Pediatrics Best Choice Questions (BCQs)/ MCQs

1. What is the meaning of morbidity?
a) Health
b) Treatment
c) Care
d) Illness.
2. _____________is the number of deaths during the first year of life per 1000 live births?
a) Neonatal morbidity rate
b) Birth rate
c) Illness rate
d) Infant mortality rate.
3. What are the Factors affecting on infant mortality rate except?
a) Birth weight
b) Low level of maternal education
c) Full term birth.
d) Male gender
4. The MOST common cause of under-5 mortality in developing world is
a) Neonatal disease.
b) Diarrhea
c) Malaria
d) Measles
5. After the first year of life, the MOST common cause of death in children is mainly
a) Drowning
b) Burn
c) Accident.
d) War
6. The MOST successful injury prevention strategy is
a) Car seats
b) Water safety
c) Poison prevention.
d) Fall prevention
7. Regarding the physical growth of preschool children (3-5 yr); all the following are true EXCEPT
a) 4-5 kg weight increment/yr.
b) 6-7 cm height increment/yr
c) Brain myelinization stops by 8 yr
d) First deciduous tooth falls by 6 yr
8. Regarding the physical growth of middle childhood (6-11 yr); all the following are true EXCEPT
a) 3-3.5 kg wt increment/yr
b) 6-7 cm height increment/yr
c) Brain myelinization stops by 8 yr.
d) First deciduous tooth falls by 6 yr
9. In fetal period, all the following are true EXCEPT
a) 10 weeks the midgut returns to abdomen
b) 24 weeks surfactant production begun
c) 26 weeks recognizable human face formed.
d) During third trimester the weight triples
10. Prenatal exposure to cigarette smoke is associated with
a) Lower birthweight
b) Shorter length
c) Neonatal diabetes.
d) Learner problem
11. The age at which the infant achieve early head control with bobbing motion when pulled to sit is
a) 2 months
b) 3 months.
c) 3 months
d) 4 months
12. The age at which the infant can reach an object, grasp it and bring it to mouth and seems exited when see the food is
a) 4 months.
b) 5 months
c) 6 Month
d) 7 Month
13. By the age of 7 months the infant is able to do all the following EXCEPT
a) Transfer object from hand to hand
b) Bounces actively
c) Grasp uses radial palm
d) Cruises.
14. A 10-month-old child can do all the following EXCEPT
a) Says “mama” or “dada”
b) Points to objects
c) Speaks first real word.
d) Follows one-step command without gesture
15. The first permanent tooth to erupt is
a) Central incisor at 6 yr
b) Molar at 6 yr.
c) Premolar at 6-7 yr
d) Upper canine at 6-7 yr
16. The MOST common cause of sleeping difficulty in the first 2 months of life is
a) Gastro-esophageal reflux
b) Formula intolerance
c) Colic
d) Developmentally sleeping behavior.
17. All the following are compatible with the definition of obstructive sleep apnea EXCEPT
a) Repeated episodes of prolonged upper airway obstruction
b) ≥30% reduction in airflow
c) Apnea
d) ≥ 30% O2 desaturation.
18. following, the MOST common cause of obstructive sleep apnea in children is
a) Adenotonsillar hypertrophy.
b) Allergy
c) Obesity
d) Craniofacial abnormalities
19. Persons with Down syndrome are at particularly high risk for obstructive sleep apnea with up to 70% prevalence. All the following are considered as risk factors EXCEPT
a) Peculiar facial anatomy
b) Hypotonia
c) Developmental delay.
d) Hypothyroidism
20. All the following are parasomnia disorders EXCEPT
a) Narcolepsy.
b) Sleepwalking
c) Confusional arousal
d) Nightmare
21. The neurodevelopmental function (cognition) is dependent mainly on the development of the following functions EXCEPT
a) Visual–spatial
b) Sensory & Motor
c) Cerebellar.
d) Language
22. The major chemical modulator of attention is
a) Troponin
b) Serotonin
c) Dopamine.
d) Epinephrine
23. All the following are risk factors for specific learning disorders (SLD) EXCEPT
a) Extreme prematurity
b) Low birth weight
c) History of admission to neonatal care unit.
d) History of sibs or parents with SLD
24. All the following are red flags in the history of children with specific learning disorders (SLD) EXCEPT
a) Inconsistency in marks report from grade to grade.
b) Struggling with homework activities
c) Struggling with homework activities
d) Positive standard screening test
25. All the following are established modalities of treatment in a child with specific learning disorders (SLD) EXCEPT
a) remediation of skills
b) demystification
c) bypass strategies
d) Dietary interventions.
26. The MOST common specific learning disorder (SLD) of childhood is
a) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
b) Reading disorder (dyslexia).
c) spelling disorder
d) arithmetical skills disorders
27. You are assessing an eight-year-old male child with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Following, the LEAST useful test/investigation is
a) thyroid function test
b) EEG
c) Blood film.
d) Polysomnography
28. Following of the MOST common presenting behavior in girls with attention deficit/ hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is
a) Inattentive.
b) Hyperactive
c) Impulsive
d) Disruptive
29. Which of the following is TRUE statement of reading disorder?
a) 25% of affected children have affected parents
b) Diagnosis is usually clinical.
c) IQ will remain same with time
d) boys are more affected than girls
30. The MOST reported type of child abuse in Pakistan is
a) Neglect
b) Sexual abuse.
c) Physical abuse
d) psychological maltreatment

Metabolic Acidosis

Definition: metabolic acidosis is a clinical disturbance characterized by a low pH (increased H+ concentration) and a low plasma bicarbonate concentration

  • It can be produced by a gain of hydrogen ion or a loss of bicarbonate (Swenson, 2001)
  • It can be divided clinically into two forms according to values of serum anion gap
  • High anion gap acidosis
  • Normal anion gap acidosis
  • Anion gap = Na+ + K+ – (Cl + HCO3)
  • Anion gap = Na+ – (Cl + HCO3)
  • Potassium is often omitted from the equation because of its low level in the plasma
  • The normal value for an anion gap is 8 to 12mEq/L (8 – 12 mmol/L) without K+ in the equation
  • Normal anion gap acidosis results from the direct loss of bicarbonate as in diarrhea, lower intestinal fistulas, use of divertics
  • High anion gap acidosis results from excessive accumulation of fixed acid
  • If it increased to 30mEq/L (30mmol/L) or more than a high anion gap metabolic acidosis is present regardless of what the pH and the HCO3 are
  • High ion gap occurs in ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis

Clinical Manifestation

  • Signs and symptoms of metabolic acidosis vary with the severity of the acidosis may include Headache
  • Confusion Drowsiness
  • Increased respiratory rate and depth Nausea and vomiting
  • Peripheral vasodilatation
  • And decreased cardiac output occurs when the pH falls below 7 On Examination physical findings
  • Low BP
  • Cold and Clammy skin Shock (Swenson 2001)


  • ABG’s – expected blood gas changes, low bicarbonate level less than 22mEq/L and low pH less than 7.35
  • Serum electrolytes Hyperkalemia ECG


  • Treatment is directed at correcting the metabolic defects (Swenson 2001) Decrease source of chloride
  • Administer bi carbonate if pH level is less 7.1 Serum K+ level monitored closely Hypokalemia is corrected
  • In chronic metabolic acidosis low serum Ca+ are treated Hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis

Fluid Volume Disturbance

Fluid Volume Deficit (Hypovolemia)

 Definition:fluid volume deficit (FVD) occurs when loss of extracellular fluid volume exceeds the intake of fluid

It occurs when water and electrolyte are lost in the same proportion as they exist in normal fluids Fluid volume deficit (hypovolemia) should not be confused with the term dehydration, which refers to loss of water alone with increased serum sodium level, FVD may occur alone or in combination with other imbalances


FVD results from loss of body fluids and occurs more rapidly when coupled with decreased fluid intake

FVD can develop from inadequate intake alone if the decreased intake is prolonged

Causes of FVD include abnormal fluid losses such as resulting from vomiting, diarrhea, G.I suctioning and sweating and decreased intake as in Nausea or irritability to gain access to fluids (Beck – 2000) Additional risk factors diabetes inspidius, adrenal insufficiency, osmotic dieresis hemorrhage and coma

Clinical Manifestation 

Fluid volume deficit can develop rapidly and can be

  • Mild
  • Moderate
  • Or severe depending on the degree of fluid loss

Important characteristics of FVD include

  • Acute wt loss
  • Decreased skin turgor
  • Oliguria
  • Concentrated urine
  • Postural hypotension
  • A weak, rapid heart rate
  • Flattened neck veins
  • Increased temperature
  • Decreased central venous pressure
  • Cool
  • Clamming skin related to peripheral vasoconstriction
  • Thirst
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea
  • Muscles weakness
  • Cramps


  • BUN (blood urine nitrogen) related to serum cretinine concentration (a ratio greater than 20:1)
  • Health history
  • Physical examination
  • Serum electrolytes changes serum K, Na (hypokalemia, hyponatermia or hypernatermia, hyperkalemia)
  • Urine specific gravity increased

Medical Management 

  • Planning of correction of fluid loss for patient with fluid volume deficit (FVD)
  • The health care provider consider the usual maintenance requirements of the patient and other factors (such as fever) that can influence fluid needs
  • When deficit is not severe the oral route is preferred
  • In acute and severe losses the I/V route is required isotonic electrolyte solutions e.g lactated Ringer’s or 0.9% N/S are frequently used to treat hypotension pts with FVD
  • Maintain and assess I/O (intake and output chart)
  • Wt: , vital signs, central venous pressure, level of consciousness (LOC), breath sounds, skin color
  • The rate of fluid administration is based on severity of loss of and patient hemodynamic response

Nursing Management 

  • To assess for fluid volume deficit
  • Nurse monitors and measures fluid intake and output at least every 8 hours and sometime hourly
  • Vital signs closely monitored
  • Nurse should observe for weak pulse and postural hypotension
  • Skin and tongue turgor is monitored on regular basis
  • Preventing FVD – as diarrhea
  • Correcting FVD – if patient is unable to take fluid the orally the nurse should give fluid parental I/V

Adult Health Nursing MCQs/BCQs- 4th Semester

1. The Cranial nerves are ____ in pairs

  1. 10
  2. 8
  3. 6
  4. 4
  5. 12

2. Causes of Hyper parathyroidism

  1. Neck trauma
  2. Parathyroid adenoma
  3. Carcinoma
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the available choices

3. _________ is a group of metabolic disorders characterized by elevated levels of blood insulin

  1. Pineal gland
  2. Diabetes mellitus
  3. Thymus gland
  4. Hyper thyroidism
  5. Diabetes insipidus

4. Primary hypertension or essential hypertension observed in

  1. Obesity
  2. Use of salt in excess
  3. Aging
  4. All of the above
  5. Alcohol and smoking

5. Valve in the heart between left atrium and left ventricle is called

  1. Bicuspid valve
  2. Tricuspid valve
  3. Cardio Sphincter valve
  4. None of the available choices
  5. Ileocecal valve

6. The pituitary gland lies In the hypophyseal fossa of the ________

  1. Nasal bone
  2. None of the available choices
  3. Temporal bone
  4. Sphenoid bone of the cranial cavity
  5. Both nasal bone and temporal bone

7. An abnormally dilated tortures superficial vein caused by incompetent veins is observed in the disorder

  1. Deep venous thrombosis
  2. Varicose vein
  3. Venous thrombosis
  4. Atherosclerosis
  5. Arteriosclerosis

8. The Central Nervous system (CNS) is composed of

  1. Brain and spinal cord
  2. None of these
  3. Digestive system
  4. Lungs and heart
  5. Liver and kidney

9. It is characterized by progressive loss of joint cartilage and happens in the disorder:

  1. Osteoporosis
  2. Osteoarthritis
  3. Fracture
  4. Osteomalacia
  5. T.B of the bone

10. __________ is the disorder in which there is reduction of bone density in it, the rate of bone resorption is greater than the rate of bone formation

  1. Osteoarthritis
  2. Rheumatoid arthritis
  3. Osteoporosis
  4. Osteomyelitis
  5. Osteitis deformans

11. Cerebro Spinal Fluid (CSF)is secreted continuously at the rate of per day

  1. 800 ml
  2. 1000 ml
  3. 720 ml
  4. 400 ml
  5. 500 ml

12. A condition in where arteries become narrowed and hardened due to an excessive buildup of plaque around the artery wall the disorder is known as ?

  1. Varicose vein
  2. Aneurism
  3. Atherosclerosis
  4. Venous thrombosis
  5. Arteriosclerosis

13. The weight of the pituitary gland about _____ and consist _____ distinct parts that originate from different types of cells

  1. 350mg / 5parts
  2. 500mg / 2 parts
  3. 400mg / 2 parts
  4. 600mg / 4 parts
  5. 500mg / 3 parts

14. Following are the clinical manifestations of CVA or brain attack except one:

  1. Increase cognition
  2. Confusion or changes in mental status
  3. Visual disturbance
  4. Numbness
  5. Motor, perceptual & sensory loss

15. It causes decreased density and possible fracture and often referred to (Silent Disease)

  1. Osteomalacia
  2. Osteoporosis
  3. Bone tumor
  4. Tuberculosis
  5. Rheumatoid arthritis

16. _______ is a lens opacity or cloudiness or blurred vision a leading cause of disability in older patient:

  1. Conjunctivitis
  2. Foreign body in the eye
  3. Cataract
  4. Retinal detachment
  5. Glaucoma

17. The thyroid gland is situated in the neck in front of the larynx and trachea at the level of :

  1. None of the available choices
  2. 3rd 4th and 5th cervical and 2nd thoracic vertebrae
  3. 2nd 3rd and 4th cervical and 1st thoracic vertebrae
  4. 1st 2nd and 3rd cervical and 2nd thoracic vertebrae
  5. 5th 6th and 7th cervical and 1st thoracic vertebrae

18. Basal Ganglia, Thalamus, Hypothalamus are other parts of:

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Pons
  3. Mid brain
  4. Cerebellum
  5. Medulla oblongata

19. For descriptive purposes each hemisphere of cerebrum is divided into lobes

  1. 6
  2. 4
  3. 2
  4. 8
  5. 10

20. Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater are the layers of

  1. Spinal cord
  2. Both Brain and Spinal cord
  3. Heart
  4. Brain
  5. Vertebral column

21. A ________ an ischemic stroke or

  1. None of these
  2. CVS
  3. CVA
  4. CNS
  5. PNS

22. _______ is the largest part of the brain and it occupies the anterior and middle cranial fossa

  1. Mid brain
  2. Medulla oblongata
  3. Cerebrum
  4. None of the available choices
  5. Cerebellum

23. _______ is defined as acute hemorrhage from nostril, nasal cavity or nasopharynx

  1. Peptic ulcer
  2. Epistaxis
  3. T.B
  4. Gastritis
  5. Malena

24. _____ is the removal of a part of the body

  1. Soft tissue injury
  2. Paget’s disease of the bone
  3. Amputation
  4. Fracture
  5. Osteomyelitis

25. Following are the Key sign and symptoms occurs in as increased metabolic rate, weight loss, good appetite, anxiety etc.

  1. Hypothyroidism
  2. Cushing syndrome
  3. Hypo thyroidism
  4. Hyper thyroidism
  5. Hyper parathyroidism

26. The nursing intervention of trigeminal neuralgia except one?

  1. Recognize the patient’s anxiety
  2. Allow the patient to rub his/her face with soapy water
  3. Provide post-operative care
  4. Instruct the patient to rinse mouth after eating when tooth brushing cause pain
  5. Monitor patient for bone marrow depression during long term drug therapy

27. High Blood Pressure is said to be present if it is at or above in young men:

  1. 100/60mmHg
  2. 130/90mmHg
  3. 120/80mmHg
  4. 110/70mmHg
  5. 140/90mmHg

28. Clinical presentation as difficulty in breathing, wheezing, chest tightness, restlessness, shortness of breathing (SOB) found in :

  1. Emphysema
  2. Liver failure
  3. Asthma
  4. Renal failure
  5. Dyspnea

29. ______ is disorder of posterior lobe of pituitary gland due to deficiency of vasopressin the anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)?

  1. Addison’s disease
  2. Gestational diabetes mellitus
  3. Hypothyroidism
  4. Diabetes mellitus
  5. Diabetes insipidus

30. Which type of joint is freely moveable?

  1. Synarthrodial and Amphiarthrodial
  2. Diarthrosis
  3. Amphiarthrodial
  4. Synarthrodial
  5. None of the available choices

31. Following are the clinical manifestations of the hyperthyroidism except one?

  1. Decreased respiration rate
  2. Palpitations
  3. Nervousness
  4. Pulse rate between 90 and 160 beats per minutes
  5. Poor tolerance of heat

32. The functions of hypothalamus includes except one:

  1. Control of autonomic nervous system
  2. Thirst and water balance
  3. Body temperature
  4. Bone growth
  5. Appetite

33. According to classification of fracture the open fracture means:

  1. Severeal bone fracture
  2. Complete fracture
  3. Simple no break in skin
  4. Break the skin and mucous membrane
  5. Greenstick

34. Following sign and symptoms are often observed as bone fracture, recent weight loss, arthritis, pallor of skin, kidney stone, and constipation in disorder of:

  1. Anemia
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Hypoparathyroidism
  4. Hyperparathyroidism
  5. Hyperthyroidism

35. The causative agent of pulmonary tuberculosis is:

  1. Pneumococcus
  2. Mycobacterium
  3. E-coli
  4. Streptococcus
  5. H-influenza

36. ______ results from excessive adreno-cortical activity observed in:

  1. Systemic lupus erythematous
  2. Cushing syndrome
  3. Nephrotic syndrome
  4. Diabetes mellitus
  5. Addison’s disease

37. The key features observed as polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, fatigue, sudden vision changes I the disorder of:

  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. Gastroenteritis
  3. Cholicystitis
  4. Myasthenia gravis
  5. Hydro nephrosis

38. Diabetes insipidus is a disorder of:

  1. Pineal gland
  2. Pancreatic gland
  3. Thymus gland
  4. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland
  5. Posterior lobe of pituitary gland

39. The heart has _____ chambers in it

  1. 6
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 4
  5. 5

40. A chronic metabolic disorder in which a bone is excessively broken down is known as:

  1. Strain and sprain
  2. Paget’s disease of the above
  3. Osteoporosis
  4. Rheumatoid arthritis
  5. Osteoarthritis

Pathophysiology MCQs/BCQs

1) Total body water is:
1. 14L
2. 42L
3. 20 L
4. 28 L

2) All of the following are benign tumors, the most unlikely is:
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Meningioma
3. Fibroma
4. Leiomyoma

3) Neutrophils predominate in acute inflammatory infiltrate during:
1. First 06 -24 hours
2. First 08 hours
3. First 04- 06 hours
4. First 24-48 hours

4) Most effective Bactericidal system in neutrophils is:
1. Halideion
2. MPOsystem (Myeloperoxidase)
3. NADPHoxidasesystem
4. MP0-H202Halidesystem

5) What is the most important prognostic factor for human cancer is proved to be of greater clinical value:
1. Stage
2. Vascular invasion.
3. Lymphocytic infiltration
4. Grade.

6) Most reliable feature that differentiates malignant tumor from benign is:
1. Local invasion
2. Metastasis
3. Irregular surface
4. Capsule

7) Regarding type – I hypersensitity:
1. Initial response is characterized by vasoconstriction
2. Late phase reaction occurs after few minutes
3. Develop after few days
4. Characterized by release of mast cell mediators

8) Reaction due to injection of horse serum (serum sickness) is example of:
1. Type – IV hypersensitivity
2. Type – Il hypersensitivity
3. Type – Ill hypersensitivity
4 Type – I hypersensitivity

9) Antibody mediated hypersensitivity does not occur in:
1. Erythroblastosis fetalis
2. Autoimmune Hemolytic anemia
3. Arthus reaction
4. Transfusion reaction

10) A 50 years old male develops sudden severe abdominal pain radiating to back. His lab values shows raised Amylase level. Regarding this case fat necrosis may occur in which of the following organ:
1. Brain
2. Skeletal muscle
3. Pancrease
4. Heart


11) Regarding Necrosis, which of the following statement is true:
1. Pancreas shows coagulative necrosis
2. Heart shows coagulative necrosis
3. Brain shows coagulation Necrosis
4. Heart shows liquefactive necrosis

12) In full term pregnancy, which one of the following cell adaptation has maximum contribution to increase in the size of uterus?
1. Dystrophy
2. Hyperplasia
3. Anaplasia
4. Atrophy

13) AIDS can be transferred through following factors except:

2. Blood
3. Direct contact
4. Saliva
14) All of the following are malignant tumors, the most unlikely is
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Fibrosarcoma
3. Teratoma
4. Leukemia

16) Which of the following complement proteins may act as Opsonins:
1. c3b
2. C3a
3 C5b 9 complex
4. C3a & C5a

17) All of the following are malignant tumors, the most unlikely is:
1. Leukemia
2. Adenocarcinoma
3. Fibrosarcoma
4. Osteoma

18) Which one of the following mediator causes, chemotaxis of the leukocytes?
1. C1
2. C5a
3. c2a
4. C4

19) Granuloma with caseous necrosis is seen in:
1. Lymphoma
2. Tuberculosis
3. Sarcoidosis
4. Foreign body granuloma

20) Which of the following lab diagnostic technique is most convenient and suitable for the initial diagnosis and management of the patient suffering from swelling infront of neck (goiter)?
1 Smear
3. Immunohistochemistry
4. Biopsy


21) ———— is also called Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity because it utilizes antibodies that can destroy normal cells by complement lysis or by antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
1. Type-ll hypersensitivity
2. Type-l hypersensivitiy
3. Type-IV hypersensivitiy
4. Type-ll hypersensivitiy

22) Most common chornic inflammatory cells are:
1. Neutrophils
2. Macrophages
3. Eosinophils
4. Plasma cells

23) Malignant tumor arising from mesenchymal tissue is most likely called as:
1. Adenomna
2. Sarcoma
3. Hepatoma
4. Fibroma

24) Metastasis of cancer most unlikely occur by:
1. Lymphatic spread
2. Direct seeding of body cavities
3. Aerosol droplet
4. Hematogenous spread

25) Regarding anaplasia which of the following statement is true:
1. Nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio 1:6
2. Increase mitosis
3. Well differentiated cells
4. Normal size of shape of cells

26) Laboratory test most commonly used for diagnosis of AIDS is:

27) Multiple sclerosis is example of:
1. Type – l hypersensitivity
2. Type- IV hypersensitivity
3. Type-Ill hypersensitivity
4. Type – I hypersensitivity

28) Generalized edema through the body is termed as:
1. Anasarca
2. Anaplasia
3. Sarcoma
4. Pitting edema

29) Major component of innate immunity are all of following, the most unlikely is:
1. Epithelial barrier
2. B-lymphocyte
3. Complement proteins
4. NK cells

30) A 40 years old male suffering from cervical lymphadenopathy. Biopsy report shows granuloma with caseous necrosis. The most likely diagnosis will be
1. Tuberculosis
2. Sarcoidosis
3. Lymphoma
4 Foreign body granuloma


31) Pathological hyperplasia of thyroid gland occurs in:
1. Thyroid connective tissue
2. Thyroid follicles
3. Whole thyroid tissue
4. Thyroid stroma

32) A 55 years old female with ovarian Carcinoma developed ascities. Cytological analysiss of ascitic fluid show malignant cells. Which of the following pathway best explaining the spreading of tumor to the peritonium:
1. Seeding of body cavity
2. Lymphatic spread
3. Hematogenous spread
4. Direct Extension

33) Weakness and wasting of the body due to severe chronic illness is referred to:
1. Neoplasm
2. Cachexia
3. Anorexia
4. Fatigue

34) Which of the following is earliest stage of vascular events of acute inflammation?
1. Vasodilation
2. Initial vasoconstriction
3. Redness
4. Leukocytic migration

35) Increased concentration of potassium in the blood is termed as:
1. Hypernatremia
2. Hyperkalemia
3. Hypokalemia
4. Hyponatremia

36) Loss of uniformity of cells & Ioss of arachitectural orientation is most likely called as:
1. Desmoplasia
2. Metaplasia
3. Dysplasia
4. Anaplasia

37) Arthus reaction is example of:
1. Type – lll hypersensitivity
2. Type – II hypersensitivity
3. Type- IV hypersensitivity
4. Type – I hypersensitivity

38) All are causes of atrophy, the most unlikely is:
1. Diminished blood supply
2. Denervation
3. Decrease workload
4. Increase workload

39) Excessive intake of acid containing foods and beverages may lead to development of:
1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Respiratory alkalosis
3. Metbolic alkalosis
4. Respiratory acidosis

40) In full term pregnancy, which one of the following cell adaptations has maximum contribution to increase in the size of uterus?
1. Dystrophy
2. Hyperplasia
3. Anaplasia
4 Atrophy

41) Goodpasture syndrome is example of:
1. Type -Ill hypersensitivityy
2. Type – I hypersensitivity
3. Type-ll hypersensitivity
4. Type – IV hypersensitivity


Adult health Nursing-I Solved past paper -2018

Q1) a) define Folic acid deficiency anemia.

Folate-deficiency anemia is a decrease in red blood cells (anemia) due to a lack of folate. Folate is a type of vitamin B. It is also called folic acid. Anemia is a condition in which the body does not have enough healthy red blood cells. Red blood cells provide oxygen to body tissues.

b) write down the dietary sources of Folic acid

  1. Legumes (beans, peas, lentils)
  2. Asparagus
  3. Eggs
  4. Leafy greens
  5. Beets
  6. Citrus fruits
  7. Brussels sprouts
  8. Broccoli
  9. Nuts and seeds
  10. Beef liver
  11. Wheat germ
  12. Papaya
  13. Bananas
  14. Avocado
  15. Fortified grains

c) write down the importance of Folic acid in human body

1)Folic acid helps your body produce and maintain new cells.

2)It helps prevent changes to DNA that may lead to cancer.

3)As a medication, folic acid is used to treat folic acid deficiency and certain types of anemia (lack of red blood cells) caused by folic acid deficiency.

Q2) a) define appendicitis

It is an acute inflammation of vermiform appendix (a small finger like appendage attached to caecum just below the ileocecal valve)

  1. write down the sign and symptoms of appendicitis
  • progressively worsening pain
  • painful coughing or sneezing
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • inability to pass gas (break wind)
  • fever
  • constipation
  • loss of appetite
  1. write down the nursing management of appendicitis
    1. Maintain NPO status.
    2. Administer fluids intravenously to prevent dehydration.
    3. Monitor for changes in level of pain.
    4. Monitor for signs of ruptured appendix and peritonitis.
    5. Position right-side lying or low to semi fowler position to promote comfort.
    6. Monitor bowel sounds.

Q3) define ovarian cyst

Ovarian cysts are fluid-filled sacs or pockets in an ovary or on its surface. Women have two ovaries, each about the size and shape of an almond on each side of the uterus.

  1. write down the causes and management of ovarian cyst
    1. Hormonal problems. Functional cysts usually go away on their own without treatment.
    2. Women with endometriosis can develop a type of ovarian cyst called an endometrioma.
    3. Severe pelvic infections.


▪ Functional/physiologic cysts usually resolve spontaneously


  • Uncomplicated cyst rupture (hemodynamically stable) ▫Pain management (e.g., NSAIDs)



  • Ongoing hemorrhage, hemodynamic instability, torsion/rupture risk
  • Ovarian cystectomy ▫Removal of abnormal tissue only
  • Unilateral/bilateral oophorectomy ▫Removal of entire ovary(ies); recommended for menopausal/ postmenopausal individuals, if malignancy confirmed

Q4) define polycythemia

Polycythemia refers to an increase in the number of red blood cells in the body. The extra cells cause the blood to be thicker, and this, in turn, increases the risk of other health issues, such as blood clots.

  1. discuss types of polycythemia

Primary Polycythemia occurs when excess red blood cells are produced as a result of an abnormality of the bone marrow. Often, excess white blood cells and platelets are also produced.


Secondary polycythemia is usually due to increased erythropoietin (EPO) production either in response to chronic hypoxia (low blood oxygen level) or from an erythropoietin secreting tumor.


Relative erythrocytosis is an increase in RBC numbers without an increase in total RBC mass. Usually, this is caused by loss of plasma volume with resultant hemo-concentration, as seen in severe dehydration related to vomiting and diarrhea.


Stress polycythemia is a term applied to a chronic (long standing) state of low plasma volume, which is seen commonly in active, hardworking, anxious, middle-aged men. In these people, the red blood cell volume is normal, but the plasma volume is low.

  1. write down the nursing intervention of polycythemia
    1. Monitor for peripheral and cerebral thrombosis.
    2. Assist the patient for ambulation
    3. Perform phlebotomy as per doctor’s order
  2. Administer iv fluids and encourage to take oral fluids
  3. Administer pain management measures
  4. Advice to do regular exercise
  5. Instruct to avoid tobacco
  6. Advise to maintain skin hygiene
  7. Avoid extreme temperatures
  8. Provide psychological support to the patient.

Q5) a) define infertility

Inability to achieve pregnancy with limited intercourse for at least 1 year

  1. write down the causes of infertility in male and female Causes of infertility in females

1)​The most common overall cause of female infertility is the failure to ovulate.

2)Problems with the menstrual cycle, the process that prepares the female body for pregnancy, can lead to infertility.

3)Structural problems usually involve the presence of abnormal tissue in the fallopian tubes or uterus.

4)Infections can also cause infertility in men and women.

5)Implantation failure refers to the failure of a fertilized egg to implant in the uterine wall to begin pregnancy.

6)Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) is one of the most common causes of female infertility.

7)Primary Ovary Insufficiency (POI) is a condition in which a woman’s ovaries stop producing hormones and eggs at a young age.

8)​Autoimmune disorders cause the body’s immune system to attack normal body tissues it would normally ignore. Autoimmune disorders, such as lupus, Hashimoto’s and other types of thyroiditis, or rheumatoid arthritis, may affect fertility.

Causes of infertility in Males

1)​Sperm Disorders

The most common problems are with making and growing sperm. Sperm may:

  • not grow fully
  • be oddly shaped
  • not move the right way
  • be made in very low numbers (oligospermia)
  • not be made at all (azoospermia)


Varicoceles are swollen veins in the scrotum. ​They harm sperm growth by blocking proper blood drainage.

3)​Retrograde Ejaculation

Retrograde ejaculation is when semen goes backwards in the body. They go into your bladder instead of out the penis. This happens when nerves and muscles in your bladder don’t close during orgasm (climax). Semen may have normal sperm, but the semen cannot reach the vagina.

4)​Immunologic Infertility

Sometimes a man’s body makes antibodies that attack his own sperm.


Sometimes sperm can be blocked. Repeated infections, surgery (such as vasectomy), swelling or developmental defects can cause blockage. Any part of the male reproductive tract can be blocked. With a blockage, sperm from the testicles can’t leave the body during ejaculation.


Hormones made by the pituitary gland tell the testicles to make sperm. Very low hormone levels cause poor sperm growth.


Sperm carries half of the DNA to the egg. Changes in the number and structure of chromosomes can affect fertility. For example, the male Y chromosome may be missing parts.


Certain medications can change sperm production, function and delivery. These medications are most often given to treat health problems like:

  • arthritis
  • depression
  • digestive problems
  • infections
  • high blood pressure
  • cancer

Q6) a) define peritonitis

Inflammation of the peritoneum (The peritoneum is the tissue layer of cells lining the inner wall of the abdomen and pelvis). Peritonitis can result from infection (such as bacteria or parasites), injury and bleeding, or diseases (such as systemic lupus erythematosus).

  1. discuss the causes of peritonitis
    1. a burst stomach ulcer.
    2. a burst appendix.
    3. digestive problems, such as Crohn’s disease or diverticuliti
    4. injury to the stomach.
    5. pelvic inflammatory disease
  1. write down the nursing management of peritonitis
    1. Blood pressure monitoring. The patient’s blood pressure is monitored by arterial line if shock is present
    2. Administration of analgesic and anti-emetics can be done as prescribed.
    3. Pain management. Analgesics and ​positioning​could help in decreasing pain.
      I&O monitoring.
    4. Accurate recording of all ​intakes and output​could help in the assessment of fluid replacement.
    5. IV fluids​. The ​nurse​administers and closely monitors IV fluids.
    6. Drainage monitoring. The nurse must monitor and record the character of the drainage postoperatively.

Q7) write the short note on the following

1)CT scan

A computerized tomography (CT) scan combines a series of X-ray images taken from different angles around your body and uses computer processing to create cross-sectional images (slices) of the bones, blood vessels and soft tissues inside your body. CT scan images provide more-detailed information than plain X-rays do.

2) upper and lower endoscopies

Endoscopy is a procedure in which the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is viewed through a fiber-optic camera known as an endoscope, inserted either through the mouth (upper) to scan the esophagus, stomach and small intestines, or through the anus (lower) to examine the large intestine, colon and rectum.

3) parenthesis

Parenthesis​refer to punctuation marks “(” and “)” used to separate relevant information or a comment from the rest of the text, or to enclose mathematical symbols, or the text inside of these marks. The punctuation marks in the math equation 2x (4+6) are an example ​of ​parenthesis​.

4) cystoscopy

Cystoscopy (sis-TOS-kuh-pee) is a procedure that allows your doctor to examine the lining of your bladder and the tube that carries urine out of your body (urethra). A hollow tube (cystoscope) equipped with a lens is inserted into your urethra and slowly advances into your bladder.

5) metabolic acidosis

Metabolic acidosis is a serious electrolyte disorder characterized by an imbalance in the body’s acid-base balance. Metabolic acidosis has three main root causes: increased acid production, loss of bicarbonate, and a reduced ability of the kidneys to excrete excess acids.

The most common causes of hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis are gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, renal tubular acidosis, drugs-induced hyperkalemia, early renal failure, and administration of acids.


Health assessment MCQs

1) When doing an assessment on a client’s eyes the very first thing that a nurse should look at is?
A. Eye internal structures
B. Eye external structures
C. The pupils reactivity to light
D. Color of the irises of the eye

2) While the nurse is inspecting the throat of a client with a tongue blade, the client begins to gag. What does this response indicate to the nurse?
A. The client is nauseated.
B. The client has nerve damage to his tongue.
C. The client has a functioning response.
D. The client has a malfunctioning response

3) During the health history, a client begins to talk about her dog and the trouble she is having housebreaking the new pet. To help the client return to the health interview, the nurse could use the communication skill:
A. Listening
B. Reflecting
C. Questioning
D. Focusing

4) After inspecting a client’s abdomen, which assessment technique should the nurse use next ?
A. Light Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Deep Palpation

5) Nurse Tara asks her client Farhan to clench his jaw as she continues to palpate his head. When she asks him to do this what is Nurse Tara most likely trying to palpate?
A. Faran’s submandibular joint
B. Farhan’s submental joint
C. Farhan’s temporomandibular joint
D. Faran’s temporal artery

6) The nurse is planning to palpate a client’s bladder. Which area of the abdomen should this palpation be done?
A. Hypogastric region
B. Right hypochondriac region
C. Right Lower Quadrant
D. Left lumbar region

7) A 70-year-old male client comes into the clinic with weight loss and difficulty swallowing. Which of the following should the nurse document for this client?
A. Odynophagia
B. Bulimia
C. Dysphagia
D. Aphasia

8) A 15-year-old high school student came to the clinic with a 1-day history of nausea and anorexia. He describes the pain as generalized yesterday, but today it has localized to the right lower quadrant. You palpate the left lower quadrant and the patient experiences pain in the right lower quadrant. What is the name of this sign?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign

9) During eye assessment when you asked the patient to follow your finger or pencil as you move it in toward the bridge of the nose. Which of the following test you are performing?
A. Visual acuity
B. Visual Fields by Confrontation
C. Test for convergence
D. Visual fields

10) A nurse doing her assessment proceeds to palpate a client’s frontal and maxillary sinuses. What should she make sure she checks for?
A. Tactile signs of carcinoma
B. Swelling
C. Lesions
D. Tenderness

11) A nurse would use either a Snelling chart or the finger wiggle test to assess a client’s what?
A. Hearing
B. Vision
C. Consensual light reflex
D. Bone conduction

12 ) During assessment of pharynx you as the client to say “Ah” and uvula and soft palate rise centrally. It determine the function of which cranial nerve:
A. Spinal accessory
B. Vagus
C. Trochlear
D. Trigeminal

13) During the assessment of a client, the nurse gently touches the tip of a sterile cotton swab in the client’s eye. Which of the following would be considered an expected response for the client to make?
A. Begin sneezing.
B. Blink.
C. Scream in pain.
D. Swat the nurse’s hand away.

14) If assessing a client for kidney tenderness, where would you begin?
A. External Oblique Angle
B. Left Upper Quadrant
C. Right Upper Quadrant
D. Costovertebral Angle

15) The three things a nurse needs to check for when doing an examination on the eyes regarding the external structures is?
A. Eyelash texture, shape of eyes, redness
B. Shape of eyes, pupils reactivity, iris’s color
C. Drainage, possible tumors, irritation
D. Eyelash distribution, coloring, drainage

16) A 40-year-old female came for evaluation of abdominal pain. She stated that it is worse after eating, especially if she has a meal that is spicy or high in fat. She has taken antacids, but they have not helped the pain. After examining her abdomen, you strongly suspect cholecystitis. Which sign on examination increases your suspicion for this diagnosis?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign

17) During the percussion of a client’s abdomen, the nurse hears a loud high-pitched drum like tone. The nurse would document this sound as being:
A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Hyper-resonance
D. Flatness

18) What could the nurse assess based solely on the way the client walks into the room?
A. Signs of illness, well nourished
B. Dress and signs of illness
C. Gender and age
D. Gait and posture

19) Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of Bell’s palsy?
A. Asymmetry of the mouth
B. Asymmetry of the entire side of the face
C. Asymmetry of the lower face
D. Involuntary movements of the face

20) The nurse notices that a client walks with a limp and has long legs. Which of the following aspects of the general survey is this nurse assessing?
A. Physical appearance
B. Behavior
C. Mental status
D. Mobility

21) Test for shifting dullness is performed to assess:
A. Liver abscess
B. Ascites
C. Cholecystitis
D. Peritonitis

22) When a nurse performing the eye examinations, which piece of equipment does she/he use to inspect the eye structures?
A. Ultrasonic stethoscope
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Ophthalmoscope
D. Otoscope

23) The normal liver span of an adult is:
A. 7-12 cm
B. 5-12 cm
C. 6-12 cm
D. 4-12 cm

24) A client comes into the clinic for a routine breast and axilla exam. Which assessment technique does the nurse use first during this examination?
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion

25) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. a. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. b. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program…
C. A:
D. c. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E

26) Grade +2 pitting edema is:
A. 4 mm deep
B. 6 mm deep
C. 2 mm deep
D. 8 mm deep

27) The nurse is going to assess a client’s blood pressure. To do this, the nurse will need to have:
A. A stethoscope and sphygmomanometer
B. A tongue blade and tuning fork
C. A flashlight and gloves
D. A stethoscope and thermometer

28) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E.
C. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program.
D. Encourage all females to complete monthly breast exams

29) After auscultating the bowel sounds of a client, the nurse realizes the sounds were long. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to use to document this finding?
A. Intensity
B. Pitch
C. Quality
D. Duration

30) During the physical assessment of Mr. Ahsan’s skin, the nurse observed that Mr. Ahsan’s skin color is pale, the nurse expect that Mr. Ahsan may has:
A. Jaundice
B. Anemia
C. Heart failure
D. Pulmonary edema

31) The nurse assesses a client’s vision to be 20/150. The client asks for an explanation of the numbers. Which of the following would be a correct explanation for the nurse to say to the client?
A. You might need surgery to correct the nystagmus
B. You see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 150 feet.
C. You see at 150 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 20 feet.
D. You have impaired vision

32) A nurse conducting an assessment on a client’s head would do what first?
A. Inspect and palpate hair
B. Look at patient’s prior medical history
C. Inspect and palpate scalp
D. Inspect and palpate sinuses to control spread of germs

33) The nurse is planning to assess the abdomen of an adult male.
A. Place the client in side-lying position
B. Ask client to empty bladder
C. Tell client to raise arms above the head
D. Ask client to hold his breath for a few seconds

34) Normal angle at nail base is:
A. 10 degrees
B. 160 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 30 degrees

35) When performing an ear assessment, the nurse notes tenderness of the pinna and tragus to movement and the presence of drainage in the external canal. The nurse suspects which of the following?
A. Otitis Media
B. Otitis Externa
C. An inner ear infection
D. A negative rmberg’s sign

36) The nurse asks the client to move his eyes in the shape of an H and then in a large X. The portion of the physical assessment the nurse is completing with this client is:
A. Assessing the optic nerve
B. Assessing extra ocular muscle movements
C. Assessing the eyelids
D. Assessing the red reflex

37) As the nurse introduces the otoscope into a client’s ear, the client starts to jerk his head and complains of pain. Which of the following should the nurse do?
A. Remove the otoscope and reinsert taking care not to touch the sides of the ear canal.
B. Begin to remove the embedded cerumen.
C. Instill ear drops.
D. Document “unable to complete the examination.

38) Which cranial nerve is affected by Bell’s palsy?
A. Facial (CN VII)
B. Trigeminal (CN V)
C. Vagus (X)
D. Abducens (CN VI)

39) In medical which term is used for “impaired near vision”?
A. Amblyopia
B. Myopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Diplopia

40) During the physical examination of a male client’s scrotum, the nurse palpates a mass. What should the nurse do next with this information?
A. Perform transillumination to further assess the finding.
B. Nothing. This is a normal finding.
C. Document mass palpated, left testicle.
D. Ask the client how long he’s had a tumor in his testicle.

41) During the breast exam, the nurse asks the client to raise her arms over her head. Why did the nurse change the client’s position?
A. The client has small breasts.
B. The client has large breasts.
C. The nurse couldn’t palpate the axillae correctly.
D. Skin dimpling is accented in this position

Adult health Nursing-I solved past paper -2015

Q1) a) define Folic acid deficiency anaemia

Folate​-​deficiency anaemia​is the lack of ​folic acid​in the blood. ​Folic acid​is a B vitamin that helps your body make red blood cells. If you don’t have enough red blood cells, you have ​anaemia​. Red blood cells carry oxygen to all parts of your body.

  1. b) write down the dietary sources of Folic acid

Good sources include:

  1. broccoli
  2. brussels sprouts
  3. leafy green vegetables, such as cabbage, kale, spring greens and spinach
  4. peas
  5. chickpeas and kidney beans
  6. liver (but avoid this during pregnancy)
  7. breakfast cereals fortified with folic acid
  8. Okra
  9. Beets
  10. Orange juice
  1. write down the importance of Folic acid in human body
    1. Helps your body form red blood cells and DNA
    2. Promotes normal growth and development
    3. May play a role in prevention of certain cancers
    4. Reduces your risk for heart attack and stroke
    5. Can Prevent some Birth Defects


Q2) a) define renal failure

Renal failure is defined as a significant loss of renal function in both kidneys to the point where less than 10 to 20% of normal GFR remains.

  1. b) difference between acute and chronic renal failure
Acute renal failure Chronic renal failure
1) Onset – over days to weeks Onset 1) Onset – over weeks to months
2) Reversibility – Invariably reversible 2) Usually Irreversible
3) Cause – Pre-renal or post-renal 3) Mostly Renal.
4) Urinary volume – Oliguria & Anuria. 4) Polyuria & Nocturia.
5) Renal failure casts – Absent 5) Renal Failure casts – Present.
6) Specific Gravity – High. 6) Specific Gravity – Low & fixed.
7) Past history of renal disease – Absent 7) Present
8) Dialysis – Required for short period 8) Required repeatedly.
9) Renal transplantation – Not required 9) Required.

Q3) a) define leukemia

Definition It is a group of malignant disorder, affecting the blood and blood –forming tissue of the bone marrow lymph system and spleen.

  1. b) discuss the sign symptoms and diagnosis of Leukemia

Common leukemia signs and symptoms include:

  1. Fever or chills.
  2. Persistent fatigue, weakness.
  3. Frequent or severe infections.
  4. Losing weight without trying.
  5. Swollen lymph nodes enlarged liver or spleen.
  6. Easy bleeding or bruising.
  7. Recurrent nosebleeds.
  1. Tiny red spots in your skin (petechiae)

Diagnosis Of Leukemia

  1. History and physical examination
  2. Clinical features
  3. Blood Examination (work up)
  4. Peripheral blood examination
  5. Chest X ray
  6. Bone marrow studies: BM biopsy, imprint and aspiration.
  7. Flow cytometry
  8. Cytological differentiation and immunophenotyping: FISH, RTPCR, chromosome analysis

Q4) a) define ovarian cyst

ovarian cyst

An ovarian cyst is a semi-solid or fluid-filled sac within the ovary.

  1. b) discuss the causes and management of ovarian cyst

Cause Ovarian Cysts

  1. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that causes lots of small, harmless cysts to develop on your ovaries. The cysts are small egg follicles that do not grow to ovulation and are the result of altered hormone levels.

Medical Management

  1. Watchful waiting (observation):​ An ultrasound scan will be carried out about a month or so later to check it, and to see whether it has gone.
  2. Hormonal birth control pills: prevent the development of new cysts in those who frequently get them.
  3. Analgesic (Pain relievers):​such as nonsteroidal ant-inflammatory drugs, opioids analgesic.

Surgical Management

  1. Laparoscopy (keyhole surgery)
  2. Laparotomy


Q5) a) define Fluid volume excess

Fluid overload or volume overload (hypervolemia) is a medical condition where there is too much fluid in the blood. Excess fluid, primarily salt and water, builds up throughout the body resulting in weight gain.

  1. enlist the clinical manifestation and nursing management of fluid volume excess

Signs of fluid overload may include:

  1. Rapid weight gain.
  2. Noticeable swelling (oedema) in your arms, legs and face.
  3. Swelling in your abdomen.
  4. Cramping, headache, and stomach bloating.
  5. Shortness of breath.
  6. High blood pressure.
  7. Heart problems, including congestive heart failure.

Nursing Management of Fluid Volume Excess

  1. I&O and daily weights; assess lung sounds, oedema, other symptoms; monitor responses to medications- diuretics
  2. Promote adherence to fluid restrictions, patient teaching related to sodium and fluid restrictions
  3. Monitor, avoid sources of excessive sodium, including medications
  4. Promote rest
  5. Semi-Fowler’s position for orthopnoea
  6. Skin care, positioning/turning

Q6) a) define colorectal cancer

Colorectal cancer​is cancer that occurs in the colon or rectum. Sometimes it is called colon cancer

  1. b) discuss the risk factors and nursing management of colorectal cancer

Risk factors

  1. Genetics
  2. Family history
  3. Obesity
  4. Race
  5. Irritable bowel syndrome
  6. Type 2 diabetes

Nursing Management of Colorectal Cancer

1.Prevention is primary issue

2.Client teaching

3.Diet: decrease amount of fat, refined sugar, red meat; increase amount of fiber; diet high in fruits and vegetables, whole grains, legumes

4.Screening recommendations

5.Seek medical attention for bleeding and warning signs of cancer

6.Risk may be lowered by aspirin or NSAID use

Q7) write a short note on the following

1) CT scan

A computerized tomography (CT) scan combines a series of X-ray images taken from different angles around your body and uses computer processing to create cross-sectional images (slices) of the bones, blood vessels and soft tissues inside your body. CT scan images provide more-detailed information than plain X-rays do.

2) upper and lower GI endoscopies

Endoscopy is a procedure in which the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is viewed through a fiber-optic camera known as an endoscope, inserted either through the mouth (upper) to scan the oesophagus, stomach, and small intestines, or through the anus (lower) to examine the large intestine, colon and rectum.

3) ultrasound

Ultrasound is sound that travels through soft tissue and fluids, but it bounces back, or echoes, off denser surfaces. This is how it creates an image. The term “ultrasound” refers to sound with a frequency that humans cannot hear. For diagnostic uses, the ultrasound is usually between 2 and 18 megahertz (MHz).

4) barium studies

Barium studies are specialized X-ray examinations of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract such as the oesophagus, stomach, small and large intestines using a solution containing barium.

5)Biopsy (liver)

A liver biopsy is a procedure to remove a small piece of liver tissue, so it can be examined under a microscope for signs of damage or disease.

Anatomy and Physiology MCQs/BCQs

1. Bone and cartilage is a type of:
A. Nervous tissue
B. Muscular tissue
C. Epithelial tissue
D. Endocrine tissue
E. Connective tissue

2. Color of the skin, due to the presence of:
A. Collagen
B. Langerhans cells
C. Melanocytes
D. Merkel cells
E. Keratinocytes

3. Anosmia is loss of sense of
A. vision
B. hearing
C. smell
D. taste

4. The maximum volume air which can be moved into and out of the lungs is known as:
A. Total lung capacity
B. Inspiratory capacity
C. Vital capacity
D. Functional residual capacity

5. Regarding eye, sensory receptors for vision are:
A. Ciliary body
B. Rods and cones
C. Olfactory cells
D. Lens

6. The basic structure and functional unit of nervous system is:
A. Schwann Cells
B. Neurons
C. Astrocytes
D. Microglia

7. All of the following are the functions of oxytocin; except
A. Ejection of milk
B. Parturition
C. Fertilization
D. Formation of milk

8. A student identifying histological section under microscope. The tissue was multilayered. The upper most layer is squamous in shape. What type of epithelium it is?
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Transitional epithelium
C. Stratified squamous epithelium
D. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
E. Pseudostratified epithelium

9. Common iliac artery supplies the:
A. Lower limb
B. Abdomen
C. Thorax
D. Upper limb
E. Head and neck

10. Which of the following bone forms the axial skeleton?
A. Humerus
B. Radius
C. Femur
D. Ulna
E. Sternum

11. Center of micturition reflex is located in:
A. Lumber segment of cord
B. Cerebral cortex
C. Brainstem (pontine micturition center)
D. Sacral segment of spinal cord

A girl moves the upper limb in all directions during exercise, what type of movement she performed?
A. Abduction
B. Circumduction
C. Flexion
D. Adduction
E. Extension

12. Adrenal medulla secretes:
A. Adrenaline and noradrenaline
B. mineralocorticoid
C. Glucocorticoid
D. Androgens

13. Short bones are present in which part of the human body?
A. Palm and sole
B. Leg
C. Upper arm
D. Thigh region
E. Forearm

14. The hormone which promotes tissue growth and regulates metabolisms:
A. Aldosterone
B. Thyroid hormone
C. Prolactin
D. Growth hormone

15. Which of the following chamber of the heart contain the sinoatrial node(SA)?
A. Left atrium
B. Left auricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle
E. Left ventricle

16. The cells form the myelin sheath in the central nervous system are:
A. Ependymal cells
B. Microglial cells
C. Astrocytes
D. Oligodendrocytes
E. Schwann cells

17. Which one of the following hormone is secreted by posterior pituitary gland?
A. Growth hormone
B. Antidiuretic hormone
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone
D. Follicle stimulating hormone

18. The most common synapse in CNS is:
A. Mechanical Synapse
B. Chemical Synapse
C. Gap Junctions
D. Electrical Synapse

19. Central nervous system is made up of:
A. Peripheral nerves
B. None of these
C. Brain and spinal cord
D. Somatic nerves

20. Exchange of gases by diffusion between blood and body cells is known as:
A. Alveolar ventilation
B. Internal respiration
C. Pulmonary ventilation
D. External respiration

21. How much percentage of oxygen is transported inform of oxyhemoglobin?
A. 1.5 %
B. 60 %
C. 98.5 %
D. 40 %

22. Dorsiflexion movement occur at which of the following joint:
A. Ankle joint
B. Shoulder joint
C. Knee joint
D. Elbow joint
E. Wrist joint

23. A body is divided into anterior and posterior half by which of the following imaginary plane
A. Midsagittal plane
B. Coronal plane
C. Right median plane
D. Left median plane
E. Para-median plane

24. Which of the following bones united by the sutures?
A. Sesamoid bones
B. Skull bones
C. Long bones
D. Tarsal bones
E. Carpal bones

25. Renin is secreted by:
A. Juxtaglomerular cells(JG)
D. Vasa recta

26. Main Muscle of quiet inspiration is:
A. Internal Intercostal
B. External Intercostal
C. Diaphragm
D. Abdominals

27. Surfactant is secreted by:
A. Type I Pneumocystis
B. Goblet Cells
C. Type IV Pneumocystis
D. Type II Pneumocystis

28. Shoulder joint is a type of:
A. Cartilaginous joint
B. Syndesmosis
C. Synovial joint
D. Fibrous joint
E. Secondary cartilaginous joint

29. The release of thyroid hormones (T3 andT4) in blood is stimulated by:

30. Skin is lined by:
A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Cuboidal epithelium
C. Transitional epithelium
D. Pseudostratified epithelium
E. Columnar epithelium

31. Pharynx continue with the esophagus at the level of:
A. 2nd thoracic vertebra
B. 6th cervical vertebra
C. 3rd cervical vertebra
D. 2nd cervical vertebra
E. 4th cervical vertebra

32. Somatic, cutaneous senses which originates from the skin are:
A. Chemoreceptors
B. Special senses
C. Pain, touch, cold and heat
D. proprioceptors

33. Heart receives the parasympathetic supply by means of:
A. Cranial nerves
B. Vagus nerve
C. Sympathetic plexus
D. Cervical nerves

34. A student was standing in class with folding both arms which one of the following movement she did performed?
A. Medial rotation at shoulder region
B. Flexion at shoulder region
C. Extension at shoulder region
D. Circumduction at shoulder region
E. Lateral rotation at shoulder region

35. Which of the following part is not included in large intestine?
A. Cecum
B. Descending colon
C. Duodenum
D. Ascending colon
E. Transverse colon

36. System of the body which is NOT necessary for survival is:
A. Central nervous system
B. Cardiovascular system
C. Reproductive system
D. Respiratory system

37. Al are the phases of menstrual cycle except:
A. Luteal phase
B. Secretory phase
C. Menstrual phase
D. Proliferative phase

38. Superior venacava is formed by the union of:
A. Cardiac veins
B. Common iliac veins
C. Brachiocephalic veins
D. Internal jugular veins
E. Azygous veins


Answer Key

1 E

2 C

3 C

4 C

5 B

6 B

7 A

8 C

9 A

10 B

11 C

12 A

13 A

14 A

15 D

16 E

17 C

18 B

19 C

20 B

21 C

22 A

23 A

24 B

25 B

26 B


28 C

29 C

30 A

31 C

32 A

33 B

34 B

35 C

36 C

37 A

38 C


English MCQs/BCQs

English- BSN (Generic)

1. Yesterday she sent ______ SMS to me.
A. A
B. All of these
C. An
D. The

2. That day he _________ do as I asked him to do.
A. Does not
B. Did not
C. would not
D. Will not

3. Where is__________ pen, I gave you yesterday?
A. this
B. a
C. the
D. an

4. Are you waiting for him __________the airport?
A. Inside
B. Onto
C. On
D. At

5. An eagle flies faster than any other bird of prey (Identify underlined phrase)
A. Pronoun
B. Interjection
C. Adjective
D. Adverb

6. They are walking ______the North.
A. Since
B. Towards
C. Under
D. On

7. He drove his car very slowly (identify the marked phrase)
A. conjunction/ adjective
B. adverb/ adverb
C. adverb/ adjective
D. adjective/ adverb

8. I have already _____________this movie, you must buy another one.
A. Watch
B. Watches
C. Watched
D. Watching

9. They have been working in Karachi_______16 years.
A. from
B. since
C. up to
D. for

10. The jet sped into the deep blue sky. (Identify underlined phrase)
A. noun
B. preposition
C. adjective
D. conjunction
E. adverb

11. ______Sun rises in ______east.
A. X/An
B. A/An
C. A/The
D. The/The

12. They will be driving______2pm____4pm.
A. from/up to
B. since/x
C. from/to
D. for/x

13. Sana has_________ her book to me to mark important chapters that may help her in her interview.
A. Given
B. Gave
C. Gives
D. Give

14. Last Tuesday it _________raining since morning.
A. had
B. had been
C. has
D. have

15. She did not _______her convocation ceremony.
A. attends
B. attend
C. attended
D. have been tending
E. attending

16. Sobia & Fehmida _______plucked many flowers four garden recently.
A. have been
B. has
C. have
D. are

17. They usually _______English in their offices thus, we don’t face problem in understanding their instructions.
A. speaking
B. spoke
C. speak
D. speaks

18. Mr. Saleem is ____lecturer in our college.
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. x

19. Why were you so angry? (Identify underlined phrase)
A. Adverb
B. Preposition
C. Pronoun
D. Adjective

20. The way he answered me was really so sweet (identify the marked phrase)
A. adjective
B. preposition
C. conjunction
D. adverb

21. You have been doing your lab work___________24 hour
A. till
B. Since
C. for
D. from

22. Last Sunday they _________me several questions before my flight to Dubai.
A. asks
B. ask
C. asked
D. asking

23. Our team has been maintaining the score ____________15 minutes and 37seconds.
A. until
B. from
C. for
D. Since

24. Your friend is really sweet (identify the underline phrase)
A. verb
B. adjective
C. adverb
D. noun

25. Did you ___________attention to the announcement?
A. Paying
B. Pay
C. Pays
D. Had paid

26. Did Ayesha call her brother yesterday? Yes, she__________
A. called
B. did not called
C. call
D. have not been calling

27. He is an intelligent but a lazy boy (identify conjunction)
A. lazy
B. intelligent
C. but
D. an

28. Farhan has gone home _______he had to leave for his job interview in the afternoon.
A. But
B. Asif
C. Because
D. Therefore

29. Ali and Ahsan have been living in Islamabad ______January.
A. from
B. up to
C. since
D. for

30. She is my ___aunty, she is very sweet:
A. the
B. none of these
C. a
D. an

31. Several planets are bigger than the earth. (Identify subject)
A. the earth
B. Several
C. Planets and earth
D. several planets

32. He is _________honest man among all.
A. The
B. A
C. All these
D. An

33. My sibling did not ____________to meet their class fellow.
A. Will go
B. Gone
C. Went
D. Go

34. She answered every question very beautifully. (Identify underlined phrase)
A. interjection
B. preposition
C. Adjective
D. adverb

35. Today Hammad ________helping his brother to complete his task.
A. has
B. is
C. were
D. will

36. Zara decided to-do ______best she could.
A. An
B. A
C. The
D. None of these

37. Next year we ___________admission in Lahore.
A. Will get
B. have got
C. got
D. will got
E. get

38. These days she is trying to _________some different research work.
A. Do
B. Doing
C. Did
D. Done

39. Salman is such a tremendous player; he is ______Shahid Afridi of our team.
A. a
B. none of these
C. an
D. the

Answer Key

  1. C
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. C
  6. B
  7. D
  8. C
  9. D
  10. E
  11. D
  12. C
  13. A
  14. B
  15. B
  16. C
  17. C
  18. A
  19. D
  20. A
  21. C
  22. C
  23. C
  24. B
  25. B
  26. A
  27. C
  28. A
  29. A
  30. D
  31. C
  32. D
  33. D
  34. C
  35. A
  36. C
  37. A
  38. A
  39. A