known as;
a) Sampling bias
b) Sampling errors
c) Non sampling errors
d) Random error
59. The profile of single patient is reported in detail by one or more clinicians is called as follow;
a) Case control study
b) Case Series
c) Investigation
d) Case Report
60. In which of the following study we compare one group among whom the problem is present and another group where problem is absent?
a) Case control study
b) Case Series
c) Cohort study
d) Case Report

Answer key:
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. C
20. B

21. D
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. D
27. B
28. D
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. B
33. D
34. C
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. B
44. C
45. B
46. D
47. B
48. A
49. B
50. A
51. A
52. D
53. B
54. C
55. A
56. B
57. C
58. A
59. D
60. A

Pakistan studies MCQs/BCQsdee

Posted on by
Reply

B. Sc Nursing, Post RN BSN

MULTPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. During khilafat movement an excited mob set fire to a police station at chauri chaura village where about 22 policemen burnt alive in:

a. February 1922

b. February 1923

c. February 1920

d. February 1921

e. February 1924

2. Who presented the resolution for the formation of All India Muslim League:

a. Nawab Salimullah Khan

b. M. Ali Johar

c. Waqar-ul-Mulk

d. Mohsin-ul-Mulk

e. Sir Agha Khan

3. Which of the following was commonly known as the ’Father of idea of Pakistan’?

a. Sir Muhammad Shafi

b. Choudhary Rehmat Ali

c. M A Jinnah

d. Allama Iqbal

4. When India cut off Pakistan’s water supply without notice?

a. June 1948

b. April 1949

c. May 1948

d. May 1949

e. April 1948

5. Mahmood Ghaznavi who ruled Ghani from 997-1030 A.D. raided India for:

a. 17 times

b. 15 times

c. 16 times

d. 19 times

e. 18 times

6. Historical wars of Paniput are very famous ; this battle field is located in Indian Punjab. How many major wars were fought in this field?

a. Five

b. Six

c. Four

d. Three

e. Two

7. The 3rd June plan was announced on 3rd June by:

a. Lord Mounbatten

b. Jawahar Lal Nehru

c. Loord Wavell

d. Moti Lal Nehru

e. M.A. Jinnah

8. Quaid-e-Azam inaugurated the State Bank of Pakistan on:

a. 14th August, 1948

b. 1st July, 1949

c. 14th July, 1948

d. 1st July, 1948

e. 1st June, 1948

9. Who was the chairman of two boundary commissions between India and Pakistan?

a. Sir Cyril Radcliff

b. Tej sinjh

c. Muhammad Muneer

d. Din Muhammad

e. Mehar Chand

10. Name the Viceroy of India who made an offer in August 1940, on the behalf of British Government to Indian people:

a. Lord Wavel

b. Lord Mount Batten

c. Lord Irwin

d. Lord Linlithgow

e. Lord Hardinge

 

11. Who was appointed as the caretaker prime minister of Pakistan after the first dismissal of Benazeer Bhutto:

a. Aftab Ahmed Sherpao

b. Muhammad Khan Junejo

c. Moen Qureshi

d. Meraj Khalid

e. Ghulam Mustafa Jatoi

12. The Muslims of Sub-continent launched the Khilafat movement in the year of:

a. 1918

b. 1919

c. 1916

d. 1917

e. 1920

13. Which of the following was the first Muslim of India who placed Two Nation Theory?

a. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

b. Sir Agha Khan

c. M. Ali Jinnah

d. M. Ali Johar

e. Sir Muhammad Shafi

14. Quaid-e-Azam Muhammad Ali Jinnah joined All India Muslim League in the year of:

a. 1913

b. 1915

c. 1914

d. 1912

e. 1916

15. All India Muslim League was established in:

a. September 1905

b. December 1906

c. September 1906

d. December 1907

e. December 1905

16. The Mughal emperor who promulgated a new faith entitled Din-e-Elahi in 1581 A.D. was:

a. Akber

b. Jahangir

c. Humayun

d. Baber

e. Aurangzeb

17. Who was the first prime minister of Pakistan?

a. Kwaja Nazim-ud-din

b. M. Ali Jinnah

c. Liaquat Ali Khan

d. Muhammad Ali Bogra

e. Nur-ul-Amin

18. The Muslim Deputation met the Viceroy Minto in 1906 at:

a. Bombay

b. Delhi

c. Simla

d. Calcutta

e. Lahore

19. Who was the founder of Mughal dynasty?

a. Sher Shah

b. Humayun

c. Akber

d. Jahangir

e. Zaheer-ud-din Baber

20. In 712 A.D a Muslim expedition to conquer Sindh was sent by Hajjaj Bin Yousuf who was:

a. Governer of Iraq

b. Governer of Makran

c. Emperor of Egypt

d. King of Persia

e. Governer of Syria

 

21. The Simla Deputation led by Agha Khan was consisted of:

a. 25 members

b. 35 members

c. 30 members

d. 32 members

e. 40 members

22. When 3rd Martial law was imposed?

a. 5th July, 1980

b. 5th July, 1978

c. 5th July, 1976

d. 5th July, 1979

e. 5th July, 1977

23. Who coined the name Pakistan?

a. Maulana Muhammad Ali Johar

b. Choudhary Khaliq-uz-zama

c. M,A. Jinnah

d. Choudhary Rehmat Ali

e. Allama Iqbal

24. Select correct chronological order:

a. Akber, Shah Jahan, Humayun, Jahangir

b. Shah Jahan, Jahangir, Akber, Humayun

c. Akber, Humayun, Jahangir, Shah Jahan

d. Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Humayun, Akber

e. Humayun, Akber, Jahangir, Shah Jahan

25. On 23rd March, 1940, the famous resolution which came to be known as Pakistan Resolution was moved by:

a. Choudhary Khaliq-uz-zama

b. Moulvi Fazal-ul-Haq

c. Sardar Auranzeb

d. Moulana Zafar Ali Khan

e. M.Ali Johar

26. Sindh Provincial Muslim League Conference was held at Karachi and passed a resolution adopting Two-Nation Theory on:

a. 10th October, 1938

b. 10th October, 1941

c. 10th October, 1937

d. 10th October, 1939

e. 10th October, 1940

27. The British Government appointed Simon Commission for the recommendation for the new constitution in the year of:

a. 1928

b. 1926

c. 1927

d. 1930

e. 1929

28. The largest political forum of the Islamic countries in the world is:

a. NAM

b. Gulf Countries

c. OIC

d. ECO

e. Arab League

29. With the resignation of Congress Ministries, the Quaid-e-Azam appealed to the people to observe Day of Deliverance on:

a. 22 December, 1938

b. 22 January, 1940

c. 22 January, 1939

d. 22 December, 1939

e. 22 December, 1940

30. Under the Vidya Mandir scheme, the students were asked to pay respect and homage to Gandhi’s picture every day in their assemblies in the schools. The author of this scheme was.

a. Gandhi

b. Imam Ali

c. Zakir Hussain

d. Nehru

e. Dr. Abdul Kalam

 

31. Name the historians who visited India in 1001 A.D. gave earliest account of distinction between the Hindus and Muslims:

a. Mahmood Ghaznavi

b. Al-Beruni

c. Subuktigin

d. Shahabuddin

e. Alptigin

32. The Indian National Congress passed the ‘Quit India Resolution’ in Bombay on:

a. 30th August, 1942

b. 31st August, 1942

c. 28th August, 1942

d. 18th August, 1942

e. 8th August, 1942

33. Where Quaid-e-Azam taken to in the last months of his life:

a. Ziarat

b. Muree

c. Rawalpindi

d. Quetta

e. Lahore

34. India exploded five nuclear tests on 11th and 13th May 1998. Pakistan replied with atomic explosions on:

a. 27th May, 1998

b. 28th May, 1998

c. 26th May, 1998

d. 25th May, 1998

e. 24th May, 1998

35. The Quran and Sunnah declared as the supreme law of Pakistan in________ of constitution of 1973.

a. 9th amendment

b. 10th amendment

c. 7th amendment

d. 8th amendment

e. 11th amendment

36. Kashmir is located in the ________ of Pakistan.

a. East

b. North East

c. North

d. West

e. South

37. When East Pakistan separated from Pakistan?

a. 8th December, 1971

b. 18th December, 1971

c. 10th December, 1971

d. 16th December, 1971

e. 20th December, 1971

38. The famous Congress-League Scheme was signed in Lucknow in the year of:

a. 1916

b. 1912

c. 1914

d. 1919

e. 1918

39. Which significant step of Bhutto Government in 1974 was a great satisfaction for religious parties?

a. Qadianis were declared as non-Muslims

b. Friday was declared weekly holiday

c. Pakistan was declared Islamic state

d. Separate Electorate were announced

 

Answer Key:

1. A
2. A
3. B
4. E
5. A
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. E
12. B
13. A
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. C
19. E
20. A
21. B
22. E
23. D
24. E
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. D
30. C
31. B
32. E
33. A
34. B
35. A
36. C
37. D
38. A
39. A