Pakistan Study BCQs/MCQs BScN

1. During khilafat movement an excited mob set fire to a police station at chauri chaura village where about 22 policemen burnt alive in:
a. February 1922
b. February 1923
c. February 1920
d. February 1921
e. February 1924
2. Who presented the resolution for the formation of All India Muslim League:
a. Nawab Salimullah Khan
b. M. Ali Johar
c. Waqar-ul-Mulk
d. Mohsin-ul-Mulk
e. Sir Agha Khan
3. Which of the following was commonly known as the ’Father of idea of Pakistan’?
a. Sir Muhammad Shafi
b. Choudhary Rehmat Ali
c. M A Jinnah
d. Allama Iqbal
4. When India cut off Pakistan’s water supply without notice?
a. June 1948
b. April 1949
c. May 1948
d. May 1949
e. April 1948
5. Mahmood Ghaznavi who ruled Ghani from 997-1030 A.D. raided India for:
a. 17 times
b. 15 times
c. 16 times
d. 19 times
e. 18 times
6. Historical wars of Paniput are very famous ; this battle field is located in Indian Punjab. How many major wars were fought in this field?
a. Five
b. Six
c. Four
d. Three
e. Two
7. The 3rd June plan was announced on 3rd June by:
a. Lord Mounbatten
b. Jawahar Lal Nehru
c. Loord Wavell
d. Moti Lal Nehru
e. M.A. Jinnah
8. Quaid-e-Azam inaugurated the State Bank of Pakistan on:
a. 14th August, 1948
b. 1st July, 1949
c. 14th July, 1948
d. 1st July, 1948
e. 1st June, 1948
9. Who was the chairman of two boundary commissions between India and Pakistan?
a. Sir Cyril Radcliff
b. Tej sinjh
c. Muhammad Muneer
d. Din Muhammad
e. Mehar Chand
10. Name the Viceroy of India who made an offer in August 1940, on the behalf of British Government to Indian people:
a. Lord Wavel
b. Lord Mount Batten
c. Lord Irwin
d. Lord Linlithgow
e. Lord Hardinge
11. Who was appointed as the caretaker prime minister of Pakistan after the first dismissal of Benazeer Bhutto:
a. Aftab Ahmed Sherpao
b. Muhammad Khan Junejo
c. Moen Qureshi
d. Meraj Khalid
e. Ghulam Mustafa Jatoi
12. The Muslims of Sub-continent launched the Khilafat movement in the year of:
a. 1918
b. 1919
c. 1916
d. 1917
e. 1920
13. Which of the following was the first Muslim of India who placed Two Nation Theory?
a. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
b. Sir Agha Khan
c. M. Ali Jinnah
d. M. Ali Johar
e. Sir Muhammad Shafi
14. Quaid-e-Azam Muhammad Ali Jinnah joined All India Muslim League in the year of:
a. 1913
b. 1915
c. 1914
d. 1912
e. 1916
15. All India Muslim League was established in:
a. September 1905
b. December 1906
c. September 1906
d. December 1907
e. December 1905
16. The Mughal emperor who promulgated a new faith entitled Din-e-Elahi in 1581 A.D. was:
a. Akber
b. Jahangir
c. Humayun
d. Baber
e. Aurangzeb
17. Who was the first prime minister of Pakistan?
a. Kwaja Nazim-ud-din
b. M. Ali Jinnah
c. Liaquat Ali Khan
d. Muhammad Ali Bogra
e. Nur-ul-Amin
18. The Muslim Deputation met the Viceroy Minto in 1906 at:
a. Bombay
b. Delhi
c. Simla
d. Calcutta
e. Lahore
19. Who was the founder of Mughal dynasty?
a. Sher Shah
b. Humayun
c. Akber
d. Jahangir
e. Zaheer-ud-din Baber
20. In 712 A.D a Muslim expedition to conquer Sindh was sent by Hajjaj Bin Yousuf who was:
a. Governer of Iraq
b. Governer of Makran
c. Emperor of Egypt
d. King of Persia
e. Governer of Syria
21. The Simla Deputation led by Agha Khan was consisted of:
a. 25 members
b. 35 members
c. 30 members
d. 32 members
e. 40 members
22. When 3rd Martial law was imposed?
a. 5th July, 1980
b. 5th July, 1978
c. 5th July, 1976
d. 5th July, 1979
e. 5th July, 1977
23. Who coined the name Pakistan?
a. Maulana Muhammad Ali Johar
b. Choudhary Khaliq-uz-zama
c. M,A. Jinnah
d. Choudhary Rehmat Ali
e. Allama Iqbal
24. Select correct chronological order:
a. Akber, Shah Jahan, Humayun, Jahangir
b. Shah Jahan, Jahangir, Akber, Humayun
c. Akber, Humayun, Jahangir, Shah Jahan
d. Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Humayun, Akber
e. Humayun, Akber, Jahangir, Shah Jahan
25. On 23rd March, 1940, the famous resolution which came to be known as Pakistan Resolution was moved by:
a. Choudhary Khaliq-uz-zama
b. Moulvi Fazal-ul-Haq
c. Sardar Auranzeb
d. Moulana Zafar Ali Khan
e. M.Ali Johar
26. Sindh Provincial Muslim League Conference was held at Karachi and passed a resolution adopting Two-Nation Theory on:
a. 10th October, 1938
b. 10th October, 1941
c. 10th October, 1937
d. 10th October, 1939
e. 10th October, 1940
27. The British Government appointed Simon Commission for the recommendation for the new constitution in the year of:
a. 1928
b. 1926
c. 1927
d. 1930
e. 1929
28. The largest political forum of the Islamic countries in the world is:
a. NAM
b. Gulf Countries
c. OIC
d. ECO
e. Arab League
29. With the resignation of Congress Ministries, the Quaid-e-Azam appealed to the people to observe Day of Deliverance on:
a. 22 December, 1938
b. 22 January, 1940
c. 22 January, 1939
d. 22 December, 1939
e. 22 December, 1940
30. Under the Vidya Mandir scheme, the students were asked to pay respect and homage to Gandhi’s picture every day in their assemblies in the schools. The author of this scheme was.
a. Gandhi
b. Imam Ali
c. Zakir Hussain
d. Nehru
e. Dr. Abdul Kalam
31. Name the historians who visited India in 1001 A.D. gave earliest account of distinction between the Hindus and Muslims:
a. Mahmood Ghaznavi
b. Al-Beruni
c. Subuktigin
d. Shahabuddin
e. Alptigin
32. The Indian National Congress passed the ‘Quit India Resolution’ in Bombay on:
a. 30th August, 1942
b. 31st August, 1942
c. 28th August, 1942
d. 18th August, 1942
e. 8th August, 1942
33. Where Quaid-e-Azam taken to in the last months of his life:
a. Ziarat
b. Muree
c. Rawalpindi
d. Quetta
e. Lahore
34. India exploded five nuclear tests on 11th and 13th May 1998. Pakistan replied with atomic explosions on:
a. 27th May, 1998
b. 28th May, 1998
c. 26th May, 1998
d. 25th May, 1998
e. 24th May, 1998
35. The Quran and Sunnah declared as the supreme law of Pakistan in________ of constitution of 1973.
a. 9th amendment
b. 10th amendment
c. 7th amendment
d. 8th amendment
e. 11th amendment
36. Kashmir is located in the ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬________ of Pakistan.
a. East
b. North East
c. North
d. West
e. South
37. When East Pakistan separated from Pakistan?
a. 8th December, 1971
b. 18th December, 1971
c. 10th December, 1971
d. 16th December, 1971
e. 20th December, 1971
38. The famous Congress-League Scheme was signed in Lucknow in the year of:
a. 1916
b. 1912
c. 1914
d. 1919
e. 1918
39. Which significant step of Bhutto Government in 1974 was a great satisfaction for religious parties?
a. Qadianis were declared as non-Muslims
b. Friday was declared weekly holiday
c. Pakistan was declared Islamic state
d. Separate Electorate were announced

Answer key:
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. E
5. A
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. E
12. B
13. A
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. C
19. E
20. A
21. B
22. E
23. D
24. E
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. D
30. C
31. B
32. E
33. A
34. B
35. A
36. C
37. D
38. A
39. A

Pathophysiology MCQs/BCQs

1) Total body water is:
1. 14L
2. 42L
3. 20 L
4. 28 L

2) All of the following are benign tumors, the most unlikely is:
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Meningioma
3. Fibroma
4. Leiomyoma

3) Neutrophils predominate in acute inflammatory infiltrate during:
1. First 06 -24 hours
2. First 08 hours
3. First 04- 06 hours
4. First 24-48 hours

4) Most effective Bactericidal system in neutrophils is:
1. Halideion
2. MPOsystem (Myeloperoxidase)
3. NADPHoxidasesystem
4. MP0-H202Halidesystem

5) What is the most important prognostic factor for human cancer is proved to be of greater clinical value:
1. Stage
2. Vascular invasion.
3. Lymphocytic infiltration
4. Grade.

6) Most reliable feature that differentiates malignant tumor from benign is:
1. Local invasion
2. Metastasis
3. Irregular surface
4. Capsule

7) Regarding type – I hypersensitity:
1. Initial response is characterized by vasoconstriction
2. Late phase reaction occurs after few minutes
3. Develop after few days
4. Characterized by release of mast cell mediators

8) Reaction due to injection of horse serum (serum sickness) is example of:
1. Type – IV hypersensitivity
2. Type – Il hypersensitivity
3. Type – Ill hypersensitivity
4 Type – I hypersensitivity

9) Antibody mediated hypersensitivity does not occur in:
1. Erythroblastosis fetalis
2. Autoimmune Hemolytic anemia
3. Arthus reaction
4. Transfusion reaction

10) A 50 years old male develops sudden severe abdominal pain radiating to back. His lab values shows raised Amylase level. Regarding this case fat necrosis may occur in which of the following organ:
1. Brain
2. Skeletal muscle
3. Pancrease
4. Heart


11) Regarding Necrosis, which of the following statement is true:
1. Pancreas shows coagulative necrosis
2. Heart shows coagulative necrosis
3. Brain shows coagulation Necrosis
4. Heart shows liquefactive necrosis

12) In full term pregnancy, which one of the following cell adaptation has maximum contribution to increase in the size of uterus?
1. Dystrophy
2. Hyperplasia
3. Anaplasia
4. Atrophy

13) AIDS can be transferred through following factors except:

2. Blood
3. Direct contact
4. Saliva
14) All of the following are malignant tumors, the most unlikely is
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Fibrosarcoma
3. Teratoma
4. Leukemia

16) Which of the following complement proteins may act as Opsonins:
1. c3b
2. C3a
3 C5b 9 complex
4. C3a & C5a

17) All of the following are malignant tumors, the most unlikely is:
1. Leukemia
2. Adenocarcinoma
3. Fibrosarcoma
4. Osteoma

18) Which one of the following mediator causes, chemotaxis of the leukocytes?
1. C1
2. C5a
3. c2a
4. C4

19) Granuloma with caseous necrosis is seen in:
1. Lymphoma
2. Tuberculosis
3. Sarcoidosis
4. Foreign body granuloma

20) Which of the following lab diagnostic technique is most convenient and suitable for the initial diagnosis and management of the patient suffering from swelling infront of neck (goiter)?
1 Smear
3. Immunohistochemistry
4. Biopsy


21) ———— is also called Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity because it utilizes antibodies that can destroy normal cells by complement lysis or by antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
1. Type-ll hypersensitivity
2. Type-l hypersensivitiy
3. Type-IV hypersensivitiy
4. Type-ll hypersensivitiy

22) Most common chornic inflammatory cells are:
1. Neutrophils
2. Macrophages
3. Eosinophils
4. Plasma cells

23) Malignant tumor arising from mesenchymal tissue is most likely called as:
1. Adenomna
2. Sarcoma
3. Hepatoma
4. Fibroma

24) Metastasis of cancer most unlikely occur by:
1. Lymphatic spread
2. Direct seeding of body cavities
3. Aerosol droplet
4. Hematogenous spread

25) Regarding anaplasia which of the following statement is true:
1. Nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio 1:6
2. Increase mitosis
3. Well differentiated cells
4. Normal size of shape of cells

26) Laboratory test most commonly used for diagnosis of AIDS is:

27) Multiple sclerosis is example of:
1. Type – l hypersensitivity
2. Type- IV hypersensitivity
3. Type-Ill hypersensitivity
4. Type – I hypersensitivity

28) Generalized edema through the body is termed as:
1. Anasarca
2. Anaplasia
3. Sarcoma
4. Pitting edema

29) Major component of innate immunity are all of following, the most unlikely is:
1. Epithelial barrier
2. B-lymphocyte
3. Complement proteins
4. NK cells

30) A 40 years old male suffering from cervical lymphadenopathy. Biopsy report shows granuloma with caseous necrosis. The most likely diagnosis will be
1. Tuberculosis
2. Sarcoidosis
3. Lymphoma
4 Foreign body granuloma


31) Pathological hyperplasia of thyroid gland occurs in:
1. Thyroid connective tissue
2. Thyroid follicles
3. Whole thyroid tissue
4. Thyroid stroma

32) A 55 years old female with ovarian Carcinoma developed ascities. Cytological analysiss of ascitic fluid show malignant cells. Which of the following pathway best explaining the spreading of tumor to the peritonium:
1. Seeding of body cavity
2. Lymphatic spread
3. Hematogenous spread
4. Direct Extension

33) Weakness and wasting of the body due to severe chronic illness is referred to:
1. Neoplasm
2. Cachexia
3. Anorexia
4. Fatigue

34) Which of the following is earliest stage of vascular events of acute inflammation?
1. Vasodilation
2. Initial vasoconstriction
3. Redness
4. Leukocytic migration

35) Increased concentration of potassium in the blood is termed as:
1. Hypernatremia
2. Hyperkalemia
3. Hypokalemia
4. Hyponatremia

36) Loss of uniformity of cells & Ioss of arachitectural orientation is most likely called as:
1. Desmoplasia
2. Metaplasia
3. Dysplasia
4. Anaplasia

37) Arthus reaction is example of:
1. Type – lll hypersensitivity
2. Type – II hypersensitivity
3. Type- IV hypersensitivity
4. Type – I hypersensitivity

38) All are causes of atrophy, the most unlikely is:
1. Diminished blood supply
2. Denervation
3. Decrease workload
4. Increase workload

39) Excessive intake of acid containing foods and beverages may lead to development of:
1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Respiratory alkalosis
3. Metbolic alkalosis
4. Respiratory acidosis

40) In full term pregnancy, which one of the following cell adaptations has maximum contribution to increase in the size of uterus?
1. Dystrophy
2. Hyperplasia
3. Anaplasia
4 Atrophy

41) Goodpasture syndrome is example of:
1. Type -Ill hypersensitivityy
2. Type – I hypersensitivity
3. Type-ll hypersensitivity
4. Type – IV hypersensitivity


Fundamental of Nursing MCQs/BCQs

Fundamental of Nursing-I|1stYear|2nd Semester| BSN(Generic)

1. Which of the following is not true about rapid eye movement sleep?
A) metabolic rate increases
B) dreams occur
C) slow wave sleep
D) pulse blood pressure and breathing increases
E) fast waves sleep

2. The client who doesn’t have fever is called:
A) Febrile
B) Hyperpyrexia
C) Afebrile
D) Pyrexia
E) Hypothermia

3. Which of the following is an example of objective data?
A) Severe headache
B) feeling of very severe pain in abdomen
C) feeling worry
D) discoloration of skin
E) complain of loose motion

4. Factors that affect sexual functioning includes
A) Family
B) Personal expectations
C) Religion
D) all of these
E) Culture

5. Concern for the Welfare and wellbeing for others is:
A) Altruism
B) Autonomy
C) Integrity
D) Social Justice
E) human dignity

6. Complicated grieving may not characterize by:
A) suicidal thoughts
B) severe physiologic symptoms
C) extended time of denial
D) sleep disturbance
E) Depression

7. Which of the following statement is true regarding non rapid eye movement (NREM)
A) also called paradoxical sleep
B) sleepoccursevery20minutesandlastfor5to30minutes
C) Brain is highly active
D) usually dream takes place in this sleep
E) sleepers heart rate and respiratory rate drops

8. Which of the following is not a component of nursing process:
A) Intervention
B) Scientific Rationale
C) Assessment & Nursing Diagnosis
D) Expected Outcome
E) Evaluation

9. Loss of voluntary ability to control fecal and gaseous discharge through anal sphincters:
A) Bowel incontinence
B) Constipation
C) Diarrhea
D) Flatulence
E) Urinary incontinence

10. Which of the following is not correct for chronic pain:
A) parasympathetic nervous system responses
B) client appears depressed and withdrawn
C) it lasted six months or longer
D) sympathetic nervous system responses
E) vital signs normal

11. After al medication have been given through nasogastric tube the nurse should:
A) Flush the tube with 30cc water
B) No Need to Flush
C) Flush the tube with 100cc water
D) Flush the tube with 50 water IN
E) Wash out tube thoroughly

12. The Most commonly used methods for stress management includes the following except
A) age
B) Minimize anxiety
C) Exercise
D) Nutrition
E) Mediating anger

13. Inability to obtain and adequate amount or quality of sleep is:
A) Hypersomnia
B) Narcolepsy
C) sleep apnea
D) insomnia
E) parainsomnia

14. Characteristics of normal color of urine is?
A) Dark amber
B) Straw, amber transparent
C) Cloudy
D) Red or dark brown
E) Dark orange

15. Painful or difficult urination is called?
A) hematuria
B) Oliguria
C) polyuria
D) residual urine
E) dysuria

16. Which of the following is a micronutrient?
A) Proteins
B) carbohydrates
C) Water
D) Fat
E) Minerals

17. The major source of body energy is:
A) Minerals
B) Vitamins
C) Carbohydrates
D) Lipids
E) Proteins

18. Data on health status of the client can be obtained by:
A) Lab. reports
B) Diagnostic test results
C) Nursing history
D) Physical assessment
E) All of these

19. Amount of urine output less than 400 ml in 24 hours is called:
A) Anuria

B) Oliguria
C) Polyuria
D) Hematuria
E) Dysuria

20. Which of The nursing intervention is not included to promote a positive concept in client:
A) establish therapeutic relationship with the client
B) avoid eye contact with patient
C) helping our clients to identify areas of strength
D) assist the client to evaluate himself
E) assist the client to make behavioral change

21. Which of The following is not a physiological manifestation of stress?
A) Depression
B) increase cardiac output
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Constipation
E) dry mouth

22. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of human need which of the following human need should met first:
A) Self-actualization
B) Safety and security
C) Self Esteem
D) Love and belonging
E) Physiologic needs

23. When Giving ophthalmic medication in the form of gtts it should be installed
A) Conjunctiva
B) Pupil
C) Sclera
D) Outer canthus
E) Inner canthus

24. Leakage of urine despite of voluntary control of urination is called:
A) Incontinence
B) Urgency
C) Dribbling
D) residual urine
E) hesitancy

25. Average daily urine output by the age of 14years through adulthood is?
A) 1500ml

B) 600-700ml
C) 800-1400ml
D) 1500ml or less
E) 700-1000ml

26. Which of The following statement regarding subcutaneous injection is not true?
A) It is injected just below the skin subcutaneous layer
B) Given at 25-degree angle
C) Only 0.5-1 ml is given
D) Insulin is also given subcutaneously
E) Given at 45-degree angle

27. Non rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep occurs about:
A) 50 to 60%
B) 70 to 80%
C) 40 to 50%
D) 30 to 40%
E) 20 to 30%

28. Physical Change of pain includes the following Except:
A) Elevated respiratory rate
B) Elevated dilated pupils, cyanosed and perspiration
C) Elevated blood pressure
D) Elevated pulse rate
E) Stress and restless

29. Process of designing nursing action required to prevent, reduce or eliminate patients’ problem is:
A) Planning
B) Assessment
C) nursing diagnosis
D) Evaluation
E) Implementation

30. The Type of functional Health Pattern which focus on the person’ perceived level of health and wellbeing and on practices for maintaining health is:
A) Self-perception/Self-concept pattern
B) Role and relationship pattern
C) Health perception/health management pattern
D) Value belief pattern
E) Cognitive/perceptual pattern

31. Which of The following statement regarding intradermal injection is not true?
A) Check for bleb or wheal
B) Use 26-27-gauge needle
C) Given at 5-15-degree angle
D) Given for allergy test
E) Inject into deep muscles

32. The first step of nursing process is?
A) Planning
B) Evaluation
C) Diagnosis
D) Assessment
E) Implementation

33. Which of The Following is a dependent nursing action?
A) Giving mouth care
B) Intake and output monitoring
C) Giving bed bath
D) Changing clients position 2hourly
E) Giving medications according to physician’s order

34. Draw The person that attention away from the pain through listening music:
A) Relaxation
B) guided imagery
C) imagery meditation
D) Distraction

35. The ability to listen actively can:
A) improve cooperation
B) improve interpersonal relationship
C) block understanding
D) minimize is communicate
E) reduce conflicts

36. One of The most important factor affecting person sleep and rest periods
A) lifestyle and habits
B) Environment
C) Illness
D) Fatigue
E) Age

37. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of oral route of medication?
A) Not suitable for unconscious patient
B) May cause irritation to gastric mucosa
C) Sometime may have adverse reaction
D) Portable, no pain, easy to take
E) Foodland Gastrointestinal motility can affect drug absorption

38. Intramuscular injection should be given at the angle of _______ degree.
A) 45
B) 75
C) 25
D) 35
E) 90

39. When Assessing a Person with altered concept the nurse should not:
A) minimize interruption
B) ask close ended questions
C) create a quiet environment
D) maintain appropriate eye contact
E) sit at eyelevel with the client


Answer key

1. E
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. A
6. E
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. E
16. E
17. C
18. E
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. E
23. A
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. E
32. D
33. E
34. A
35. E
36. A
37. D
38. E
39. B