Pathophysiology MCQs/BCQs

1) Total body water is:
1. 14L
2. 42L
3. 20 L
4. 28 L

2) All of the following are benign tumors, the most unlikely is:
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Meningioma
3. Fibroma
4. Leiomyoma

3) Neutrophils predominate in acute inflammatory infiltrate during:
1. First 06 -24 hours
2. First 08 hours
3. First 04- 06 hours
4. First 24-48 hours

4) Most effective Bactericidal system in neutrophils is:
1. Halideion
2. MPOsystem (Myeloperoxidase)
3. NADPHoxidasesystem
4. MP0-H202Halidesystem

5) What is the most important prognostic factor for human cancer is proved to be of greater clinical value:
1. Stage
2. Vascular invasion.
3. Lymphocytic infiltration
4. Grade.

6) Most reliable feature that differentiates malignant tumor from benign is:
1. Local invasion
2. Metastasis
3. Irregular surface
4. Capsule

7) Regarding type – I hypersensitity:
1. Initial response is characterized by vasoconstriction
2. Late phase reaction occurs after few minutes
3. Develop after few days
4. Characterized by release of mast cell mediators

8) Reaction due to injection of horse serum (serum sickness) is example of:
1. Type – IV hypersensitivity
2. Type – Il hypersensitivity
3. Type – Ill hypersensitivity
4 Type – I hypersensitivity

9) Antibody mediated hypersensitivity does not occur in:
1. Erythroblastosis fetalis
2. Autoimmune Hemolytic anemia
3. Arthus reaction
4. Transfusion reaction

10) A 50 years old male develops sudden severe abdominal pain radiating to back. His lab values shows raised Amylase level. Regarding this case fat necrosis may occur in which of the following organ:
1. Brain
2. Skeletal muscle
3. Pancrease
4. Heart

 

11) Regarding Necrosis, which of the following statement is true:
1. Pancreas shows coagulative necrosis
2. Heart shows coagulative necrosis
3. Brain shows coagulation Necrosis
4. Heart shows liquefactive necrosis

12) In full term pregnancy, which one of the following cell adaptation has maximum contribution to increase in the size of uterus?
1. Dystrophy
2. Hyperplasia
3. Anaplasia
4. Atrophy

13) AIDS can be transferred through following factors except:

1.Inhalation
2. Blood
3. Direct contact
4. Saliva
14) All of the following are malignant tumors, the most unlikely is
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Fibrosarcoma
3. Teratoma
4. Leukemia

16) Which of the following complement proteins may act as Opsonins:
1. c3b
2. C3a
3 C5b 9 complex
4. C3a & C5a

17) All of the following are malignant tumors, the most unlikely is:
1. Leukemia
2. Adenocarcinoma
3. Fibrosarcoma
4. Osteoma

18) Which one of the following mediator causes, chemotaxis of the leukocytes?
1. C1
2. C5a
3. c2a
4. C4

19) Granuloma with caseous necrosis is seen in:
1. Lymphoma
2. Tuberculosis
3. Sarcoidosis
4. Foreign body granuloma

20) Which of the following lab diagnostic technique is most convenient and suitable for the initial diagnosis and management of the patient suffering from swelling infront of neck (goiter)?
1 Smear
2. FNAC
3. Immunohistochemistry
4. Biopsy

 

21) ———— is also called Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity because it utilizes antibodies that can destroy normal cells by complement lysis or by antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
1. Type-ll hypersensitivity
2. Type-l hypersensivitiy
3. Type-IV hypersensivitiy
4. Type-ll hypersensivitiy

22) Most common chornic inflammatory cells are:
1. Neutrophils
2. Macrophages
3. Eosinophils
4. Plasma cells

23) Malignant tumor arising from mesenchymal tissue is most likely called as:
1. Adenomna
2. Sarcoma
3. Hepatoma
4. Fibroma

24) Metastasis of cancer most unlikely occur by:
1. Lymphatic spread
2. Direct seeding of body cavities
3. Aerosol droplet
4. Hematogenous spread

25) Regarding anaplasia which of the following statement is true:
1. Nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio 1:6
2. Increase mitosis
3. Well differentiated cells
4. Normal size of shape of cells

26) Laboratory test most commonly used for diagnosis of AIDS is:
1. ELISA
2. EASTERN BLOT
3. RIBA
4. WESTERN BLOT

27) Multiple sclerosis is example of:
1. Type – l hypersensitivity
2. Type- IV hypersensitivity
3. Type-Ill hypersensitivity
4. Type – I hypersensitivity

28) Generalized edema through the body is termed as:
1. Anasarca
2. Anaplasia
3. Sarcoma
4. Pitting edema

29) Major component of innate immunity are all of following, the most unlikely is:
1. Epithelial barrier
2. B-lymphocyte
3. Complement proteins
4. NK cells

30) A 40 years old male suffering from cervical lymphadenopathy. Biopsy report shows granuloma with caseous necrosis. The most likely diagnosis will be
1. Tuberculosis
2. Sarcoidosis
3. Lymphoma
4 Foreign body granuloma

 

31) Pathological hyperplasia of thyroid gland occurs in:
1. Thyroid connective tissue
2. Thyroid follicles
3. Whole thyroid tissue
4. Thyroid stroma

32) A 55 years old female with ovarian Carcinoma developed ascities. Cytological analysiss of ascitic fluid show malignant cells. Which of the following pathway best explaining the spreading of tumor to the peritonium:
1. Seeding of body cavity
2. Lymphatic spread
3. Hematogenous spread
4. Direct Extension

33) Weakness and wasting of the body due to severe chronic illness is referred to:
1. Neoplasm
2. Cachexia
3. Anorexia
4. Fatigue

34) Which of the following is earliest stage of vascular events of acute inflammation?
1. Vasodilation
2. Initial vasoconstriction
3. Redness
4. Leukocytic migration

35) Increased concentration of potassium in the blood is termed as:
1. Hypernatremia
2. Hyperkalemia
3. Hypokalemia
4. Hyponatremia

36) Loss of uniformity of cells & Ioss of arachitectural orientation is most likely called as:
1. Desmoplasia
2. Metaplasia
3. Dysplasia
4. Anaplasia

37) Arthus reaction is example of:
1. Type – lll hypersensitivity
2. Type – II hypersensitivity
3. Type- IV hypersensitivity
4. Type – I hypersensitivity

38) All are causes of atrophy, the most unlikely is:
1. Diminished blood supply
2. Denervation
3. Decrease workload
4. Increase workload

39) Excessive intake of acid containing foods and beverages may lead to development of:
1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Respiratory alkalosis
3. Metbolic alkalosis
4. Respiratory acidosis

40) In full term pregnancy, which one of the following cell adaptations has maximum contribution to increase in the size of uterus?
1. Dystrophy
2. Hyperplasia
3. Anaplasia
4 Atrophy

41) Goodpasture syndrome is example of:
1. Type -Ill hypersensitivityy
2. Type – I hypersensitivity
3. Type-ll hypersensitivity
4. Type – IV hypersensitivity

 

Adult health Nursing-I Solved past paper -2018

Q1) a) define Folic acid deficiency anemia.

Folate-deficiency anemia is a decrease in red blood cells (anemia) due to a lack of folate. Folate is a type of vitamin B. It is also called folic acid. Anemia is a condition in which the body does not have enough healthy red blood cells. Red blood cells provide oxygen to body tissues.

b) write down the dietary sources of Folic acid

  1. Legumes (beans, peas, lentils)
  2. Asparagus
  3. Eggs
  4. Leafy greens
  5. Beets
  6. Citrus fruits
  7. Brussels sprouts
  8. Broccoli
  9. Nuts and seeds
  10. Beef liver
  11. Wheat germ
  12. Papaya
  13. Bananas
  14. Avocado
  15. Fortified grains

c) write down the importance of Folic acid in human body

1)Folic acid helps your body produce and maintain new cells.

2)It helps prevent changes to DNA that may lead to cancer.

3)As a medication, folic acid is used to treat folic acid deficiency and certain types of anemia (lack of red blood cells) caused by folic acid deficiency.

Q2) a) define appendicitis

It is an acute inflammation of vermiform appendix (a small finger like appendage attached to caecum just below the ileocecal valve)

  1. write down the sign and symptoms of appendicitis
  • progressively worsening pain
  • painful coughing or sneezing
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • inability to pass gas (break wind)
  • fever
  • constipation
  • loss of appetite
  1. write down the nursing management of appendicitis
    1. Maintain NPO status.
    2. Administer fluids intravenously to prevent dehydration.
    3. Monitor for changes in level of pain.
    4. Monitor for signs of ruptured appendix and peritonitis.
    5. Position right-side lying or low to semi fowler position to promote comfort.
    6. Monitor bowel sounds.

Q3) define ovarian cyst

Ovarian cysts are fluid-filled sacs or pockets in an ovary or on its surface. Women have two ovaries, each about the size and shape of an almond on each side of the uterus.

  1. write down the causes and management of ovarian cyst
    1. Hormonal problems. Functional cysts usually go away on their own without treatment.
    2. Women with endometriosis can develop a type of ovarian cyst called an endometrioma.
    3. Severe pelvic infections.

Management

▪ Functional/physiologic cysts usually resolve spontaneously

MEDICATIONS

  • Uncomplicated cyst rupture (hemodynamically stable) ▫Pain management (e.g., NSAIDs)

SURGERY

Laparoscopy/laparotomy

  • Ongoing hemorrhage, hemodynamic instability, torsion/rupture risk
  • Ovarian cystectomy ▫Removal of abnormal tissue only
  • Unilateral/bilateral oophorectomy ▫Removal of entire ovary(ies); recommended for menopausal/ postmenopausal individuals, if malignancy confirmed

Q4) define polycythemia

Polycythemia refers to an increase in the number of red blood cells in the body. The extra cells cause the blood to be thicker, and this, in turn, increases the risk of other health issues, such as blood clots.

  1. discuss types of polycythemia
    1. PRIMARY POLYCYTHEMIA

Primary Polycythemia occurs when excess red blood cells are produced as a result of an abnormality of the bone marrow. Often, excess white blood cells and platelets are also produced.

  1. SECONDARY POLYCYTHEMIA

Secondary polycythemia is usually due to increased erythropoietin (EPO) production either in response to chronic hypoxia (low blood oxygen level) or from an erythropoietin secreting tumor.

  1. RELATIVE POLYCYTHEMIA

Relative erythrocytosis is an increase in RBC numbers without an increase in total RBC mass. Usually, this is caused by loss of plasma volume with resultant hemo-concentration, as seen in severe dehydration related to vomiting and diarrhea.

  1. STRESS POLYCYTHEMIA

Stress polycythemia is a term applied to a chronic (long standing) state of low plasma volume, which is seen commonly in active, hardworking, anxious, middle-aged men. In these people, the red blood cell volume is normal, but the plasma volume is low.

  1. write down the nursing intervention of polycythemia
    1. Monitor for peripheral and cerebral thrombosis.
    2. Assist the patient for ambulation
    3. Perform phlebotomy as per doctor’s order
  2. Administer iv fluids and encourage to take oral fluids
  3. Administer pain management measures
  4. Advice to do regular exercise
  5. Instruct to avoid tobacco
  6. Advise to maintain skin hygiene
  7. Avoid extreme temperatures
  8. Provide psychological support to the patient.

Q5) a) define infertility

Inability to achieve pregnancy with limited intercourse for at least 1 year

  1. write down the causes of infertility in male and female Causes of infertility in females

1)​The most common overall cause of female infertility is the failure to ovulate.

2)Problems with the menstrual cycle, the process that prepares the female body for pregnancy, can lead to infertility.

3)Structural problems usually involve the presence of abnormal tissue in the fallopian tubes or uterus.

4)Infections can also cause infertility in men and women.

5)Implantation failure refers to the failure of a fertilized egg to implant in the uterine wall to begin pregnancy.

6)Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) is one of the most common causes of female infertility.

7)Primary Ovary Insufficiency (POI) is a condition in which a woman’s ovaries stop producing hormones and eggs at a young age.

8)​Autoimmune disorders cause the body’s immune system to attack normal body tissues it would normally ignore. Autoimmune disorders, such as lupus, Hashimoto’s and other types of thyroiditis, or rheumatoid arthritis, may affect fertility.

Causes of infertility in Males

1)​Sperm Disorders

The most common problems are with making and growing sperm. Sperm may:

  • not grow fully
  • be oddly shaped
  • not move the right way
  • be made in very low numbers (oligospermia)
  • not be made at all (azoospermia)

2)​Varicoceles

Varicoceles are swollen veins in the scrotum. ​They harm sperm growth by blocking proper blood drainage.

3)​Retrograde Ejaculation

Retrograde ejaculation is when semen goes backwards in the body. They go into your bladder instead of out the penis. This happens when nerves and muscles in your bladder don’t close during orgasm (climax). Semen may have normal sperm, but the semen cannot reach the vagina.

4)​Immunologic Infertility

Sometimes a man’s body makes antibodies that attack his own sperm.

5)​Obstruction

Sometimes sperm can be blocked. Repeated infections, surgery (such as vasectomy), swelling or developmental defects can cause blockage. Any part of the male reproductive tract can be blocked. With a blockage, sperm from the testicles can’t leave the body during ejaculation.

6)Hormones

Hormones made by the pituitary gland tell the testicles to make sperm. Very low hormone levels cause poor sperm growth.

7)Chromosomes

Sperm carries half of the DNA to the egg. Changes in the number and structure of chromosomes can affect fertility. For example, the male Y chromosome may be missing parts.

8)Medication

Certain medications can change sperm production, function and delivery. These medications are most often given to treat health problems like:

  • arthritis
  • depression
  • digestive problems
  • infections
  • high blood pressure
  • cancer

Q6) a) define peritonitis

Inflammation of the peritoneum (The peritoneum is the tissue layer of cells lining the inner wall of the abdomen and pelvis). Peritonitis can result from infection (such as bacteria or parasites), injury and bleeding, or diseases (such as systemic lupus erythematosus).

  1. discuss the causes of peritonitis
    1. a burst stomach ulcer.
    2. a burst appendix.
    3. digestive problems, such as Crohn’s disease or diverticuliti
    4. injury to the stomach.
    5. pelvic inflammatory disease
  1. write down the nursing management of peritonitis
    1. Blood pressure monitoring. The patient’s blood pressure is monitored by arterial line if shock is present
    2. Administration of analgesic and anti-emetics can be done as prescribed.
    3. Pain management. Analgesics and ​positioning​could help in decreasing pain.
      I&O monitoring.
    4. Accurate recording of all ​intakes and output​could help in the assessment of fluid replacement.
    5. IV fluids​. The ​nurse​administers and closely monitors IV fluids.
    6. Drainage monitoring. The nurse must monitor and record the character of the drainage postoperatively.

Q7) write the short note on the following

1)CT scan

A computerized tomography (CT) scan combines a series of X-ray images taken from different angles around your body and uses computer processing to create cross-sectional images (slices) of the bones, blood vessels and soft tissues inside your body. CT scan images provide more-detailed information than plain X-rays do.

2) upper and lower endoscopies

Endoscopy is a procedure in which the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is viewed through a fiber-optic camera known as an endoscope, inserted either through the mouth (upper) to scan the esophagus, stomach and small intestines, or through the anus (lower) to examine the large intestine, colon and rectum.

3) parenthesis

Parenthesis​refer to punctuation marks “(” and “)” used to separate relevant information or a comment from the rest of the text, or to enclose mathematical symbols, or the text inside of these marks. The punctuation marks in the math equation 2x (4+6) are an example ​of ​parenthesis​.

4) cystoscopy

Cystoscopy (sis-TOS-kuh-pee) is a procedure that allows your doctor to examine the lining of your bladder and the tube that carries urine out of your body (urethra). A hollow tube (cystoscope) equipped with a lens is inserted into your urethra and slowly advances into your bladder.

5) metabolic acidosis

Metabolic acidosis is a serious electrolyte disorder characterized by an imbalance in the body’s acid-base balance. Metabolic acidosis has three main root causes: increased acid production, loss of bicarbonate, and a reduced ability of the kidneys to excrete excess acids.

The most common causes of hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis are gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, renal tubular acidosis, drugs-induced hyperkalemia, early renal failure, and administration of acids.

 

Health assessment MCQs

1) When doing an assessment on a client’s eyes the very first thing that a nurse should look at is?
A. Eye internal structures
B. Eye external structures
C. The pupils reactivity to light
D. Color of the irises of the eye

2) While the nurse is inspecting the throat of a client with a tongue blade, the client begins to gag. What does this response indicate to the nurse?
A. The client is nauseated.
B. The client has nerve damage to his tongue.
C. The client has a functioning response.
D. The client has a malfunctioning response

3) During the health history, a client begins to talk about her dog and the trouble she is having housebreaking the new pet. To help the client return to the health interview, the nurse could use the communication skill:
A. Listening
B. Reflecting
C. Questioning
D. Focusing

4) After inspecting a client’s abdomen, which assessment technique should the nurse use next ?
A. Light Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Deep Palpation

5) Nurse Tara asks her client Farhan to clench his jaw as she continues to palpate his head. When she asks him to do this what is Nurse Tara most likely trying to palpate?
A. Faran’s submandibular joint
B. Farhan’s submental joint
C. Farhan’s temporomandibular joint
D. Faran’s temporal artery

6) The nurse is planning to palpate a client’s bladder. Which area of the abdomen should this palpation be done?
A. Hypogastric region
B. Right hypochondriac region
C. Right Lower Quadrant
D. Left lumbar region

7) A 70-year-old male client comes into the clinic with weight loss and difficulty swallowing. Which of the following should the nurse document for this client?
A. Odynophagia
B. Bulimia
C. Dysphagia
D. Aphasia

8) A 15-year-old high school student came to the clinic with a 1-day history of nausea and anorexia. He describes the pain as generalized yesterday, but today it has localized to the right lower quadrant. You palpate the left lower quadrant and the patient experiences pain in the right lower quadrant. What is the name of this sign?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign

9) During eye assessment when you asked the patient to follow your finger or pencil as you move it in toward the bridge of the nose. Which of the following test you are performing?
A. Visual acuity
B. Visual Fields by Confrontation
C. Test for convergence
D. Visual fields

10) A nurse doing her assessment proceeds to palpate a client’s frontal and maxillary sinuses. What should she make sure she checks for?
A. Tactile signs of carcinoma
B. Swelling
C. Lesions
D. Tenderness

11) A nurse would use either a Snelling chart or the finger wiggle test to assess a client’s what?
A. Hearing
B. Vision
C. Consensual light reflex
D. Bone conduction

12 ) During assessment of pharynx you as the client to say “Ah” and uvula and soft palate rise centrally. It determine the function of which cranial nerve:
A. Spinal accessory
B. Vagus
C. Trochlear
D. Trigeminal

13) During the assessment of a client, the nurse gently touches the tip of a sterile cotton swab in the client’s eye. Which of the following would be considered an expected response for the client to make?
A. Begin sneezing.
B. Blink.
C. Scream in pain.
D. Swat the nurse’s hand away.

14) If assessing a client for kidney tenderness, where would you begin?
A. External Oblique Angle
B. Left Upper Quadrant
C. Right Upper Quadrant
D. Costovertebral Angle

15) The three things a nurse needs to check for when doing an examination on the eyes regarding the external structures is?
A. Eyelash texture, shape of eyes, redness
B. Shape of eyes, pupils reactivity, iris’s color
C. Drainage, possible tumors, irritation
D. Eyelash distribution, coloring, drainage

16) A 40-year-old female came for evaluation of abdominal pain. She stated that it is worse after eating, especially if she has a meal that is spicy or high in fat. She has taken antacids, but they have not helped the pain. After examining her abdomen, you strongly suspect cholecystitis. Which sign on examination increases your suspicion for this diagnosis?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign

17) During the percussion of a client’s abdomen, the nurse hears a loud high-pitched drum like tone. The nurse would document this sound as being:
A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Hyper-resonance
D. Flatness

18) What could the nurse assess based solely on the way the client walks into the room?
A. Signs of illness, well nourished
B. Dress and signs of illness
C. Gender and age
D. Gait and posture

19) Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of Bell’s palsy?
A. Asymmetry of the mouth
B. Asymmetry of the entire side of the face
C. Asymmetry of the lower face
D. Involuntary movements of the face

20) The nurse notices that a client walks with a limp and has long legs. Which of the following aspects of the general survey is this nurse assessing?
A. Physical appearance
B. Behavior
C. Mental status
D. Mobility

21) Test for shifting dullness is performed to assess:
A. Liver abscess
B. Ascites
C. Cholecystitis
D. Peritonitis

22) When a nurse performing the eye examinations, which piece of equipment does she/he use to inspect the eye structures?
A. Ultrasonic stethoscope
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Ophthalmoscope
D. Otoscope

23) The normal liver span of an adult is:
A. 7-12 cm
B. 5-12 cm
C. 6-12 cm
D. 4-12 cm

24) A client comes into the clinic for a routine breast and axilla exam. Which assessment technique does the nurse use first during this examination?
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion

25) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. a. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. b. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program…
C. A:
D. c. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E

26) Grade +2 pitting edema is:
A. 4 mm deep
B. 6 mm deep
C. 2 mm deep
D. 8 mm deep

27) The nurse is going to assess a client’s blood pressure. To do this, the nurse will need to have:
A. A stethoscope and sphygmomanometer
B. A tongue blade and tuning fork
C. A flashlight and gloves
D. A stethoscope and thermometer

28) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E.
C. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program.
D. Encourage all females to complete monthly breast exams

29) After auscultating the bowel sounds of a client, the nurse realizes the sounds were long. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to use to document this finding?
A. Intensity
B. Pitch
C. Quality
D. Duration

30) During the physical assessment of Mr. Ahsan’s skin, the nurse observed that Mr. Ahsan’s skin color is pale, the nurse expect that Mr. Ahsan may has:
A. Jaundice
B. Anemia
C. Heart failure
D. Pulmonary edema

31) The nurse assesses a client’s vision to be 20/150. The client asks for an explanation of the numbers. Which of the following would be a correct explanation for the nurse to say to the client?
A. You might need surgery to correct the nystagmus
B. You see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 150 feet.
C. You see at 150 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 20 feet.
D. You have impaired vision

32) A nurse conducting an assessment on a client’s head would do what first?
A. Inspect and palpate hair
B. Look at patient’s prior medical history
C. Inspect and palpate scalp
D. Inspect and palpate sinuses to control spread of germs

33) The nurse is planning to assess the abdomen of an adult male.
A. Place the client in side-lying position
B. Ask client to empty bladder
C. Tell client to raise arms above the head
D. Ask client to hold his breath for a few seconds

34) Normal angle at nail base is:
A. 10 degrees
B. 160 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 30 degrees

35) When performing an ear assessment, the nurse notes tenderness of the pinna and tragus to movement and the presence of drainage in the external canal. The nurse suspects which of the following?
A. Otitis Media
B. Otitis Externa
C. An inner ear infection
D. A negative rmberg’s sign

36) The nurse asks the client to move his eyes in the shape of an H and then in a large X. The portion of the physical assessment the nurse is completing with this client is:
A. Assessing the optic nerve
B. Assessing extra ocular muscle movements
C. Assessing the eyelids
D. Assessing the red reflex

37) As the nurse introduces the otoscope into a client’s ear, the client starts to jerk his head and complains of pain. Which of the following should the nurse do?
A. Remove the otoscope and reinsert taking care not to touch the sides of the ear canal.
B. Begin to remove the embedded cerumen.
C. Instill ear drops.
D. Document “unable to complete the examination.

38) Which cranial nerve is affected by Bell’s palsy?
A. Facial (CN VII)
B. Trigeminal (CN V)
C. Vagus (X)
D. Abducens (CN VI)

39) In medical which term is used for “impaired near vision”?
A. Amblyopia
B. Myopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Diplopia

40) During the physical examination of a male client’s scrotum, the nurse palpates a mass. What should the nurse do next with this information?
A. Perform transillumination to further assess the finding.
B. Nothing. This is a normal finding.
C. Document mass palpated, left testicle.
D. Ask the client how long he’s had a tumor in his testicle.

41) During the breast exam, the nurse asks the client to raise her arms over her head. Why did the nurse change the client’s position?
A. The client has small breasts.
B. The client has large breasts.
C. The nurse couldn’t palpate the axillae correctly.
D. Skin dimpling is accented in this position

Adult health Nursing-I solved past paper -2015

Q1) a) define Folic acid deficiency anaemia

Folate​-​deficiency anaemia​is the lack of ​folic acid​in the blood. ​Folic acid​is a B vitamin that helps your body make red blood cells. If you don’t have enough red blood cells, you have ​anaemia​. Red blood cells carry oxygen to all parts of your body.

  1. b) write down the dietary sources of Folic acid

Good sources include:

  1. broccoli
  2. brussels sprouts
  3. leafy green vegetables, such as cabbage, kale, spring greens and spinach
  4. peas
  5. chickpeas and kidney beans
  6. liver (but avoid this during pregnancy)
  7. breakfast cereals fortified with folic acid
  8. Okra
  9. Beets
  10. Orange juice
  1. write down the importance of Folic acid in human body
    1. Helps your body form red blood cells and DNA
    2. Promotes normal growth and development
    3. May play a role in prevention of certain cancers
    4. Reduces your risk for heart attack and stroke
    5. Can Prevent some Birth Defects

 

Q2) a) define renal failure

Renal failure is defined as a significant loss of renal function in both kidneys to the point where less than 10 to 20% of normal GFR remains.

  1. b) difference between acute and chronic renal failure
Acute renal failure Chronic renal failure
1) Onset – over days to weeks Onset 1) Onset – over weeks to months
2) Reversibility – Invariably reversible 2) Usually Irreversible
3) Cause – Pre-renal or post-renal 3) Mostly Renal.
4) Urinary volume – Oliguria & Anuria. 4) Polyuria & Nocturia.
5) Renal failure casts – Absent 5) Renal Failure casts – Present.
6) Specific Gravity – High. 6) Specific Gravity – Low & fixed.
7) Past history of renal disease – Absent 7) Present
8) Dialysis – Required for short period 8) Required repeatedly.
9) Renal transplantation – Not required 9) Required.

Q3) a) define leukemia

Definition It is a group of malignant disorder, affecting the blood and blood –forming tissue of the bone marrow lymph system and spleen.

  1. b) discuss the sign symptoms and diagnosis of Leukemia

Common leukemia signs and symptoms include:

  1. Fever or chills.
  2. Persistent fatigue, weakness.
  3. Frequent or severe infections.
  4. Losing weight without trying.
  5. Swollen lymph nodes enlarged liver or spleen.
  6. Easy bleeding or bruising.
  7. Recurrent nosebleeds.
  1. Tiny red spots in your skin (petechiae)

Diagnosis Of Leukemia

  1. History and physical examination
  2. Clinical features
  3. Blood Examination (work up)
  4. Peripheral blood examination
  5. Chest X ray
  6. Bone marrow studies: BM biopsy, imprint and aspiration.
  7. Flow cytometry
  8. Cytological differentiation and immunophenotyping: FISH, RTPCR, chromosome analysis

Q4) a) define ovarian cyst

ovarian cyst

An ovarian cyst is a semi-solid or fluid-filled sac within the ovary.

  1. b) discuss the causes and management of ovarian cyst

Cause Ovarian Cysts

  1. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that causes lots of small, harmless cysts to develop on your ovaries. The cysts are small egg follicles that do not grow to ovulation and are the result of altered hormone levels.

Medical Management

  1. Watchful waiting (observation):​ An ultrasound scan will be carried out about a month or so later to check it, and to see whether it has gone.
  2. Hormonal birth control pills: prevent the development of new cysts in those who frequently get them.
  3. Analgesic (Pain relievers):​such as nonsteroidal ant-inflammatory drugs, opioids analgesic.

Surgical Management

  1. Laparoscopy (keyhole surgery)
  2. Laparotomy

 

Q5) a) define Fluid volume excess

Fluid overload or volume overload (hypervolemia) is a medical condition where there is too much fluid in the blood. Excess fluid, primarily salt and water, builds up throughout the body resulting in weight gain.

  1. enlist the clinical manifestation and nursing management of fluid volume excess

Signs of fluid overload may include:

  1. Rapid weight gain.
  2. Noticeable swelling (oedema) in your arms, legs and face.
  3. Swelling in your abdomen.
  4. Cramping, headache, and stomach bloating.
  5. Shortness of breath.
  6. High blood pressure.
  7. Heart problems, including congestive heart failure.

Nursing Management of Fluid Volume Excess

  1. I&O and daily weights; assess lung sounds, oedema, other symptoms; monitor responses to medications- diuretics
  2. Promote adherence to fluid restrictions, patient teaching related to sodium and fluid restrictions
  3. Monitor, avoid sources of excessive sodium, including medications
  4. Promote rest
  5. Semi-Fowler’s position for orthopnoea
  6. Skin care, positioning/turning

Q6) a) define colorectal cancer

Colorectal cancer​is cancer that occurs in the colon or rectum. Sometimes it is called colon cancer

  1. b) discuss the risk factors and nursing management of colorectal cancer

Risk factors

  1. Genetics
  2. Family history
  3. Obesity
  4. Race
  5. Irritable bowel syndrome
  6. Type 2 diabetes

Nursing Management of Colorectal Cancer

1.Prevention is primary issue

2.Client teaching

3.Diet: decrease amount of fat, refined sugar, red meat; increase amount of fiber; diet high in fruits and vegetables, whole grains, legumes

4.Screening recommendations

5.Seek medical attention for bleeding and warning signs of cancer

6.Risk may be lowered by aspirin or NSAID use

Q7) write a short note on the following

1) CT scan

A computerized tomography (CT) scan combines a series of X-ray images taken from different angles around your body and uses computer processing to create cross-sectional images (slices) of the bones, blood vessels and soft tissues inside your body. CT scan images provide more-detailed information than plain X-rays do.

2) upper and lower GI endoscopies

Endoscopy is a procedure in which the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is viewed through a fiber-optic camera known as an endoscope, inserted either through the mouth (upper) to scan the oesophagus, stomach, and small intestines, or through the anus (lower) to examine the large intestine, colon and rectum.

3) ultrasound

Ultrasound is sound that travels through soft tissue and fluids, but it bounces back, or echoes, off denser surfaces. This is how it creates an image. The term “ultrasound” refers to sound with a frequency that humans cannot hear. For diagnostic uses, the ultrasound is usually between 2 and 18 megahertz (MHz).

4) barium studies

Barium studies are specialized X-ray examinations of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract such as the oesophagus, stomach, small and large intestines using a solution containing barium.

5)Biopsy (liver)

A liver biopsy is a procedure to remove a small piece of liver tissue, so it can be examined under a microscope for signs of damage or disease.

Anatomy and Physiology MCQs/BCQs

1. Bone and cartilage is a type of:
A. Nervous tissue
B. Muscular tissue
C. Epithelial tissue
D. Endocrine tissue
E. Connective tissue

2. Color of the skin, due to the presence of:
A. Collagen
B. Langerhans cells
C. Melanocytes
D. Merkel cells
E. Keratinocytes

3. Anosmia is loss of sense of
A. vision
B. hearing
C. smell
D. taste

4. The maximum volume air which can be moved into and out of the lungs is known as:
A. Total lung capacity
B. Inspiratory capacity
C. Vital capacity
D. Functional residual capacity

5. Regarding eye, sensory receptors for vision are:
A. Ciliary body
B. Rods and cones
C. Olfactory cells
D. Lens

6. The basic structure and functional unit of nervous system is:
A. Schwann Cells
B. Neurons
C. Astrocytes
D. Microglia

7. All of the following are the functions of oxytocin; except
A. Ejection of milk
B. Parturition
C. Fertilization
D. Formation of milk

8. A student identifying histological section under microscope. The tissue was multilayered. The upper most layer is squamous in shape. What type of epithelium it is?
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Transitional epithelium
C. Stratified squamous epithelium
D. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
E. Pseudostratified epithelium

9. Common iliac artery supplies the:
A. Lower limb
B. Abdomen
C. Thorax
D. Upper limb
E. Head and neck

10. Which of the following bone forms the axial skeleton?
A. Humerus
B. Radius
C. Femur
D. Ulna
E. Sternum

11. Center of micturition reflex is located in:
A. Lumber segment of cord
B. Cerebral cortex
C. Brainstem (pontine micturition center)
D. Sacral segment of spinal cord

A girl moves the upper limb in all directions during exercise, what type of movement she performed?
A. Abduction
B. Circumduction
C. Flexion
D. Adduction
E. Extension

12. Adrenal medulla secretes:
A. Adrenaline and noradrenaline
B. mineralocorticoid
C. Glucocorticoid
D. Androgens

13. Short bones are present in which part of the human body?
A. Palm and sole
B. Leg
C. Upper arm
D. Thigh region
E. Forearm

14. The hormone which promotes tissue growth and regulates metabolisms:
A. Aldosterone
B. Thyroid hormone
C. Prolactin
D. Growth hormone

15. Which of the following chamber of the heart contain the sinoatrial node(SA)?
A. Left atrium
B. Left auricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle
E. Left ventricle

16. The cells form the myelin sheath in the central nervous system are:
A. Ependymal cells
B. Microglial cells
C. Astrocytes
D. Oligodendrocytes
E. Schwann cells

17. Which one of the following hormone is secreted by posterior pituitary gland?
A. Growth hormone
B. Antidiuretic hormone
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone
D. Follicle stimulating hormone

18. The most common synapse in CNS is:
A. Mechanical Synapse
B. Chemical Synapse
C. Gap Junctions
D. Electrical Synapse

19. Central nervous system is made up of:
A. Peripheral nerves
B. None of these
C. Brain and spinal cord
D. Somatic nerves

20. Exchange of gases by diffusion between blood and body cells is known as:
A. Alveolar ventilation
B. Internal respiration
C. Pulmonary ventilation
D. External respiration

21. How much percentage of oxygen is transported inform of oxyhemoglobin?
A. 1.5 %
B. 60 %
C. 98.5 %
D. 40 %

22. Dorsiflexion movement occur at which of the following joint:
A. Ankle joint
B. Shoulder joint
C. Knee joint
D. Elbow joint
E. Wrist joint

23. A body is divided into anterior and posterior half by which of the following imaginary plane
A. Midsagittal plane
B. Coronal plane
C. Right median plane
D. Left median plane
E. Para-median plane

24. Which of the following bones united by the sutures?
A. Sesamoid bones
B. Skull bones
C. Long bones
D. Tarsal bones
E. Carpal bones

25. Renin is secreted by:
A. Juxtaglomerular cells(JG)
B. PCT
C. DCT
D. Vasa recta

26. Main Muscle of quiet inspiration is:
A. Internal Intercostal
B. External Intercostal
C. Diaphragm
D. Abdominals

27. Surfactant is secreted by:
A. Type I Pneumocystis
B. Goblet Cells
C. Type IV Pneumocystis
D. Type II Pneumocystis

28. Shoulder joint is a type of:
A. Cartilaginous joint
B. Syndesmosis
C. Synovial joint
D. Fibrous joint
E. Secondary cartilaginous joint

29. The release of thyroid hormones (T3 andT4) in blood is stimulated by:
A. FSH
B. ACTH
C. TSH
D. LH

30. Skin is lined by:
A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Cuboidal epithelium
C. Transitional epithelium
D. Pseudostratified epithelium
E. Columnar epithelium

31. Pharynx continue with the esophagus at the level of:
A. 2nd thoracic vertebra
B. 6th cervical vertebra
C. 3rd cervical vertebra
D. 2nd cervical vertebra
E. 4th cervical vertebra

32. Somatic, cutaneous senses which originates from the skin are:
A. Chemoreceptors
B. Special senses
C. Pain, touch, cold and heat
D. proprioceptors

33. Heart receives the parasympathetic supply by means of:
A. Cranial nerves
B. Vagus nerve
C. Sympathetic plexus
D. Cervical nerves

34. A student was standing in class with folding both arms which one of the following movement she did performed?
A. Medial rotation at shoulder region
B. Flexion at shoulder region
C. Extension at shoulder region
D. Circumduction at shoulder region
E. Lateral rotation at shoulder region

35. Which of the following part is not included in large intestine?
A. Cecum
B. Descending colon
C. Duodenum
D. Ascending colon
E. Transverse colon

36. System of the body which is NOT necessary for survival is:
A. Central nervous system
B. Cardiovascular system
C. Reproductive system
D. Respiratory system

37. Al are the phases of menstrual cycle except:
A. Luteal phase
B. Secretory phase
C. Menstrual phase
D. Proliferative phase

38. Superior venacava is formed by the union of:
A. Cardiac veins
B. Common iliac veins
C. Brachiocephalic veins
D. Internal jugular veins
E. Azygous veins

 

Answer Key

1 E

2 C

3 C

4 C

5 B

6 B

7 A

8 C

9 A

10 B

11 C

12 A

13 A

14 A

15 D

16 E

17 C

18 B

19 C

20 B

21 C

22 A

23 A

24 B

25 B

26 B

27D

28 C

29 C

30 A

31 C

32 A

33 B

34 B

35 C

36 C

37 A

38 C

 

English MCQs/BCQs

English- BSN (Generic)

1. Yesterday she sent ______ SMS to me.
A. A
B. All of these
C. An
D. The

2. That day he _________ do as I asked him to do.
A. Does not
B. Did not
C. would not
D. Will not

3. Where is__________ pen, I gave you yesterday?
A. this
B. a
C. the
D. an

4. Are you waiting for him __________the airport?
A. Inside
B. Onto
C. On
D. At

5. An eagle flies faster than any other bird of prey (Identify underlined phrase)
A. Pronoun
B. Interjection
C. Adjective
D. Adverb

6. They are walking ______the North.
A. Since
B. Towards
C. Under
D. On

7. He drove his car very slowly (identify the marked phrase)
A. conjunction/ adjective
B. adverb/ adverb
C. adverb/ adjective
D. adjective/ adverb

8. I have already _____________this movie, you must buy another one.
A. Watch
B. Watches
C. Watched
D. Watching

9. They have been working in Karachi_______16 years.
A. from
B. since
C. up to
D. for

10. The jet sped into the deep blue sky. (Identify underlined phrase)
A. noun
B. preposition
C. adjective
D. conjunction
E. adverb

11. ______Sun rises in ______east.
A. X/An
B. A/An
C. A/The
D. The/The

12. They will be driving______2pm____4pm.
A. from/up to
B. since/x
C. from/to
D. for/x

13. Sana has_________ her book to me to mark important chapters that may help her in her interview.
A. Given
B. Gave
C. Gives
D. Give

14. Last Tuesday it _________raining since morning.
A. had
B. had been
C. has
D. have

15. She did not _______her convocation ceremony.
A. attends
B. attend
C. attended
D. have been tending
E. attending

16. Sobia & Fehmida _______plucked many flowers four garden recently.
A. have been
B. has
C. have
D. are

17. They usually _______English in their offices thus, we don’t face problem in understanding their instructions.
A. speaking
B. spoke
C. speak
D. speaks

18. Mr. Saleem is ____lecturer in our college.
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. x

19. Why were you so angry? (Identify underlined phrase)
A. Adverb
B. Preposition
C. Pronoun
D. Adjective

20. The way he answered me was really so sweet (identify the marked phrase)
A. adjective
B. preposition
C. conjunction
D. adverb

21. You have been doing your lab work___________24 hour
A. till
B. Since
C. for
D. from

22. Last Sunday they _________me several questions before my flight to Dubai.
A. asks
B. ask
C. asked
D. asking

23. Our team has been maintaining the score ____________15 minutes and 37seconds.
A. until
B. from
C. for
D. Since

24. Your friend is really sweet (identify the underline phrase)
A. verb
B. adjective
C. adverb
D. noun

25. Did you ___________attention to the announcement?
A. Paying
B. Pay
C. Pays
D. Had paid

26. Did Ayesha call her brother yesterday? Yes, she__________
A. called
B. did not called
C. call
D. have not been calling

27. He is an intelligent but a lazy boy (identify conjunction)
A. lazy
B. intelligent
C. but
D. an

28. Farhan has gone home _______he had to leave for his job interview in the afternoon.
A. But
B. Asif
C. Because
D. Therefore

29. Ali and Ahsan have been living in Islamabad ______January.
A. from
B. up to
C. since
D. for

30. She is my ___aunty, she is very sweet:
A. the
B. none of these
C. a
D. an

31. Several planets are bigger than the earth. (Identify subject)
A. the earth
B. Several
C. Planets and earth
D. several planets

32. He is _________honest man among all.
A. The
B. A
C. All these
D. An

33. My sibling did not ____________to meet their class fellow.
A. Will go
B. Gone
C. Went
D. Go

34. She answered every question very beautifully. (Identify underlined phrase)
A. interjection
B. preposition
C. Adjective
D. adverb

35. Today Hammad ________helping his brother to complete his task.
A. has
B. is
C. were
D. will

36. Zara decided to-do ______best she could.
A. An
B. A
C. The
D. None of these

37. Next year we ___________admission in Lahore.
A. Will get
B. have got
C. got
D. will got
E. get

38. These days she is trying to _________some different research work.
A. Do
B. Doing
C. Did
D. Done

39. Salman is such a tremendous player; he is ______Shahid Afridi of our team.
A. a
B. none of these
C. an
D. the

Answer Key

  1. C
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. C
  6. B
  7. D
  8. C
  9. D
  10. E
  11. D
  12. C
  13. A
  14. B
  15. B
  16. C
  17. C
  18. A
  19. D
  20. A
  21. C
  22. C
  23. C
  24. B
  25. B
  26. A
  27. C
  28. A
  29. A
  30. D
  31. C
  32. D
  33. D
  34. C
  35. A
  36. C
  37. A
  38. A
  39. A

Community Health Nursing-I MCQs/BCQs

BS Nursing

1. The term _____________ is applied to unwanted or discarded waste matter while refuse means the solid discarded material produced by human habitant except human excreta.
a. Wholesome Water
b. Sewage
c. Waste
d. Garbage
e. Refuse

2. Environment refers to:
a. Environ
b. Organisms
c. Living things
d. Surroundings
e. Objects

3. The abiotic components are classified as:
a. Climatic
b. Water
c. Air
d. Food
e. All of the above

4. Rural Communities are the:
a. Places outside cities
b. Places in Suburbs
c. Places in the cities
d. Places adjacent to the cities
e. Places built with the cities

5. _______________ is a state of poor health:
a. Wellness
b. Illness
c. Wellbeing
d. Disease
e. Ill Health

6 ______________ are places inside of the cities:
a. Urban Communities
b. Rural Communities
c. Mauhalla
d. Suburbs
e. Towns

7. The most polluted form of water is:
a. River water
b. Springs
c. Shower water
d. Surface water
e. Rain water

8. The Health Belief was a psychological model developed by:
a. Julian Anderson
b. Neil Harmor
c. Florence Nightangle
d. Adam Jenner
e. Rosenstock

9. Cultural environment include all except:
a. Society
b. Economy
c. Microbia
d. Economics
e. Politics

10. The term Anthrosphere refers:
a. Flora
b. Natural disasters
c. Man made things
d. Fauna
e. Air

11. Fauna is:
a. Lithosphere
b. Atmosphere
c. Transformers
d. Hydrosphere
e. Biosphere

12. __________________________ on the other hand refers to those interventions that take place in a hospital setting such as intravenous rehydration or surgery
a. Tertiary Health Care
b. Primary Health Care
c. Bedside care
d. Secondary Health Care
e. Primitive Health Care

13. The main objectives of Community Health Nursing are optimum individual, and
a. Secondary Health Care
b. Primitive Health Care
c. National Health
d. Community health.
e. Primary Health

14. __________________refers to contaminants that enter a waterway through a discrete conveyance, such as a pipe.
a. Non Point source Pollution
b. Point source pollution
c. Water pollution
d. Food pollution
e. Sewage pollution

15. Surface water is usually:
a. Hard in nature
b. Neutral in Nature
c. Acidic in Nature
d. Soft in Nature
e. Alkaline in Nature

16. Is the intentional movement of _____________from outside a building to the inside.
a. Air
b. Water
c. Soil
d. Food
e. Pollution

17. Absence of fresh air can cause:
a. Heartburn
b. Diabetese
c. Headache
d. Constipation
e. Iron deficiency Anemia

18. Balanced Diet is best defined as :
a. Diet that satisfies your hunger
b. Diet that contains the optimum requirement of food calories and the nutrients.
c. Diet Rich in Fructose
d. Diet rich in Fats and Carbohydrates.
e. Diet rich in Sugar

19. The example of liquid waste is:
a. Plastics,
b. Styrofoam containers
c. Scrap Iron
d. Bleach
e. Chemicals

20. Dumping is the method of waste refusal in which :
a. In costal towns refuse is carried 15 miles within sea and is dumped there
b. In costal towns refuse is carried 5 miles within sea and is dumped there
c. In costal towns refuse is carried 50 miles within sea and is dumped there
d. In costal towns refuse is carried 25 miles within sea and is dumped there
e. In costal towns refuse is carried 0.5 miles within sea and is dumped there

21. ________________ is a modified sanitary landfill. Here mixed refuse should be placed properly and covered by earth.
a. Composting
b. Incineration
c. Controlled Tipping
d. Slow Sand Filter Bed
e. Rapid Sand Filteration Bed

22. The end product, ________________, contains few or no disease producing organisms, and is a good soil builder containing small amounts of the major plant nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates

a. Compost
b. Sudge
c. Sludge
d. Siners
e. Incliners

23. The heat produced during composting, is _______________ or higher
a. 61OC
b. 62OC
c. 64OC
d. 60OC
e. 630C

24. In Bangalore Method the first layer of refuse is about __________ thick
a. 20 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 16 cm
e. 17 cm

25. Mechanical Composting is also known as :
a. Anaerobic Method
b. Old Method
c. New Method
d. Aerobic method
e. Refined Method

26. One of the disease caused by rodent is:
a. Whooping Cough
b. Plague
c. Tuberculosis
d. Diabetes
e. Angina Pectoris

27. Plague is caused by Bacteria
a. Yersinia Spirochetes
b. Yersinia Meningococal
c. Yersinia Pestis
d. Yersinia Anopheles
e. Yersinia Ameobic

28. Bubo is formed in
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Plague
c. Hypertension
d. Pneumonic plague
e. Bubonic Plague

29. Slaughter house is also known as:
a. Private Abattoir
b. Public Abattoir
c. Public Savege house
d. Public Slaughter House
e. Private Slaughter House

30. Animal infections transmitted to man by meat are called
a. Exogenoses Contamination
b. Exogenous Contamination
c. Endogenoses Contamination
d. False Contamination
e. Zoonoses Contamination

 

Answer key
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. E
6. A
7. A
8. E
9. C
10. C
11. E
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. A
17. C
18. B
19. E
20. B
21. C
22. A
23. D
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. E
29. B
30. E

Community health Nursing-II MCQs/BCQs

BS Nursing

1. Sickness is:
A. A social state, signifying an impaired role for those who are ill.
B. A phenomenon in which one or more natural functions of the body are so disturbed
C. A condition of body or some part or organ of body in which its functions are unbalanced.
D. A state in which the individual has no health problem

2. Following are the functions of Pakistan Nursing Council (PNC) except:
A. PNC works closely with the four provincial Nursing Examination Boards (NEBs)
B. PNC inspects educational institutions for approval based on established standards.
C. PNC provides registration (license) to practice to doctors
D. PNC Maintains standards of education and practice
E. PNC sets the curriculum for the education of Nurses, Midwives, LHVs and Nursing Auxiliaries

3. Which of the following is the social environmental need for normal physical and mental health?
A. All of the above
B. Good nutrition and proper rest
C. Regular exercise and recreations
D. Work in accordance with health conditions

4. International conference (Alma Ata) on primary health care was held form _______ in Alma Ata, USSR:
A. September 6-12, 1979
B. September 6-12, 1978
C. September 6-12, 1977
D. September 6-12, 1976

5. Determinants of community health include:
A. Equitable distribution
B. Environment
C. Rehabilitation
D. Treatment of disorders

6. ___________________ is a geographic area that is located outside towns and cities.
A. Rural area or countryside community
B. Suburban community
C. Urban community
D. Rural and urban community
E. Community

7. ___________________ can be define as a phenomenon in which one or more natural functions of the body are so disturbed.
A. Infection
B. Disease
C. Illness
D. Sickness

8. According to American Nurses Association _____________ is “a synthesis of nursing and public health practice applied to promoting and preserving the health populations”:
A. Community health
B. Community
C. Public health
D. Community health nursing

9. The ____________ is the most popularly used method of waste disposal used today:
A. All of the above
B. Recycling
C. Disposal in ocean/sea
D. Landfill
E. Incineration/combustion

10. Which one of the following is NOT included in the elements of primary health care (PHC):
A. Provision of safe water and basic sanitation
B. Safe food supply and proper nutrition
C. Appropriate treatment of common diseases and injuries
D. Increasing the adaptation of the individual to his environment

11. A group of people living in the same place or having a particular characteristic in common is:
A. City
B. Community
C. Town
D. Society
E. Provence

12. Basic principles of primary health care include:
A. Contributing to method of diagnosis
B. Prevention and control of non-communicable diseases
C. Decentralization of power
D. Reproductive health needs

13. Following are the components of health education except:
A. Environmental health
B. Emotional health
C. Physical health
D. Infirmity
E. Social health

14. International conference (Alma Ata) on primary health care was held at USST capital of:
A. Waziristan
B. Turkistan
C. Afghanistan
D. Kazakhstan

15. Safe food supply and proper nutrition is:
A. Essentials/Elements of primary health care
B. Goal and objective of primary health care
C. Basic requirement of primary health care
D. Basic principle of primary health care

16. __________________ is barrier to community/ public participation
A. Lack of education or information
B. Poverty/socioeconomic status
C. Cultural minorities
D. Negligence from government

17. A basic health unit (BHU) is for the population of:
A. 4000-11000
B. 3000-4000
C. 5000-10000
D. 15000- 20000

18. Education that promotes an understanding of how to maintain personal health is:
A. Health education
B. Education
C. Learning
D. Community health education
E. Teaching

19. Which of the one the following is characteristics of community health nursing?
A. Increase the average life expectancy
B. Emphasizes wellness rather than illness
C. Decreasing the morbidity rate
D. Providing total health care to improve quality of life

20. An average person must sleep for ____________ hours during night:
A. 4 to 8
B. 6 to 8
C. 7 to 8
D. 5 to 8

21. PHC based on the following principles except:
A. Nation-wide coverage
B. Inter-sectoral coordination
C. Self-reliance
D. Social equity
E. Self-actualization

22. Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?
A. To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children
B. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the promotion of health and prevention of illness
C. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services that will increase their level of health
D. To enhance the capacity of individuals, Families and communities to cope with their health needs.

23. Which one of the following is subjective component of wellness?
A. Level of provision of recreational; services
B. Individuals own evaluation of standard of life
C. Level of provision of health services
D. Occupation and employment status

24. Supervises the work of health assistants in district is responsibility of:
A. District health nurse
B. Executive district health officer
C. District health inspector
D. District health officer

25. ______________________ can be defined as a phenomenon in which one or more natural functions of the body are so disturbed.
A. Infection
B. Disease
C. Illness
D. Sickness

26. The Pakistan Nursing Council (PNC) is a regulatory body established in:
A. 1947
B. 1950
C. 1951
D. 1949
E. 1948

27. Devolution of power in health departments:
A. Improve the quantity and quality of health care delivery to the people close to their door step
B. Reproductive health
C. Food sanitation
D. Prevent and control communicable diseases
E. Occupational health

28. Chloramines in the water, like dichloramine and trichloramine, irritate and causes all except one:
A. Heart problem
B. Eye problems
C. Nose problems
D. Skin problems
E. Ear problems

Answer KEY
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. D
10. D
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. A
16. A
17. D
18. A
19. D
20. B
21. E
22. D
23. B
24. D
25. C
26. F
27. A
28. E

Fundamental of Nursing

Fundamental of Nursing MCQs/BCQs BSc Nursing

1. A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The nurse administered anti diarrheal tablets to the patient. What phrase of nursing process is being implemented here by the nurse?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Implementation

2. It is best describe as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care for individual, families, group and community.
A. Assessment
B. Nursing Process
C. Diagnosis
D. Implementation

3. The 1st technique used in examining the abdomen of a client is:
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Percussion
D. Inspection

4. During a routine examination you are assessing the putting pressure on the patient’s abdomen to evaluate that whether the patient is having tenderness or not, you are performing which of the following technique:
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion

5. The nurse is using otoscope for assessing the patient. Which of the following area is tested?
A. Optic
B. Olfactory
C. Oculomotor
D. Trochlear

6. A nurse is performing an initial assessment for a client. Which of the following could be considered objective information except?
A. The client’s blood pressure increases when the provider enters the room
B. The client weighs 186 pounds
C. The client rates pain at a level of 6 on the numeric rating scale
D. The client has a pinpoint rash on the face and trunk

7. A patient comes to the health care setup, you are assessing the patient and you gathered information about the patient current health status and past health status, you are doing..
A. Assessment
B. Interviewing
C. Data Collection
D. All of the above

8. A patient is brought to ED in unconscious status, you gathered data from the patient’s relatives or attendants, this type of data can be labeled as_________________
A. Primary source of data
B. Objective data
C. Secondary source of data
D. All of the above

9. During your conversation for gathering data, you asked several questions from the patient and you got the answers for those questions, you are using ________________ skill for data collection.
A. Objective data
B. Secondary data
C. Source of data
D. None of the above

10. The component of the nursing diagnose that shows the client’s health status and directs the nurse towards the formation of the nursing interventions is___________________
A. Etiology
B. Defining characteristics
C. Problem Statement
D. None of the above

11. The Nurse is providing physical care, emotional support, comfort, teaching, counseling and environmental support to the patient, all these interventions can be labeled as _______________
A. Dependent interventions
B. Independent interventions
C. Collaborative interventions
D. Systematic interventions.

12. Nursing documentation can be use in the following aspects:
A. Communication
B. Education
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

13. While preparing the patient for surgery, Nurse is taking signatures from the patient or the patient’s relative to allow for the surgery, this document is called_______________
A. Medical record
B. Detailed chart
C. Check list
D. Patient assessment form
E. None of the above

14. The organized, purposeful and disciplined thinking process is known as______________
A. Deep thinking
B. Enhanced thinking
C. Critical thinking
D. Dependent thinking

15. The following are the steps that are involved in critical thinking_____________
A. Interpretation
B. Analysis
C. Evaluation
D. Self regulation
E. Both A & B
F. All of the above

16. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage is known as:
A. Pain
B. Stimulus
C. Stress
D. None of the above

17. A 50 year old male patient is admitted in the medicine department, is complaining of the pain in the right lower limb, The nurse assessed the patient and was unable to know the etiology of the pain, this pain can be labeled as ________________
A. Nociceptive pain
B. Psychogenic pain
C. Neuropathic pain
D. Relative pain.

18. A 62 year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department, with severe chest pain on the left side, spreading towards the left shoulder and left arm, when the nurse assessed the patient she came to know that the patient is suspected for MI, the nurse labeled the type of pain as_____
A. Phantom pain
B. Referred pain
C. Radiating pain
D. Psychogenic pain

19. Retrosternal chest pain can be labeled as______________
A. Phantom pain
B. Referred pain
C. Radiating pain
D. Psychogenic pain

20. A 780 year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department, with diabetic foot gangrene with severe pain in the foot, the doctor performed surgery and amputated the foot, post operatively the patient was perceiving pain in the foot, the nurse informed the doctor that the patient is having _________________ pain.
A. Referred pain
B. Radiating pain
C. Psychogenic pain
D. Nociceptive pain
E. None of the above

21. According to this theory pain is produced when any sensory nerve is stimulated to a certain level:
A. Intensity theory
B. Specificity Theory
C. Gate control Theory
D. All of the above

22. All of the following are Non Pharmacological measures for relieving pain except__________
A. Distraction
B. Humor
C. Music
D. Opoids
E. Relaxation

23. The sum of all the interactions between an organism and the food it consumes is called_____
A. Nutrients
B. Nutrition
C. Food availability
D. All of the above

24. Rate at which food is metabolized to maintain energy requirements of a person who is awake and at rest
A. Catabolism
B. Anabolism
C. Basal Metabolic Rate
D. Metabolism

25. The nurse is assessing a 3 year old baby for nutritional status, The nurse measures the Height and weight, Growth curve, Head and chest circumferences, Skin fold thickness, and Mid arm circumference, the nurse asks the student nurse that which type of measurements she had taken, the student nurse will answer _______________
A. Anthropometric measurement
B. Body measurement
C. Height and weight
D. Physical measurement

26. You are asked to calculate the BMI for the patient having Weight = 70 kg (154 lb) and Height= 5 feet (60 inches or 1.52 m) , what will be the BMI of the patient _____________
A. 20
B. 30.1
C. 55
D. 22

27. You calculated the BMI of the patient in question no. 26, look at the patient BMI and label the patient into one category:
A. Under weight
B. Normal weight
C. Obesity
D. None of the above

28. You are taking history from the patient at OPD, and the patient tell you that he pass feces 2 times a day in routine, he tells now he has not passed stool from 4 days, the nurse will consider that the patient is having:
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Flatulence
D. Bowel incontinence

29. If constipation is prolonged it can lead to _____________
A. More Constipation
B. Bowel incontinence
C. Fecal impaction
D. Fecal incontinence.

30. A 25year old male patient is admitted in the medicine department, is complaining of excessively liquid stool, Difficult to control urge for defecation and Spasmodic cramps, on assessment you came to know that the patient is dehydrated and have increase bowel sound, what will be your diagnoses?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Flatulence
D. Bowel incontinence

31. The loss of voluntary ability to control the fecal and gaseous discharge through the anal sphincter is called _________________
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Flatulence
D. Bowel incontinence

32. you are taking history from the patient, and the patient tells you that he is unable to control flatus, as well as complain of minor soiling: you can consider this condition as___________
A. Diarrhea
B. Partial bowel incontinence
C. Major bowel incontinence
D. None of the above.

33. The presence of excessive flatus in the intestines is called_______________
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

34. A nursing student ask you a question that, in which stage of sleep the dreaming occurs, what will be your answer ????
A. NREM Stage 3
B. NREM Stage 4
C. REM Stage
D. Deep Sleep Stage
E. All of the above

35. While caring for a client with disturbed sleep pattern, which of the following will be your nursing intervention on priority?
A. Maintain a good circadian rhythm
B. Get adequate exercise during day time, but avoid excessive exertion before bed time.
C. Avoid dealing with office work or family problem before bedtime.
D. Use the bed mainly for sleep, so that you associate it with sleep.

36. The most common form of sexual activity is _______________
A. Homosexual genital intercourse
B. Orgasm
C. Libido
D. Heterosexual genital intercourse

37. Sexual response cycle includes the following phases except__________
A. Excitement phase
B. Plateau phase
C. Maintenance phase
D. Orgasmic phase
E. Resolution phase

38. “Many sexual therapist advise to increase sexual communication to avoid this problem” which of the following best justifies the above statement.
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Pre mature Ejaculation
C. Dysparunia
D. All of the above

39. The chronic vulvar discomfort or pain that characterized by complaints of burning or pain or irritation of the female genitalia is known as:
A. Dysparunia
B. Vaginal infection
C. Vulvodynia
D. Vaginismus

40. You are on duty in urology department and you are asked to, asses the male patient’s genital organs, you will assess all of the following in physical examination except?
A. Inspect for any scars or lesions on the external genitals.
B. Ask for Current problem in sexual activity
C. Inspect for any changes in the shape of genital organs.
D. Compare the size of both testes

41. Nurse Elisabeth is teaching about sexual health to client, she taught about various things, some of them are the following, the head nurse noted Elisabeth that all of her teaching was right except:
A. Encourage open communication between partners.
B. Teach about kegel exercise to women.
C. Teach about any changes in sexual pattern due to any medications or following surgical procedure.
D. Do you have any problem in your sexuality?

42. The permanent cessation of function of vital organs of the body, including heart beat, spontaneous breathing and brain activity is known as_____________
A. Rest
B. Sleep
C. Death
D. All of the above

43. You have a 75 years old patient in ICU in critical condition, the physician tells you that the patient is not in satisfactory condition and going towards death, he noted the following manifestation and made his statement:
A. Loss of muscle tone
B. Slowing of the circulation
C. Changes in the vital signs
D. Sensory impairment
E. All of the above
F. None of the above

44. In the same case (as in question 43), the patient is expired, and the doctor declares the patient death, on which of the following basis the doctor declared this death?
A. Total lack of response to external stimuli
B. No muscular movement
C. No reflexes
D. Flat encephalogram
E. All of the above
F. Both B, C and D

45.” Does not understand concept of death, believes death is reversible, temporary departure or sleep.” From whom we can expect the above mentioned response?
A. A 5 year child
B. An Adult
C. A person in late adulthood
D. None of the above

46. “Fears prolonged illness, sees death as having multiple meanings, freedom from pain, and reunion with already deceased family members” From whom we can expect the above mentioned response?
A. An Adult having age of 20 years
B. A child
C. Above 65 years
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

47. The stiffening of the body that occurs about 2 to 4 hours after death is called _____________
A. Algor Mortis
B. Rigor Mortis
C. Livor Mortis
D. Stiffening of the body
E. Discoloration

48. _______________Is the gradual decrease of the body temperature after death.
A. Algor Mortis
B. Rigor Mortis
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

49. The loss that can be identified by others and can arise in response to a situation is called_________
A. Anticipatory loss
B. Perceived loss
C. Actual loss
D. None of the above

50. All of the following are Kubler Ross propose stages of grief except____________
A. Denial
B. Adopting
C. Anger
D. Depression.