These words are pretty similar and have only subtle differences and in spoken language many people might not be careful enough to use each of the words correctly. However I think the explanation from Longman Activator Thesaurus is quite helpful:

Purpose: what you want to achieve when you do something; the reason you do or plan something, and the thing you want to achieve when you do it: The games have an educational purpose.

Aim: something you hope to achieve by doing something: The main aim of the plan was to provide employment for local people.

Goal: something important that you hope to achieve in the future, even though it may take a long time: The country can still achieve its goal of reducing poverty by a third.

Target: the exact result that a person or organization intends to achieve by doing something, often the amount of money they want to get; a particular amount or total that you want to achieve: The company is on track to meet its target of increasing profits by 10%.

Objective: the specific thing that you are trying to achieve – used especially about things that have been officially discussed and agreed upon in business, politics, etc. and agreed upon in business, politics, etc.: Their main objective is to halt the flow of drugs. | We met to set the business objectives for the coming year.

Ambition: something that you very much want to achieve in your future career: Her ambition was to go to law school and become an attorney. | Earlier this year, he achieved his ambition of competing in the Olympic Games.

61. The sum of the absolute deviation about mean for the values: 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10 is always:
a. Not equal to zero
b. 2
c. 10
d. Not possible.

62. The mean of a data is defined as:
a. The sum of the values is multiplied by the numbers of the values
b. The sum of the values divided by the numbers of the values
c. Divide every value by a constant number.
d. The square of values is divided by the numbers of the values.

63. The mean, median and mode the given values: 42, 42, 42, 42, 42, 42, are
a. Mean=42, median=44, mode=46
b. 12
c. The same value
d. 0

64. When we add or subtract any constant values in the original values then, it is known as:
a. Deviation about mean
b. Change of origin.
c. Change of scale.
d. Mean deviation

65. The square root of the mean of the square deviation about mean is known as:
a. The variance
b. Standard deviation
c. Central value.
d. The average value.

66. When p-value is less than α (level of significance) then we: ———–
(a) Reject o H (b) accept o H
(c) None of these (d) Reject A H

67. The probability of any event is defined as the number of the favorable events divided by the number of the sample space. Sample space is defined as:
a. Even number of out comes.
b. Odd number of out comes.
c. All possible out comes of an Experiment.
d. None of all these.

68. A portion of the population selected for study is referred to as:
a. a sample
b. parameter .
c. Hypothesis.
d. Random variable.

69. A major purpose of doing research is to infer, or generalize, from a sample to a larger population this method is known as:
a. Sampling Design
b. Measures of dispersion.
c. Probability.
d. Testing of hypothesis.

70. Some characteristics are not capable of being measured in the sense that height, weight, and age are measured. These characteristics are categorized only, as for example, when an ill person is given a medical diagnosis, or a person is designated as belonging to an ethnic group. These variables are called:
a. Qualitative (categorical) variables
b. Random variable
c. Quantitative variable
d. Not possible.

71. If we have the values x1 = 80, x2 = 90, x3 = 100, x4 = 110, x5 =120.the mean of the data is:
a. 100
b. 0
c. 90
d. 120

72. The variance for the given values is:

(a) 0 (b) 64
(c) 10 (d) 218.5

73. The coefficient of variation is a useful measure of relative spread in data and is used frequently in the biologic sciences. It is defined as the standard deviation divided by the mean times 100%. It produces a measure of relative variation-variation that is relative to the size of the mean. The formula is:
(a) Median *Mode
(b) S.d *mean
(c) Mean/ Variance
(d) sd/mean*100

74. The sum of the absolute deviation about mean is always:
a. Positive.
b. Negative
c. Zero and negative both at a time
d. Zero

75. If we add or subtract any constant value in the original data, this process is known as change of origin and similarly if we multiply or divide the original data by any constant then it is known as change of scale. The mean of the original observations is 10, if we add a constant 5 in each observation then mean will be:
a. 0
b. Same as 10
c. 15
d. 5

76. Which of the measures of variability is NOT dependent on the exact values of every measurement?
a. Mean deviation
b. Variance
c. Range
d. Standard deviation

77. The standard deviation divided by the mean of the measurements equals is known as:
a. 
b. The coefficient of variation
c.  2
d. zero

78. Z-test is always used to test the population mean whether population variance is known or unknown when sample size n should be :—————-
a. less than 30
b. equal or greater than 30
c. no condition
d. none of these

79. Using the given information’s

The group is consistent.
(a) A (b) B
(c) A & B both. (d) Both are not consistent.

80. The mean of the absolute deviation about mean is known as:
a. variance
b. Standard deviation.
c. Mean deviation about mean.
d. Mean.

81. All possible outcomes of an experiment is known as sample space. When a coin is tossed 3 times then total sample space is
a. 0
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10

82. Two events A and B are said to be mutually exclusive events if and only if:
a. Both occur at a time.
b. only one occurs
c. Neither of them occurs
d. none of them

83. The probability of any event is defined as the number of the favorable events divided by the sample space.
a. The sum of the probabilities should be equal to one.
b. The probability of any event lies between -1 and +1.
c. The probability of any event can’t be negative.
d. The probability lies between 0 and 1.

84. 
 


m 1 2
m 1
2f f f
(f f )* h
l is the formula for ———- for grouped data.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Range
d. Mode

85. The minimum size of a Contingency table is : —————
a. 1×1
b. 2×2
c. 10×10
d. No minimum size

86. t-test is always used to test the population mean whether population variance is known or unknown when sample size n should be :—————-
a. less than 30
b. equal or greater than 30
c. no condition
d. none of these

87. In a contingency table with 4 rows and 6 columns then degree of freedom is
a. 15
b. 24
c. 4
d. 6

88. The critical value for the Chi-square test with 2 degree of freedom at 5% level of significance is;
a. 2
b. 5.991
c. 0
d. -2.4

89. The ANOVA method is used to test the equality of more then two population means at a time the test statistic is used in this method is known as:———–
a. t-test
b. chi-square test
c. F-test
d. z-test

90. In testing of hypothesis in order to test the equality of more than two population means at a time the ——————– method is used.
a. Analysis of variance
b. student t-test
c. Chi-square test
d. none of these

91. Random Sampling or Probability sampling includes all the following techniques, except:
a. Simple random sampling
b. Stratified random Sampling
c. Cluster sampling
d. Purposive Sampling

92. Gender, age-class, religion, type of disease, and blood group are measured on;
a. Nominal Scale
b. Ordinal Scale
c. Interval Scale
d. Ratio Scale

93. Which scale of measurement has an absolute zero?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio

94. The variable which is influenced by the intervention of the researcher is called:
a. Independent
b. Dependent
c. Discrete
d. Extraneous

95. The statistical approach which helps the investigator to decide whether the outcome of the study is a result of factors planned within design of the study or determined by chance is called:
a. Descriptive statistics
b. Inferential statistics
c. Normal distribution
d. Standard deviation

96. Which of the following methods is a form of graphical presentation of data?
a. Line Diagram
b. Pie diagram
c. Bar diagram
d. Histogram

97. All the following are measures of central tendency, except:
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Variance

98. A measure of central tendency influenced by extreme scores & skewed distributions is;
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range

99. A measure of central tendency in which is calculated by number arranging in numerical order is:
a. Standard deviation
b. Range
c. Median
d. Mode

100. The proportion of observations fall above the median is:
a. 68%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 95%

101. The indices used to measure variation or dispersion among scores are all, except:
a. Range
b. Variance
c. Standard deviation
d. Mean

102. A measure of dispersion of a set of observations in which it is calculated by the difference between the highest and lowest values produced is called:
a. Standard deviation
b. Variance
c. Range
d. Mode

103. A statistic which describes the interval of scores bounded by the 25th and 75th percentile ranks is:
a. Inter-quartile range
b. Confidence Interval
c. Standard deviation
d. Variance

104. The Median value is the:
a. 25th percentile
b. 50th percentile
c. 75th percentile
d. 95th percentile

105. Large standard deviations suggest that:
a. Scores are probably widely scattered.
b. There is very little deference among scores.
c. mean, median and mode are the same
d. The scores not normally distributed.

106. The formula given below is computational formula for:
a. Variance
b. Mean
c. Standard deviation
d. t-statistic

107. The squire of the standard deviation is the:
a. Variance.
b. Standard error
c. Z-score
d. Variance

108. Which is NOT a characteristic of normal distribution?
a. Symmetric
b. Bell-shaped
c. Mean = median = mode
d. Negative skewness

109. Skewness is a measure:
a. of the asymmetry of the probability distribution
b. which decides whether the distribution may have high or low variance
c. of central tendency
d. None of the above

110. The listed observations- 1,2,3,4,100, suggest the distribution:
a. is positively skewed
b. is negatively skewed
c. has zero skewness
d. is left-skewed

111. Which statement about normal distribution is FALSE:
a. 50 percent of the observations fall within one standard deviation sigma of the mean.
b. 68 percent of the observations fall within one standard deviation sigma of the mean.
c. 95 percent of observation falls within 2 standard deviations.
d. 99.7 percent of observations fall within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

112. A measure used to standardize the central tendency away from the mean across different samples is:
a. skewness
b. Range
c. Z-score
d. mode

113. Probability values fall on scale between:
a. -1 to +1
b. 0 and 1.
c. -3 to + 3
d. 0.05 to 0.01

114. Standard error is calculated by:
a. Dividing standard deviation by the square root of the sample size.
b. Dividing number of nominated outcome by number of possible outcome.
c. Adding all the numbers and then dividing by the numbers of observations.
d. Arranging the numbers in numerical order, then taking the middle one.

115. 95% confidence interval refers to:
a. A. considering 1 out of 20 chances are taken to be wrong.
b. B. considering 1 out of 100 chances are taken as wrong.
c. C. considering 95 out of 100 chances are taken as wrong.
d. D. considering 5 out of 20 chances are taken as wrong.

116. The given formula is used to calculate: (O= Observed frequency, E= Expected frequency)
a. t-test
b. chi-squire statistic
c. correlation coefficient
d. Standard deviation

117. A contingency table (2×2) is used to calculate:
a. t-statistic
b. correlation coefficient
c. variance
d. chi-squire statistic

118. Correlation coefficient ranges from:
a. 0.01 to 0.05
b. 0 to 1
c. -1 to +1
d. -3 to +3

119. A type of graphical presentation data used to explain correlation between dependent and independent variable is:
a. Histogram
b. Frequency polygon
c. Frequency curve
d. Scatter plot

120. When explaining the direction of the linear association between two numerical paired variables, a positive correlation is stated when:
a. One variable increases and the other variable decreases or vice versa.
b. dependent variable increases and independent variable decreases
c. Both variables increase and decrease at the same time.
d. Correlation coefficient is stated close to 0.

M.C.Q’s of Bio-statistics

1. The mean of the data a, a, a, a will be
a. Zero
b. a
c. 2
d. none of the above

2. The mean of the square deviation about mean is known as;
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Variance
d. Standard deviation

3. If sum of 20 values is 300 then mean of the data is;
a. 15
b. 20
c. 30
d. 300

4. If we add or subtract any value in the original any value in the original data then this process is known as;
a. Change of scale
b. Change of origin
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

5. The mean of the 10 values is 20, if we add a value 10 in each observation then mean for the new value will be ;
a. 20
b. 0
c. 30
d. 10
6. When two coins are tossed together then probability of getting no tail is;
a. 0
b. ½
c. ¼
d. 1

7. The mean value or central value or average value of a data are;
a. All same value
b. All different value
c. None of these
d. Always negative

8. When “n” is an odd number then median is defined as;
a. Middle value
b. Median of two middle values
c. Sum of the values
d. Most repeated value

9. For a group data the class interval having maximum frequency is known as
a. Median class
b. Mode
c. Median
d. Model class

10. The sum of the deviation about mean for the data 6, 8, 10, 2, and 4 is always;
a. 1
b. 0
c. Negative
d. 30

11. If the calculated value of chi-squire lies in the region of acceptance, then we;
a. Accept Ho
b. Reject Ho
c. No conclusion
d. None of the above

12. Chi-square test is always used to test;
a. Population mean
b. Population median
c. Test of association
d. None of these

13. Pulse rate or weight of patient are known as;
a. Nominal data
b. Continuous data
c. Discrete data
d. Random variable

14. Classification of objects or persons into classes or groups in such a way that only one object or person falls in only one group at a time is called as;
a. Mutually exclusive
b. None Mutually exclusive
c. Dependent
d. Independent

15. In testing hypothesis we use different level of significance to test Ho , in most situations level of significance is not given then we have to use;
a. 1 %
b. 2 %
c. 5%
d. 10%

16. If we want to compare two or more groups then we use coefficient of variation (C.V), the group which has maximum C.V is known as the more;
a. Consistent
b. Not consistent
c. None of the above
d. It is not possible

17. When we make a 95% confidence interval for the population mean using t or z test then probability or chance of error will be;
a. 0.05
b. 0.1
c. 1
d. 5

18. A variable which has some chance or probability of its occurrence is known as;
a. Simple variable
b. Qualitative variable
c. Quantitative variable
d. Random variable

19. The sample mean x is known as the point estimator of the population;
a. Median
b. Mode
c. Variance
d. Mean μ

20. In all research analysis it is not possible to study whole population, we always estimate population parameters on the basis of;
a. Population information
b. Sample information
c. We could not estimate parameters
d. Estimation of samples

21. Sampling is the process of drawing samples from the population, when the chance or probability of each member of the population is equal than such sampling design known as;
a. Simple random sampling
b. Not random sampling
c. Judgment sampling
d. None of these

22. Estimation is the process of estimating parameters on the basis of;
a. Parameters
b. Statistics
c. A and B
d. None of the above

23. If random sample size 4 taken from a population whose variance is 16. When sampling is done with replacement than variance of the sample mean is;
a. 2
b. 16
c. 4
d. 48

24. When the size of samples is increasing then variance of sample means is also;
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Constant
d. None of the above

25. When two dice and a single coin are tossed together then total sample spaces will be;
a. 36
b. 14
c. 24
d. 72 (Rational 6*6*2=72)
26. Student t-test is used to test population mean when population variance is always unknown and the sample size is;
a. Less than 30
b. More than 30
c. Any size
d. None of them

27. The minimum d.f for the Chi-square test of independence or association is always;
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. N-1

28. If Chi-square test’s calculated value is less than critical value then o H is always be;
a. Accepted and rejected both
b. Accepted
c. Rejected
d. None of these

29. P-value is the probability of the calculated value, if p-value is zero then we reject the o H after comparing with;
a. Level of significance
b. Critical value
c. d.f
d. sample size

30. squire root of the mean of squire deviation is known as;
a. variance
b. median
c. SD
d. Mean

31. A type of qualitative data where zero is not fixed (arbitrary) termed as;
a. Discrete
b. Continuous
c. Ratio
d. Interval

32. A subset of all the measurement of interest is;
a. Sample
b. Population
c. Sample unit
d. None of these

33. All of the following are an example of qualitative data except;
a. Sex
b. Age
c. Educational level
d. Socioeconomic status

34. All of the following are an example of quantitative data except;
a. Gender
b. Height
c. Weight
d. Temperature

35. Mean is the measure of central tendency can be calculated for all of the following except;
a. Age
b. Weight
c. Systolic BP
d. Marital status

36. Which one is formula for empirical rule
a. μ± 1SD = 60%
b. μ± 1SD = 65%
c. μ± 1SD = 68%
d. μ± 1SD = 70%

37. Following all are true for mean EXCEPT;
a. Applicable for continuous data
b. Not applicable for qualitative data
c. Do not affect by extraneous values
d. Affected by each value in data set

38. Fourth step of hypothesis testing is;
a. Level of significance
b. Test statistic
c. Rejection region
d. None of these

39. The most frequent occurring observation is
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. SD

40. When the distribution of data is skewed, one should ideally use;
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. None of these

41. Sample SD is denoted by;
a. S
b. S2
c.
d.

42. Z-core is calculated for;
a. Chi-quire distribution
b. Standard normal distribution
c. T-distribution
d. Normal distribution

43. A hospital claims, its ambulance response time is less than 10 minutes, it can be written as;
a. o H >10 min, A H ≤ 10 min
b. o H ≤10 min, A H > 10 min
c. o H ≠10 min, A H = 10 min
d. o H – 10 min, A H / 10 min

44. Chi-quire test of significance is used when;
a. Data is continuous
b. Data is categorical
c. Data is discrete
d. None of these

45. In normal distribution curve, mean of the data lie on the
a. Right end
b. Centre
c. Left end
d. None of these

46. Parameters of standard normal distribution are;
a. Mean
b. SD
c. Range
d. Both a and b

47. Which one the following is true for standard normal distribution;
a. Mean = 0
b. Mean = 50
c. Mean = 100
d. Mean = 0.5

48. When mean, median, and mode lie in the centre of the curve, the distribution is known as;
a. Right skewed
b. Left skewed
c. Chi-squire
d. Normal

49. In 95% confidence interval, the level of significance (α) is;
a. 0.01
b. 0.05
c. 0.1
d. None of these

50. All of the following are true for student t-test except;
a. Sample size 30
b.  = unknown
c. Approximate Z when N>30
d. Use for qualitative data

51. Which one the formula is used for df in chi-squire distribution;
a. (row)(column)
b. (row-column)
c. (row-1)(column-1)
d. (row-1)(column)

52. All of the following are true for measure of dispersion except;
a. Mean
b. Range
c. Inter-quartile range
d. Variance

53. What is the relationship between SD and variance;
a. Variance = SD
b. Variance = SD/n
c. Variance = (SD)2
d. None of these

54. First step in calculating median is;
a. Calculate range
b. Arrange data
c. Count the data
d. None of these

55. What is true for descriptive statistics;
a. Organization & displaying of data
b. Drawing inferences for population
c. Hypothesis testing
d. Calculation p-value

56. The area under normal distribution curve is;
a. 1
b. 0.5
c. 0
d. None of these

57. Negative z-score shows that;
a. Observation is below to mean
b. Observation is above to mean
c. Observation is equal to mean
d. None of these

SCENARIO (for 58 to 60)

A survey was conducted by graduate students to investigate the current situation of student in Pakistan. Some of the variable was Gender, Level of Education, Ethnicity, Place of domicile, Age, Marital status & employee status. Following questions (58- 60) are related this scenario;

58. Appropriate graph to display marital status (Married, Unmarried, Divorced, widow) is;
a. Frequency polygon
b. Scatter plot
c. Pie chart
d. Histogram

59. Level of education is;
a. Nominal data
b. Ordinal data
c. Discrete data
d. None of these

60. The best way to display Age data is to draw;
a. Histogram
b. Bar chart
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

Research Multiple choice questions with Key

151. The use of multiple data sources to help understand a phenomenon is one strategy that is used to promote qualitative research validity. Which of the following terms describes this strategy?
a. Data matching
b. Pattern matching
c. Data triangulation
d. Data feedback

152. What is another term that refers to a confounding extraneous variable?
a. Last variable
b. First variable
c. Third variable
d. Fourth variable

153. Which of the following refers to any systematic change that occurs over time in the way in which the dependent variable is assessed?
a. Instrumentation
b. Maturation
c. Testing
d. Selection

154. Which strategy used to promote qualitative research validity uses multiple research methods to study a phenomenon?
a. Data triangulation
b. Methods triangulation
c. Theory triangulation
d. Member checking

155. In study design threats, If Subjects’ behaviour may be affected by characteristics of the researchers is known as:
a. Measurement effect
b. Experimenter effect
c. Novelty effect
d. Expectancy effect

156. Which of the following in not one of the key threats to internal validity?
a. Maturation
b. Instrumentation
c. Temporal change
d. History

157. Which is not a direct threat to the internal validity of a research design?
a. History
b. Testing
c. Sampling error
d. Differential selection

158. Internal validity refers to which of the following?
a. The ability to infer that a causal relationship exists between 2 variables
b. The extent to which study results can be generalized to and across populations of persons, settings, and times
c. The use of effective measurement instruments in the study
d. The ability to generalize the study results to individuals not included in the study

159. The post-test-only design with non-equivalent groups is likely to control for which of the following threats to internal validity:
a. History
b. Differential selection
c. additive and interactive effects
d. differential attrition

160. Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest scores to determine the initial equivalence of groups on the pretest before the treatment variable is introduced into the research setting.
a. One-group pretest-posttest design
b. Pretest-posttest control group design
c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
d. Both b and c

161. Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls for both known and unknown variables?
a. Building the extraneous variable into the design
b. Matching
c. Random assignment
d. Analysis of covariance

162. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is the ________.
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Treatment group
d. Independent group

163. There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables can be controlled. Which control technique is considered to be the best?
a. Random assignment
b. Matching
c. Counterbalancing
d. None of the above

164. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect produced by the ____.
a. Dependent variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Independent variable
d. Confounding variable

165. Which one of the following research tests hypotheses and theories in order to explain how and why a phenomenon operates as it does?
a. Descriptive
b. Predictive
c. Explanatory
d. Exploratory

166. If a research finding is statistically significant, then ____.
a. The observed result is probably not due to chance
b. The observed result cannot possibly be due to chance
c. The observed result is probably a chance result
d. The null hypothesis of “no relationship” is probably true

167. When a researcher starts with the dependent variable and moves backwards, it is called.
a. Predictive research
b. Retrospective research
c. Exploratory research
d. Descriptive research

168. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal?
a. Causal-comparative
b. Correlational
c. Experimental
d. Historical

169. Following are the threats to internal validity except one;
a. Novelty Effect
b. History
c. Selection
d. Maturation

170. The degree to which the components of the research reflect the theory, concept, or variable under study is termed as;
a. Design Validity
b. Threats to Validity
c. Internal validity
d. External validity

171. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of descriptive studies?
a. To serve as a starting point for hypothesis generation
b. To get rigorous control of the variables
c. To serve as a starting point for theory development
d. To observe, describe, & document aspects of a situation as it naturally occurs

172. Which of the following attempts to understand relationships among phenomena as they naturally occur, without any intervention?
a. Ex post facto research
b. Experimental research
c. Prospective design
d. Retrospective design

173. The nursing community’s interest in qualitative research began in;
a. Late 1910’s
b. Late 1930’s
c. Late 1950’s
d. Late 1970’s

174. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
a. Generalization to the population
b. Random sampling
c. Unique case orientation
d. Standardized tests and measures

175. Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?
a. Design flexibility
b. Inductive analysis
c. Context sensitivity
d. All of the above

176. Which of the following is usually not a characteristic of qualitative research?
a. Design flexibility
b. Dynamic systems
c. Naturalistic inquiry
d. Deductive design

177. Which of the following focuses on individuals’ interpretation of their experience & the ways in which they express them?
a. Historical research
b. Phenomenological Research
c. Grounded theory
d. Ethnography Research

178. Which of the following is not phase of qualitative research?
a. Orientation and overview
b. Focused exploration
c. Conformation and Closure
d. Orientation and closure

179. A research is undertaken to answer questions about causes, effects, or trends relating to past events that may shed light on present behaviors or practices is called as;
a. Historical research
b. Phenomenological Research
c. Grounded theory
d. Ethnography Research

180. Following are the major types of triangulation EXCEPT ONE;
a. Data Triangulation
b. Time Triangulation
c. Method Triangulation
d. Theory Triangulation

181. Which of the following has contributed to the development of many middle range theories of phenomena relevant to nurses?
a. Historical research
b. Phenomenological Research
c. Grounded theory
d. Ethnography Research

182. Which of the following refers to use of more than one theoretical position in interpreting data?
a. Data Triangulation
b. Time Triangulation
c. Method Triangulation
d. Theory Triangulation

183. Phenomenology has its disciplinary origins in:
a. Philosophy
b. Anthropology
c. Sociology
d. Many disciplines

184. The primary data analysis approach in ethnography is:
a. Open, axial, and selective coding
b. Holistic description and search for cultural themes
c. Cross-case analysis
d. Identifying essences of a phenomenon

185. The term used to describe suspending preconceptions and learned feelings about a phenomenon is called:
a. Axial coding
b. Design flexibility
c. Bracketing
d. Ethnography

186. ________ is a study of human consciousness and individuals’ experience of some phenomenon.
a. Phenomenology
b. Ethnography
c. Grounded theory
d. Case study research

187. ________ is a general methodology for developing theory that is based on data systematically gathered and analysed.
a. Theory confirmation
b. Grounded theory
c. Theory deduction
d. phenomenology

188. In which qualitative research approach is the primary goal to gain access to individuals’ inner worlds of experience?
a. Phenomenology
b. Ethnography
c. Grounded theory
d. Case study

189. The type of qualitative research that describes the culture of a group of people is called;
a. Phenomenology
b. Grounded theory
c. Ethnography
d. Case study

190. What term refers to the insider’s perspective?
a. Ethnocentrism
b. Emic perspective
c. Etic perspective
d. Holism

191. A researcher studies a Kashmiri group for a six month period to learn all about them so he can write a book about that particular tribe. What type of research will he likely be conducting?
a. Ethnography
b. Phenomenology
c. Grounded theory
d. Collective case study

192. _________ is used to describe cultural scenes or the cultural characteristics of a group of people.
a. Phenomenology
b. Ethnography
c. Grounded theory
d. Instrumental case study

193. Which of the following is not one of the 4 major approaches to qualitative research?
a. Ethnography
b. Phenomenology
c. Case study
d. Nonexperimental

194. Which of the following is known as a clear statement of the specific aim or goal of the study
a. Research Question
b. Research objective
c. Research Purpose
d. Research Problem

195. Tuskegee Syphilis study was conducted in which of the following year.
a. 1930
b. 1940
c. 1932
d. 1942

196. Medical experiments conduct on prisoners of war and racially valueless persons is named as;
a. Jewish C.D Hospital Study
b. Nazi medical experience.
c. Tuskegee Syphilis study
d. Willow brook Study

197. A hypothesis which states the relationship among three or more variables is called as
a. Simple Hypothesis
b. Complex Hypothesis
c. Research Hypothesis
d. Non directional Hypothesis

198. Which of the following is not an element of the ethical research?
a. Protecting subjects rights
b. Obtaining informed consent
c. Obtaining institutional approval
d. Unbalancing the benefits and the risk in the study

199. Misinforming the subjects for the research purposes is called as follow?
a. Anonymity
b. Confidentiality
c. Scientific misconduct
d. Deception

200. A hypothesis that States the nature (positive or negative) of the interaction between two or more variables is called
a. Associated Hypothesis
b. Casual Hypothesis
c. Null Hypothesis
d. Directional Hypothesis

101. Which of the following is NOT concept of measurement theory?
a. Directness of measurement
b. Reliability
c. Feasibility
d. Measurement error

102. If a test measures a single construct then:
a. The items should correlate with the total score
b. The items should not correlate with the total score
c. The test should not correlate with other measures of the same construct
d. There must be a reliable alternative form.

103. An ordinal scale is used to rank order people, objects, or characteristics.
a. True
b. False

104. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio

105. Let’s say that a test accurately indicates participants’ scores on a future criterion (e.g., the PSAT is used to indicate high-school GPA scores). This test would clearly have which of the following?
a. Face validity
b. Concurrent validity
c. Predictive validity
d. Content validity

106. If a baseball coach calculates batting averages, what scale would be used?
a. Interval scale
b. Ratio scale
c. Nominal scale
d. Ordinal scale

107. Most of the outcome/dependent variable characteristics and attributes measured on educational characteristics probably exist at the ______________ level of measurement.
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio

108. Reliability is most simply known as which of the following?
a. Consistency or stability
b. Appropriateness of interpretations on the basis of test scores
c. Ways in which people are the same
d. A rank order of participants on some characteristic

109. An ordinal scale is:
a. The simplest form of measurement
b. A rank-order scale of measurement
c. A scale with equal intervals between adjacent numbers
d. A scale with an absolute zero point
e. A categorical scale

110. Which of the following is not a type of reliability?
a. Test-retest
b. Split-half
c. Content
d. Internal consistency

111. Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting inferences based test scores?
a. Validation
b. Validity
c. Reliability
d. Prediction

112. Which of these is not a method of data collection?
a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Experiments
d. Observations

113. Which of the following statements accurately describes test-retest reliability?
a. Measure of consistency of test scores over time
b. Measure of consistency of scores obtained from two equivalent halves of same test
c. Measure of consistency with which a test measures a single construct or concept
d. Measure of degree of agreement between two or more scorers, judges, or raters

114. Which of the following types of reliability refers to the consistency of test scores over time?
a. Equivalent forms reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Inter-scorer reliability

115. Which one most closely refers to a judgment of the extent to which scores from a test can be used to infer, or predict, the examinees’ performance in some activity:
a. Content reliability
b. Face validity
c. Criterion-related validity
d. Inference validity

116. Which of the following is the correct order of Stevens’ four levels of measurement?
a. Ordinal, nominal, ratio, interval
b. Nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio
c. Interval, nominal, ordinal, ratio
d. Ratio, interval, nominal, ordinal

117. When evaluating tests and assessments, “reliability” refers to asking ourselves which of the following questions?
a. Does it measure what it is supposed to measure?
b. Are there ways to avoid subjective judgments when measuring something?
c. Does it give consistent results?
d. Does it measure multiple constructs?

118. Which type of reliability refers to the consistency of a group of individuals’ scores on two equivalent forms of a test designed to measure the same characteristic?
a. Split-half
b. Test-retest
c. Split-forms
d. Equivalent forms

119. Which one is refers to how well the particular sample of behaviors used to measure a characteristic reflects the entire domain of behaviors that constitutes that characteristic.
a. Construct validity evidence
b. Criterion-related validity evidence
c. Content validity evidence
d. Face validity evidence

120. Secondary/existing data may include which of the following?
a. Official documents
b. Personal documents
c. Archived research data
d. All of the above

121. Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier time by a different person for a different purpose?
a. Primary data
b. Secondary data
c. Experimental data
d. Field notes

122. Open-ended questions provide primarily ______ data.
a. Confirmatory data
b. Qualitative data
c. Predictive data
d. None of the above

123. Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher determining the appropriate sample sizes for the groups identified as important, and then taking convenience samples from those groups?
a. Proportional stratified sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. One-stage cluster sampling
d. Two-stage cluster sampling

124. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is called:
a. A nonrandom sampling method
b. A quota sample
c. A snowball sample
d. A Random Sample

125. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researcher’s predetermined response categories
b. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant’s own words
c. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own words
d. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants’ own words

126. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?
a. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate
b. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within each ethnic group at random.
c. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random number table to pick cases from the table.
d. Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school.

127. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling?
a. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups
b. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population proportions
c. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large enough subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
d. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample

128. Which of the following statements are true?
a. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling error
b. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger the sample needed
c. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger the sample needed
d. As sample size decreases, so does the size of the confidence interval

129. Which of the following formulae is used to determine how many people to include in the original sampling?
a. Desired sample size/Desired sample size + 1
b. Proportion likely to respond/desired sample size
c. Proportion likely to respond/population size
d. Desired sample size/Proportion likely to respond

130. Which of the following is not a form of probability sampling?
a. Simple random sampling
b. Systematic sampling
c. Purposive sampling
d. Cluster sampling

131. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?
a. Snowball sampling
b. Stratified sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling

132. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the sampling method called ______.
a. Simple random sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Convenience sampling

133. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population from which a sample has been taken?
a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique
b. A small sample based on simple random sampling
c. A large sample based on simple random sampling
d. A small cluster sample

134. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative research?
a. Simple random sampling
b. Systematic sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling

135. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?
a. Cluster sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Proportional stratified sampling

136. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research participants to identify other potential research participants?
a. Snowball
b. Convenience
c. Purposive
d. Quota

137. If we took the 500 nursing students attending a school in Karachi, divided them by gender, and then took a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the females, the variable on which we would divide the population is called the _____.
a. Independent variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Stratification variable
d. Sampling variable

138. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the sample is returned to the population before the next member is selected is called _________.
a. Sampling without replacement
b. Sampling with replacement
c. Simple random sampling
d. Systematic sampling

139. Which of the following would usually require the smallest sample size because of its efficiency?
a. One stage cluster sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Two stage cluster sampling
d. Quota sampling

140. The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as _________.
a. Sampling
b. Census
c. Survey research
d. None of the above

141. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of people for a study if you are interested in making statements about the larger population?
a. Convenience sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Purposive sampling
d. Random sampling

142. Which one is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules?
a. Sample
b. Population
c. Statistic
d. Element

143. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number between 1 and k, and including each kth element in your sample are the steps for which form of sampling?
a. Simple Random Sampling
b. Stratified Random Sampling
c. Systematic Sampling
d. Cluster sampling

144. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a population with a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called _____.
a. Convenience sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Purposive sampling
d. Snowball sampling

145. When an extraneous variable systematically varies with the independent variable and influences the dependent variable, it is called:
a. Another dependent variable
b. A confounding variable
c. A moderating variable
d. An unreliable variable

146. Which type of validity refers to the degree to which you can infer that the relationship between two variables is causal?
a. Internal validity
b. Population validity
c. Ecological validity
d. Statistical conclusion validity

147. An extraneous variable that systematically varies with the independent variable and also influences the dependent variable is known as a _______________.
a. Confounding variable
b. Third variable
c. Second variable
d. Both a and b are correct

148. The use of multiple observers to allow cross-checking of observations to make sure that the investigators agree with what took place is known as
a. Interpretive validity
b. Researcher bias
c. Multiple operationalism
d. Investigator triangulation

149. Which one refers to physical or mental changes that may occur within individuals over time, such as aging, learning, boredom, hunger, and fatigue?
a. Instrumentation
b. History
c. Maturation
d. Testing

150. What type of validity refers to the extent to which the results of a study can be generalized across time?
a. Ecological validity
b. External validity
c. Internal validity
d. Temporal validity

51. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable?
a. Age
b. Annual Income
c. Grade Point Average
d. Religion

52. In research, something that does not “vary” is called a ___________.
a. Variable
b. Method
c. Constant
d. control group

53. The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following research methods?
a. Experimental
b. Causal-comparative
c. Correlational
d. Ethnography

54. good qualitative problem statement:
a. Defines the independent and dependent variables
b. Conveys a sense of emerging design
c. Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested
d. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find

55. Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data collection is not recommended by grounded theorists.
a. True
b. False

56. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research plan?
a. Introduction
b. Method
c. Data analysis
d. Discussion

57. The statement of purpose in a research study should:
a. Identify the design of the study
b. Identify the intent or objective of the study
c. Specify the type of people to be used in the study
d. Describe the study

58. A qualitative research question:
a. Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be explored
b. Is generally an open-ended question
c. both a and b are correct
d. None of the above

59. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the flowchart of the development of a research idea?
a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
b. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question, hypothesis
c. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, hypothesis
d. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research purpose

60. One step that is not included in planning a research study is:
a. Identifying a researchable problem
b. A review of current research
c. Statement of the research question
d. Conducting a meta-analysis of the research
e. Developing a research plan

61. Sources of researchable problems can include:
a. Researchers’ own experiences as educators
b. Practical issues that require solutions
c. Theory and past research
d. All of the above

62. Which of the following is a function of theory?
a. Integrating and summarizing current knowledge
b. Making predictions
c. Explaining phenomena
d. All of the above are important functions of theory

63. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to do which of the following?
a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest
b. To identify potential methodological problems in the research area
c. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest
d. All of the above

64. Computer database searches can be done:
a. With a computer with CD-ROM drive
b. At the library
c. Online
d. All of the above

65. What is the primary approach that is used by the IRB to assess the ethical acceptability of a research study?
a. Utilitarianism
b. Deontology
c. Ethical skepticism
d. Comparativeism

66. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:
a. Cost and time required to conduct the study
b. Skills required of the researcher
c. Potential ethical concerns
d. All of the above

67. A formal statement of the research question or “purpose of research study” generally;
a. Is made prior to the literature review
b. Is made after the literature review
c. Will help guide the research process
d. b and c

68. Research hypotheses are ______.
a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature
b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
d. b and c

69. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____.
a. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study
b. Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed
c. Are never used
d. Are always stated after the research study has been completed

70. A research plan _____.
a. Should be detailed
b. Should be given to others for review and comments
c. Sets out the rationale for a research study
d. All of the above

71. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies EXCEPT;
a. The research participants
b. The results of prior studies that address the phenomena of interest
c. The apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research study
d. The planned research procedures

72. The Introduction section of the research plan
a. Gives an overview of prior relevant studies
b. Contains a statement of the purpose of the study
c. Concludes with a statement of the research questions &, for quantitative research, it includes the research hypothesis
d. All of the above

73. Which of the following is necessary in obtaining informed consent?
a. A description of the statistical analyses that will be carried out
b. A description of the purpose of the research
c. A description of the reliability and validity of test instruments
d. A list of publications that the researcher has had in the last ten years

74. Which of the following need(s) to be obtained when doing research with children?
a. Informed consent from the parent or guardian
b. Assent from the child if he or she is capable
c. Informed consent from the child
d. Both a and b

75. Ideally, the research participant’s identity is not known to the researcher. This is called:
a. Anonymity
b. Confidentiality
c. Deception
d. Desensitizing

76. Which of the following is true about the use of deception in research?
a. It should never be used
b. It can be used anytime
c. If there is deception in a study, the participants may need to be debriefed
d. The use of deception must be outweighed by other benefits of the study
e. Both c and d are true

77. Which of the following is not an ethical guideline for conducting research with humans?
a. Getting informed consent of the participant
b. Telling participants they must continue until the study has been completed
c. Keeping participants’ identity anonymous
d. Telling participants they are free to withdraw at any time

78. ________ means that the participant’s identity, although known to the researcher, is not revealed to anyone outside of the researcher and his or her staff.
a. Anonymity
b. Confidentiality

79. Which of the following is not true?
a. Misrepresenting and creating fraudulent data is dishonest
b. Misrepresenting data is very easy to detect
c. Misrepresenting data can be difficult to detect
d. Breaking confidentiality is not a problem

80. What is it called when the participants are not revealed to any one but researcher and staff?
a. Confidentiality
b. Anonymity
c. Ethics
d. Discretion

81. Research participants must give what before they can participate in a study?
a. Guidelines
b. A commitment
c. Informed consent
d. Private information

82. Identify the term that refers to a post study interview in which all aspects of the study are revealed, reasons for the use of deception are given, and the participants’ questions are answered?
a. Desensitizing
b. Debriefing
c. Dehoaxing
d. Deploying

83. A set of principles to guide and assist researchers in deciding which goals are most important and in reconciling conflicting values when conducting research is called ____.
a. Research ethics
b. Deontological approach
c. Utilitarianism
d. None of the above

84. IRB is an acronym for which of the following?
a. Internal Review Board
b. Institutional Rating Board
c. Institutional Review Board
d. Internal Request Board

85. The act of publishing the same data and results in more than one journal or publication refers to which of the following professional issues:
a. Partial publication
b. Duplicate publication
c. Deception
d. Full publication

86. Which term refers to publishing several articles from the data collected in one large study?
a. Duplicate publication
b. Partial publication
c. Triplicate publication
d. None of these

87. Which of the following is a right of each participant in research?
a. Deception
b. Utilitarianism
c. Freedom to withdraw
d. Participants have no rights

88. The use of statistics to make assumptions concerning some unknown aspect of a population from a sample of that population is known as follow;
a. Inferential Statistics
b. Parameter
c. Descriptive Statistics
d. Sampling

89. Which of the following is not an assumption underlying testing and measurement?
a. Various approaches to measuring aspects of the same thing can be useful
b. Error is rarely present in the measurement process
c. Present-day behavior predicts future behavior
d. Testing and assessment benefit society

90. Systematic error is associated with:
a. Reliability
b. Validity

91. Which of the following generally cannot be done in qualitative studies conducted in the field?
a. Getting informed consent
b. Keeping participants from physical harm
c. Maintaining consent forms
d. Having full anonymity rather than just confidentiality

92. Which of the following is a type of criterion–related validity evidence?
a. Concurrent evidence
b. Predictive evidence
c. Internal consistency
d. Both a and b are correct answers

93. The actual population of study participants selected from a larger population is known as:
a. Target population
b. Accessible population
c. Population
d. Cluster

94. Sampling criteria may be used by Nurse to develop the desired sample. Characteristics those must be present for a subject to be included in the sample is called:
a. Inclusion criteria
b. Exclusion criteria
c. Representativeness
d. Consent

95. Selection of sample in this study is an important step in doing research. A good sample is:
a. One that includes both male and female nurses
b. One that shows a balance in the number of nurses from hospital and school
c. One that is representative of the population from which it was selected
d. One that can be manipulated and controlled

96. A study in which we see the nurse’s level of education is classified in which level of measurement?
a. Nominal-scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval scale
d. Ratio-scale

97. Which one of the following supports “reasoning moves from general to specific situation or conclusion”?
a. Scientific reasoning
b. Deductive reasoning
c. Inductive reasoning
d. None of the above

98. Which one of the following is a type of nonparametric test?
a. t-test
b. Chi-squire
c. z-test
d. f-test

99. Which one of the following is consists of rules for assigning numbers to objects to represent quantities of attributes?
a. Reliability
b. Measurement
c. Measurement error
d. Validity

100. Following are the elements of research critique EXCEPT ONE;
a. Methodological dimensions
b. Practical dimensions
c. Ethical dimensions
d. Interpretive dimensions

1. In terms of reasoning, which of the following research is dialectic & inductive?
a. Outcome research
b. Qualitative research
c. Quantitative research
d. None of the above

2. Which of the following research utilizes statistics to make generalization?
a. Outcome research
b. Qualitative research
c. Quantitative research
d. a and b only

3. Following are the elements of qualitative research except one;
a. Reductionist
b. Holistic
c. Subjective
d. Develop theory

4. The major reason for conducting research is to:
a. Provide nursing care to the clients
b. Promote the growth of nursing profession
c. Document the cost-effectiveness of care
d. Ensure accountability for nursing practice

5. Research Does Not means to;
a. Search again
b. Examine carefully
c. Create problem
d. Method of problem solving

6. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a nursing research?
a. Development of theories, principles, and generalizations
b. Uses chaotic method of problem-solving
c. Requires full skill of writing report
d. Involves precise observation and accurate description

7. Which of the following type of research also called as a feasibility study or pilot Study?
a. Descriptive
b. Exploratory
c. Correlational
d. Explanatory

8. Which of the following is Not a part of research

a. Diligent study
b. Unsystematic inquiry
c. Refine existing knowledge
d. Validate the knowledge
9. History of nursing research began with Florence Nightingale in;
a. 1858
b. 1850
c. 1852
d. 1855

10. In 1859, Florence initial research activities which looked at the importance of leading environment in;
a. Promoting physical well being
b. Promoting social well being
c. Promoting physical and mental well being
d. All of the above

11. Nursing research priorities are ;
a. To improve nursing as profession
b. To improve patient’s illness
c. To improve patients’ outcome
d. To improve nursing practice

12. First nursing journal “ American Journal of nursing” published in;
a. 1950
b. 1960
c. 1900
d. 1920

13. American Nurses Association (ANA) initiated 5 years study of nursing functions & activities in;
a. 1950
b. 1960
c. 1900
d. 1920

14. Which of the following is Not a type of Qualitative research in nursing?
a. Phenomenological research
b. Grounded theory
c. Cross sectional research
d. Historical research

15. Which of the following is Not type of Quantitative research nursing?
a. Ethnography research
b. Descriptive research
c. Quasi experimental
d. Experimental research

16. Which of the following is focused to examine the end results of care or finding the changes in
Patient’s health status?
a. Experimental research
b. Outcome research
c. Quasi experimental research
d. Cross sectional research

17. What is the basis of the Scientific Method?
a. To test hypotheses in conditions that are conducive to its success
b. To formulate a research problem and disprove the hypothesis
c. To formulate a research problem, test the hypothesis in carefully controlled conditions that challenge the hypothesis.
d. To test hypotheses and if they are disproved, they should be abandoned completely

18. Mrs. S.K is writing her daily observations of a student and writes, without interpretation, that the student is not completing the class work and is constantly speaking out of turn. Which of the following objectives does she appear to be using?
a. Prediction
b. Description
c. Explanation
d. Exploration

19. The development of a solid foundation of reliable knowledge typically is built from which type of research?
a. Basic Research
b. Action Research
c. Evaluation Research
d. Orientation Research

20. Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of premises?
a. Rationalism
b. Deductive Reasoning
c. Inductive Reasoning
d. Probabilistic

21. Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the “same variables but different people” is which of the following?
a. Exploration
b. Hypothesis
c. Replication
d. Empiricism

22. What are the five key objectives of science?
a. prediction, summary, conclusion, explanation, description
b. influence, prediction, questions, exploration, answers
c. exploration, description, explanation, prediction, influence
d. questions, answers, prediction, explanation, summary

23. ________________ is the idea that knowledge comes from experience.
a. Rationalism
b. Deductive Reasoning
c. Logic
d. Empiricism

24. In which of the following study Children deliberately infected with hepatitis?
a. Jewish C.D Hospital Study
b. Nazi medical experience.
c. Tuskegee Syphilis study
d. Willow brook Study

25. Research never occurred, but data reported is an example of?
a. Anonymity
b. Confidentiality
c. Scientific misconduct
d. Deception

26. Which of the following is NOT source of research problem?
a. Experience
b. Theories
c. Poor knowledge
d. Social issues

27. To obtain the desired data in a study, which of the following types of definition is most essential?
a. Theoretical
b. Conceptual
c. Operational
d. Dictionary

28. A researcher designs an experiment to test how variables interact to influence how well children learn spelling words. In this case, the main purpose of the study was:
a. Explanation
b. Description
c. Influence
d. Prediction

29. Which of the following is/are the characteristic of a good theory or explanation?
a. It is parsimonious
b. It is testable
c. It is general enough to apply to more than one place, situation, or person
d. All of the above

30. Which “scientific method” follows these steps: 1) observation/data, 2) patterns, 3) theory?
a. Inductive
b. Deductive
c. retrospective
d. Top down

31. Which scientific method is a top-down or confirmatory approach?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method

32. Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method

33. Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method

34. Which scientific method often focuses on generating new hypotheses and theories?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method

35. Which of the following statements is true of a theory?
a. it most simply means “explanation”
b. it answers the “how” and “why” questions
c. it can be a well-developed explanatory system
d. all of the above

36. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of cause-and-effect relationships?
a. Nonexperimental Research b. Experimental Research

37. Which research paradigm is least concerned about generalizing its findings?
a. Quantitative Research
b. Qualitative Research
c. Mixed Research
d. None of The Above

38. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
a. the collection of non-numerical data
b. an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c. research that is exploratory
d. research that attempts to generate a new theory

39. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called ___.
a. A Constant
b. A Variable
c. A Cause-and-Effect Relationship
d. A Descriptive Relationship

40. The outcome that investigator is interested in understanding explaining, or predicting is described as:
a. Situational variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Independent variable
d. Extraneous variable

41. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):
a. categorical variable
b. dependent variable
c. independent variable
d. intervening variable

42. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:
a. It relies primarily on the collection of numerical data
b. It can produce important knowledge about cause and effect
c. It uses the deductive scientific method
d. It rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment

43. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics except:
a. It is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest
b. It relies on the collection of non-numerical data such as words and pictures
c. It is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in the world
d. It uses the inductive scientific method

44. The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Perfect
d. They are not correlated

45. It is essential that you evaluate the quality of internet resources because information obtained via the internet ranges from very poor to very good.
a. True
b. False
46. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?
a. Extraneous variables are never present
b. Positive correlation usually exists
c. A negative correlation usually exists
d. Manipulation of the independent variable

47. Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as _____?
a. Experimental Research
b. Historical Research
c. Replication
d. Archival Research

48. ______ research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
a. causal-comparative research
b. experimental research
c. ethnography
d. correlational research

49. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?
a. Age, Temperature, Income, Height
b. Grade Point Average, Anxiety Level, Reading Performance
c. Gender, Religion, Ethnic Group
d. Both a and b

50. Which correlation is the strongest?
a. +.10
b. -.95
c. +.90
d. – 1.00 (Rational “either strongest positive or strongest negative”)