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Health Assessment: Ophthalmology- BCQs

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  1. A 50-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of red, itchy eyes. He denies any history of eye injury, contact lens use, or recent travel. Examination reveals conjunctival hyperemia, chemosis, and mild discharge. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Bacterial conjunctivitis

(B) Viral conjunctivitis

(C) Allergic conjunctivitis

(D) Dry eye syndrome

  1. A 30-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of blurred vision in her right eye. She also reports eye pain, photophobia, and redness. Examination reveals conjunctival hyperemia, corneal clouding, and a 3 mm hypopyon. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Bacterial keratitis

(B) Viral keratitis

(C) Fungal keratitis

(D) Herpes simplex keratitis

  1. A 60-year-old male presents with a 2-year history of progressive vision loss in both eyes. He also reports difficulty seeing in low light and halos around lights. Examination reveals bilateral cataracts. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his vision loss?

(A) Age-related macular degeneration

(B) Diabetic retinopathy

(C) Glaucoma

(D) Cataracts

  1. A 55-year-old male presents with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is well-controlled on oral hypoglycemic agents. Examination reveals bilateral non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following is the most important next step in his care?

(A) Annual eye exams

(B) Laser photocoagulation

(C) Vitrectomy

(D) Systemic corticosteroids

  1. A 40-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of increasing intraocular pressure (IOP) in her right eye. She also reports halos around lights and difficulty seeing in low light. Examination reveals open angles in her anterior chambers and IOP of 30 mmHg in her right eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Primary open-angle glaucoma

(B) Primary angle-closure glaucoma

(C) Secondary glaucoma

(D) Ocular hypertension

Answers:

  1. (B) Viral conjunctivitis
  2. (A) Bacterial keratitis
  3. (D) Cataracts
  4. (A) Annual eye exams
  5. (A) Primary open-angle glaucoma

 

  1. A 55-year-old female presents with a 2-year history of progressive vision loss in her right eye. She also reports difficulty seeing in low light and halos around lights. Examination reveals cataracts in her right eye. What is the most likely cause of her vision loss?

(a) Age-related macular degeneration

(b) Diabetic retinopathy

(c) Glaucoma

(d) Cataracts

  1. A 60-year-old male presents with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is well-controlled on oral hypoglycemic agents. Examination reveals non-proliferative diabetic
  2. in both eyes. What is the most important next step in his care?

(a) Annual eye exams

(b) Laser photocoagulation

(c) Vitrectomy

(d) Systemic corticosteroids

  1. A 45-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of increasing intraocular pressure (IOP) in her left eye. She also reports halos around lights and difficulty seeing in low light. Examination reveals closed angles in her anterior chambers and IOP of 32 mmHg in her left eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Primary open-angle glaucoma

(b) Primary angle-closure glaucoma

(c) Secondary glaucoma

(d) Ocular hypertension

  1. A 30-year-old male presents with a 2-day history of blurred vision in his left eye. He also reports eye pain, photophobia, and redness. Examination reveals conjunctival hyperemia, corneal clouding, and a 2 mm hypopyon. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Bacterial keratitis

(b) Viral keratitis

(c) Fungal keratitis

(d) Herpes simplex keratitis

  1. A 50-year-old male presents with a 1-week history of red, itchy eyes. He denies any history of eye injury, contact lens use, or recent travel. Examination reveals bilateral conjunctival hyperemia, chemosis, and mild discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Bacterial conjunctivitis

(b) Viral conjunctivitis

(c) Allergic conjunctivitis

(d) Dry eye syndrome

Answers:

  1. (d) Cataracts
  2. (a) Annual eye exams
  3. (b) Primary angle-closure glaucoma
  4. (a) Bacterial keratitis
  5. (c) Allergic conjunctivitis

 

  1. Which of the following is the most common cause of vision loss in patients with diabetes?
    A. Cataract
    B. Diabetic retinopathy
    C. Glaucoma
    D. Macular edema

2. A 45-year-old patient presents with acute onset of severe eye pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
B. Corneal abrasion
C. Ocular migraine
D. Retinal detachment

3. What is the first-line treatment for a bacterial corneal ulcer?
A. Topical corticosteroids
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Topical antibiotics
D. Antiviral therapy

4. A 60-year-old patient with cataracts undergoes phacoemulsification. Which intraocular lens (IOL) type would provide the patient with the best near and distance vision without the use of glasses?
A. Monofocal IOL
B. Toric IOL
C. Multifocal IOL
D. Phakic IOL

5. What is the most common cause of irreversible blindness worldwide?
A. Cataract
B. Glaucoma
C. Age-related macular degeneration
D. Diabetic retinopathy

6. Which of the following clinical features is most indicative of a retinal detachment?
A. Painful red eye
B. Sudden onset of floaters and/or flashes
C. Gradual peripheral visual field loss
D. Central vision loss

7. What is the characteristic fundus finding in age-related macular degeneration (AMD)?
A. Optic disc pallor
B. Drusen deposits
C. Flame hemorrhages
D. Cotton wool spots

Health Assessment MCQs/BCQs

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What is the primary purpose of a comprehensive health assessment?
A. To diagnose acute health problems
B. To create a baseline of health data
C. To prescribe medication
D. To perform a surgical evaluation

Which vital sign is typically assessed first during a physical examination?
A. Blood pressure
B. Temperature
C. Heart rate
D. Respiratory rate

When conducting a health assessment, which of the following is the most important aspect to consider?
A. The patient’s insurance coverage
B. The patient’s self-reported symptoms
C. The patient’s previous medical history
D. The patient’s ability to pay for treatment

A comprehensive health assessment usually includes which of the following components?
A. History taking and physical examination
B. Ordering and interpreting laboratory tests
C. Making a diagnosis
D. All of the above

Which assessment technique would a healthcare provider use to evaluate the presence of fluid in the lungs?
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Percussion
D. Inspection

The mnemonic “PQRST” is used during the assessment of:
A. A headache
B. Pain
C. A seizure
D. Diabetes management

What does the “S” in the SOAP note stand for?
A. Subjective
B. Symptomatic
C. Synopsis
D. Systematic

During an abdominal assessment, the proper sequence of techniques is:
A. Inspection, auscultation, palpation, percussion
B. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
C. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection

Which of the following is not a normal age-related change?
A. Increased blood pressure
B. Decreased maximal heart rate
C. Increased lung capacity
D. Thinning of the skin

Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated by:
A. Dividing weight in kilograms by height in meters squared
B. Dividing weight in pounds by height in inches squared and multiplying by 703
C. Dividing height in meters by weight in kilograms squared
D. Both A and B

Answers:

B. To create a baseline of health data
C. Heart rate
B. The patient’s self-reported symptoms
D. All of the above
B. Auscultation
B. Pain
A. Subjective
A. Inspection, auscultation, palpation, percussion
C. Increased lung capacity
D. Both A and B

Health Assessment MCQs/BCQs

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1. Which of the following is a finding of a normal physical examination?
(A) A heart rate of 120 beats per minute (B) A respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute (C) A temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit (D) A blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg
2. What is the most common symptom of a heart attack?
(A) Chest pain (B) Shortness of breath (C) Nausea and vomiting (D) Lightheadedness
3. Which of the following is a risk factor for stroke?
(A) High blood pressure (B) High cholesterol (C) Diabetes (D) All of the above
4. What is the best way to prevent the spread of the common cold?
(A) Wash your hands frequently (B) Avoid close contact with sick people (C) Get vaccinated against the flu (D) All of the above
5. What is the recommended daily intake of fruits and vegetables for adults?
(A) 2 servings (B) 4 servings (C) 5 servings (D) 6 servings
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (C)
1. Which of the following is a sign of esophageal obstruction?
(A) Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) (B) Regurgitation (C) Chest pain (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common cause of acute gastritis?
(A) Infection with Helicobacter pylori (B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (C) Alcohol abuse (D) All of the above
3. Which of the following is a sign of peptic ulcer disease?
(A) Epigastric pain (B) Heartburn (C) Melena (black, tarry stools) (D) All of the above
4. What is the first-line treatment for irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?
(A) Dietary modifications (B) Antispasmodic medications (C) Antidepressants (D) All of the above
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for colon cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) Family history of colon cancer (C) Ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s disease (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (D)
1. Which of the following is a risk factor for coronary artery disease?
(A) High blood pressure (B) High cholesterol (C) Diabetes (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common symptom of a heart attack?
(A) Chest pain (B) Shortness of breath (C) Nausea and vomiting (D) All of the above
3. What is the purpose of an electrocardiogram (EKG)?
(A) To measure the heart rate and rhythm (B) To detect damage to the heart muscle (C) To diagnose heart attacks and other heart conditions (D) All of the above
4. What is the treatment for heart failure?
(A) Medications to improve heart function (B) Lifestyle changes, such as diet and exercise (C) Surgery, such as a heart transplant (D) All of the above
5. What is the best way to prevent stroke?
(A) Control blood pressure (B) Manage cholesterol (C) Treat diabetes (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (D)
6. A patient presents with chest pain that worsens with exertion and is relieved by rest. This is most consistent with:
(A) Angina pectoris (B) Myocardial infarction (C) Pericarditis (D) Heart failure
7. A patient has a heart murmur on auscultation. Which of the following is the most common cause of heart murmurs in adults?
(A) Mitral valve regurgitation (B) Aortic stenosis (C) Pulmonary stenosis (D) Tricuspid valve regurgitation
8. A patient has a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg. This is classified as:
(A) Stage 1 hypertension (B) Stage 2 hypertension (C) Severe hypertension (D) Hypertensive crisis
9. A patient has a history of atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of warfarin?
(A) Bleeding (B) Thrombosis (C) Elevated liver enzymes (D) All of the above
10. A patient is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. What is the main purpose of CABG surgery?
(A) To bypass blocked coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart muscle (B) To repair or replace damaged heart valves (C) To remove plaque from the coronary arteries (D) To implant a pacemaker or defibrillator
Answers:
6. (A)
7. (A)
8. (A)
9. (D)
10. (A)

1. Which of the following is a sign of meningitis?
(A) Severe headache (B) Stiff neck (C) Fever (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common type of stroke?
(A) Ischemic stroke (B) Hemorrhagic stroke (C) Transient ischemic attack (TIA) (D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
3. Which of the following is a symptom of Parkinson’s disease?
(A) Tremor at rest (B) Rigidity (C) Slowness of movement (D) All of the above
4. What is the most common cause of Alzheimer’s disease?
(A) Deposition of amyloid plaques and tau tangles in the brain (B) Vascular dementia (C) Lewy body dementia (D) Frontotemporal dementia
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for epilepsy?
(A) Head injury (B) Family history of epilepsy (C) Stroke (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (A)
5. (D)
6. A patient presents with weakness and numbness in the right arm and leg. This is most consistent with:
(A) Stroke (B) Multiple sclerosis (C) Myasthenia gravis (D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
7. A patient has difficulty speaking and understanding speech. This is most consistent with:
(A) Aphasia (B) Dysarthria (C) Apraxia of speech (D) All of the above
8. A patient has a headache that worsens with activity and is relieved by rest. This is most consistent with:
(A) Migraine headache (B) Tension headache (C) Cluster headache (D) None of the above
9. A patient presents with a seizure. What is the first-line treatment for seizures?
(A) Lorazepam (Ativan) (B) Levetiracetam (Keppra) (C) Valproic acid (Depakote) (D) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
10. A patient is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG). What is the purpose of an EEG?
(A) To measure the electrical activity of the brain (B) To diagnose seizures and other brain disorders (C) To monitor the effectiveness of anticonvulsant medications (D) All of the above
Answers:
6. (A)
7. (D)
8. (A)
9. (A)
10. (D)

1. Which of the following is a symptom of amenorrhea?
(A) Absence of menstruation (B) Heavy menstrual bleeding (C) Painful menstrual cramps (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common cause of infertility in women?
(A) Ovulation disorders (C) Tubal factor infertility (D) Endometriosis
3. Which of the following is a symptom of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
(A) Lower abdominal pain (B) Pelvic tenderness (C) Vaginal discharge (D) All of the above
4. What is the first-line treatment for chlamydia?
(A) Azithromycin (Zithromax) (B) Doxycycline (Monodox) (C) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) (D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for breast cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) Family history of breast cancer (C) Dense breasts (D) All of the above
6. What is the most common type of cervical cancer?
(A) Squamous cell carcinoma (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Adenosquamous carcinoma (D) None of the above
7. Which of the following is a symptom of testicular cancer?
(A) Painless lump in the testicle (B) Enlargement of the testicle (C) Change in the consistency of the testicle (D) All of the above
8. What is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction (ED)?
(A) Vascular disease (B) Neurological disease (C) Hormonal imbalance (D) All of the above
9. Which of the following is a risk factor for prostate cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) African American race (C) Family history of prostate cancer (D) All of the above
10. What is the first-line treatment for early-stage prostate cancer?
(A) Radical prostatectomy (B) Radiation therapy (C) Androgen deprivation therapy (D) Active surveillance
Answers:
1. (A)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (A)
5. (D)
6. (A)
7. (D)
8. (D)
9. (D)
10. (D)
1. Which of the following is a risk factor for testicular cancer?
(A) Cryptorchidism (undescended testicle) (B) Family history of testicular cancer (C) Klinefelter syndrome (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction (ED)?
(A) Vascular disease (B) Neurological disease (C) Hormonal imbalance (D) All of the above
3. Which of the following is a symptom of prostate cancer?
(A) Painful urination (B) Frequent urination (C) Difficulty urinating (D) All of the above
4. What is the first-line treatment for early-stage prostate cancer?
(A) Radical prostatectomy (B) Radiation therapy (C) Androgen deprivation therapy (D) Active surveillance
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for male infertility?
(A) Varicocele (enlarged veins in the scrotum) (B) Testosterone deficiency (C) Obstruction of the vas deferens (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (D)
1. Which of the following is a risk factor for breast cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) Family history of breast cancer (C) Dense breasts (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common type of cervical cancer?
(A) Squamous cell carcinoma (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Adenosquamous carcinoma (D) None of the above
3. Which of the following is a symptom of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
(A) Lower abdominal pain (B) Pelvic tenderness (C) Vaginal discharge (D) All of the above
4. What is the first-line treatment for chlamydia?
(A) Azithromycin (Zithromax) (B) Doxycycline (Monodox) (C) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) (D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for ovarian cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) Family history of ovarian cancer (C) Endometriosis (D) All of the above
6. What is the most common cause of infertility in women?
(A) Ovulation disorders (B) Tubal factor infertility (C) Endometriosis (D) All of the above
7. Which of the following is a symptom of endometriosis?
(A) Painful menstruation (B) Pelvic pain (D) Infertility (D) All of the above
8. What is the first-line treatment for endometriosis?
(A) Oral contraceptive pills (B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists (C) Laparoscopy (D) All of the above
9. Which of the following is a risk factor for premature menopause?
(A) Smoking (B) Autoimmune disorders (C) Chemotherapy or radiation therapy (D) All of the above
10. What is the first-line treatment for premature menopause?
(A) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) (B) Calcium and vitamin D supplements (C) Lifestyle changes, such as diet and exercise (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (A)
5. (D)
6. (D)
7. (D)
8. (D)
9. (D)
10. (D)

Health Assessment MCQs/BCQs 4th Semester

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1.The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is involved in the sensory supply to __________

  1. Abdominal muscles
  2. Face and muscles of mastication
  3. Respiratory muscles
  4. Head and neck muscles

2. While palpating Ms. Asia’s chest, the nurse should detect a 1cm soft, tapping vibration over the midclavicular line at the 5th intercostal space (ICS). This is correctly interpreted as

  1. Heave
  2. Lift
  3. Normal PMI
  4. Thrill

3. While preforming passive Range Of Motion (ROM), your client has a strong painful muscle contraction. Which is this involuntary movement called?

  1. Spasm
  2. Asterixis
  3. Fasciculation
  4. Tremor

4. _________ Is the inability to move the joints after a period of rest:

  1. Stiffness
  2. Swelling
  3. Deformity
  4. Locking

5. The normal breathing sound is:

  1. Monophonic wheeze
  2. Wheeze (rhonchi)
  3. Crackles (crepitation)
  4. Vesicular

6. A connection or point of contact between bones and cartilage is called as:

  1. Muscle
  2. Ligaments
  3. Joint
  4. Tendon

7. The normal chest AP ratio is:

  1. 2.5
  2. 2.6
  3. 1.2
  4. 1.3
  5. 1.4

8. Which one is true about Weber test?

  1. Air conduction is less than bone conduction
  2. Both are nothing
  3. Air conduction is greater than bone conduction
  4. Bone conduction is greater than air conduction

9. To palpate the chest for thrills, nurse should use what part of hand

  1. Ulnar surface
  2. Palm
  3. Back of hands
  4. Finger tips

10. 20/20 vision means:

  1. Ptosis
  2. Normal vision
  3. Myopia
  4. Hyper myopia

11. Amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle over 1 minute:

  1. Preload
  2. Cardiac output
  3. Stroke volume
  4. Afterload

12. Nail base angle should normally measure

  1. 180 Degrees
  2. 100 Degrees
  3. 130 Degrees
  4. 160 Degrees

13. Blue bloater is sign of

  1. Asthma
  2. Bronchitis
  3. Bronchiestasis
  4. Emphysema

14. Lymph nodes are:

  1. Transverse, round or oval shaped structures
  2. Longitudinal, round or oval shaped structures
  3. Round, oval or bean shaped structures
  4. Long, round or oval shaped structures

15. Ability to recognize common objects through the senses:

  1. Aphasia
  2. Apraxia
  3. Graphesthesia
  4. Ataxia

16. _________ is a thin, pearly gray, oval, semi-transparent membrane at the medial end of the outer ear

  1. Tympanic cavity
  2. Semicircular canals
  3. Eustachian tube
  4. Tympanic membrane

17. Moving the ankle to bring the dorsum of the foot forward to the tibia:

  1. Plantar flexion
  2. Supination
  3. Protraction
  4. Dorsiflexion

18. During physical chest assessment nurse found that Mr. Asad has anterior-posterior chest diameter that is approximately same as his lateral diameter of rib cage. Nurse documents this as:

  1. Normal chest diameter
  2. Barrel chest
  3. Pectus excavatum
  4. Pectus carinatum

19. Flat sound normally heard over

  1. Bone
  2. Infant lungs
  3. Adult lungs
  4. Abdomen

20. Hyper Resonance sound normally heard over:

  1. Bone
  2. Abdomen
  3. Adult lungs
  4. Infant lungs

21. The most outer layer of the heart is

  1. Endocardium
  2. Myocardium
  3. Pericardium
  4. Precordium

22. Heel to toe walking is called:

  1. Adjustment
  2. Healthy walking
  3. Standing with feet together
  4. Tandem walking

23. ________ is a palpable vibration transmitted through patent bronchi and lung parenchyma to the chest wall where they can be felt as vibrations:

  1. Tactile fremitus
  2. Periodontal fremitus
  3. Pleura fremitus
  4. Dental fremitus

24. The phase of ventricular contraction in which the ventricles have been filled, then contract to expel the blood into the aorta and pulmonary arteries:

  1. Systole
  2. Diastole
  3. Cardiac output
  4. Stroke volume

25. Joint capable for flexion, extension and opposition

  1. Elbow
  2. Knee
  3. Thumb
  4. Finger

26. Movement of bone towards the midline is

  1. Extension
  2. Abduction
  3. Adduction
  4. Flexion

27. An ability to discern the shapes and details of the things you see:

  1. Visual acuity
  2. Visual field and visual acuity
  3. Accommodation
  4. Visual field

28. Sac containing fluid that are located around the joints to prevent friction is

  1. Capsule
  2. Tendon
  3. Cartilage
  4. Bursa
  5. Joint

29. A normal resting heart rate

  1. 100 to 150
  2. 150 to 200
  3. 60 to 100
  4. 60 to 70

30. A sound produced in part by hemodynamic events immediately following closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves

  1. S4
  2. S2
  3. S3
  4. S1

31. A barrel chest is not an expected finding for

  1. Aging adults
  2. Teenagers
  3. Infants
  4. In old age

32. Which type of test is perform for the Position sense

  1. Rinne test
  2. Allan test
  3. Romberg test
  4. Weber test

33. _________ is the ability to perceive and recognize an object in the absence of visual and auditory information

  1. Hemiparesis
  2. Paresis
  3. Stereognosis
  4. Graphesthesia

34. The grating sound produced be two inflamed surface is refers:

  1. Murmur
  2. Crackles
  3. Pleural friction rub
  4. Wheezes

35. Pink puffer is a sign of

  1. Bronchiectasis
  2. Emphysema
  3. Asthma
  4. Bronchitis

36. The first sound results from the closing of the _______ and _______ valves

  1. Aortic and pulmonary valves
  2. Aortic and tricuspid valves
  3. Mitral and pulmonic valves
  4. Mitral and tricuspid valve

37. The Vagus nerve provides motor supply to the

  1. Facial muscles
  2. Larynx
  3. Pharynx
  4. Sternocleidomastoid

38. Which one is proper grading for reflexes :

  1. 1 to 6
  2. 0 to 2
  3. 1 to 5
  4. 0 to 4

39. The cranial nerve 01 which have sense of smell is called

  1. Olfactory
  2. Optic nerve
  3. Trochlear
  4. Oculomotor

40. An instrument used to look into the ear canal is:

  1. Laryngeal scope
  2. Stethoscope
  3. Otoscope
  4. Ophalmoscope