Anatomy and Physiology MCQs/BCQs

1. Bone and cartilage is a type of:
A. Nervous tissue
B. Muscular tissue
C. Epithelial tissue
D. Endocrine tissue
E. Connective tissue

2. Color of the skin, due to the presence of:
A. Collagen
B. Langerhans cells
C. Melanocytes
D. Merkel cells
E. Keratinocytes

3. Anosmia is loss of sense of
A. vision
B. hearing
C. smell
D. taste

4. The maximum volume air which can be moved into and out of the lungs is known as:
A. Total lung capacity
B. Inspiratory capacity
C. Vital capacity
D. Functional residual capacity

5. Regarding eye, sensory receptors for vision are:
A. Ciliary body
B. Rods and cones
C. Olfactory cells
D. Lens

6. The basic structure and functional unit of nervous system is:
A. Schwann Cells
B. Neurons
C. Astrocytes
D. Microglia

7. All of the following are the functions of oxytocin; except
A. Ejection of milk
B. Parturition
C. Fertilization
D. Formation of milk

8. A student identifying histological section under microscope. The tissue was multilayered. The upper most layer is squamous in shape. What type of epithelium it is?
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Transitional epithelium
C. Stratified squamous epithelium
D. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
E. Pseudostratified epithelium

9. Common iliac artery supplies the:
A. Lower limb
B. Abdomen
C. Thorax
D. Upper limb
E. Head and neck

10. Which of the following bone forms the axial skeleton?
A. Humerus
B. Radius
C. Femur
D. Ulna
E. Sternum

11. Center of micturition reflex is located in:
A. Lumber segment of cord
B. Cerebral cortex
C. Brainstem (pontine micturition center)
D. Sacral segment of spinal cord

A girl moves the upper limb in all directions during exercise, what type of movement she performed?
A. Abduction
B. Circumduction
C. Flexion
D. Adduction
E. Extension

12. Adrenal medulla secretes:
A. Adrenaline and noradrenaline
B. mineralocorticoid
C. Glucocorticoid
D. Androgens

13. Short bones are present in which part of the human body?
A. Palm and sole
B. Leg
C. Upper arm
D. Thigh region
E. Forearm

14. The hormone which promotes tissue growth and regulates metabolisms:
A. Aldosterone
B. Thyroid hormone
C. Prolactin
D. Growth hormone

15. Which of the following chamber of the heart contain the sinoatrial node(SA)?
A. Left atrium
B. Left auricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle
E. Left ventricle

16. The cells form the myelin sheath in the central nervous system are:
A. Ependymal cells
B. Microglial cells
C. Astrocytes
D. Oligodendrocytes
E. Schwann cells

17. Which one of the following hormone is secreted by posterior pituitary gland?
A. Growth hormone
B. Antidiuretic hormone
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone
D. Follicle stimulating hormone

18. The most common synapse in CNS is:
A. Mechanical Synapse
B. Chemical Synapse
C. Gap Junctions
D. Electrical Synapse

19. Central nervous system is made up of:
A. Peripheral nerves
B. None of these
C. Brain and spinal cord
D. Somatic nerves

20. Exchange of gases by diffusion between blood and body cells is known as:
A. Alveolar ventilation
B. Internal respiration
C. Pulmonary ventilation
D. External respiration

21. How much percentage of oxygen is transported inform of oxyhemoglobin?
A. 1.5 %
B. 60 %
C. 98.5 %
D. 40 %

22. Dorsiflexion movement occur at which of the following joint:
A. Ankle joint
B. Shoulder joint
C. Knee joint
D. Elbow joint
E. Wrist joint

23. A body is divided into anterior and posterior half by which of the following imaginary plane
A. Midsagittal plane
B. Coronal plane
C. Right median plane
D. Left median plane
E. Para-median plane

24. Which of the following bones united by the sutures?
A. Sesamoid bones
B. Skull bones
C. Long bones
D. Tarsal bones
E. Carpal bones

25. Renin is secreted by:
A. Juxtaglomerular cells(JG)
B. PCT
C. DCT
D. Vasa recta

26. Main Muscle of quiet inspiration is:
A. Internal Intercostal
B. External Intercostal
C. Diaphragm
D. Abdominals

27. Surfactant is secreted by:
A. Type I Pneumocystis
B. Goblet Cells
C. Type IV Pneumocystis
D. Type II Pneumocystis

28. Shoulder joint is a type of:
A. Cartilaginous joint
B. Syndesmosis
C. Synovial joint
D. Fibrous joint
E. Secondary cartilaginous joint

29. The release of thyroid hormones (T3 andT4) in blood is stimulated by:
A. FSH
B. ACTH
C. TSH
D. LH

30. Skin is lined by:
A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Cuboidal epithelium
C. Transitional epithelium
D. Pseudostratified epithelium
E. Columnar epithelium

31. Pharynx continue with the esophagus at the level of:
A. 2nd thoracic vertebra
B. 6th cervical vertebra
C. 3rd cervical vertebra
D. 2nd cervical vertebra
E. 4th cervical vertebra

32. Somatic, cutaneous senses which originates from the skin are:
A. Chemoreceptors
B. Special senses
C. Pain, touch, cold and heat
D. proprioceptors

33. Heart receives the parasympathetic supply by means of:
A. Cranial nerves
B. Vagus nerve
C. Sympathetic plexus
D. Cervical nerves

34. A student was standing in class with folding both arms which one of the following movement she did performed?
A. Medial rotation at shoulder region
B. Flexion at shoulder region
C. Extension at shoulder region
D. Circumduction at shoulder region
E. Lateral rotation at shoulder region

35. Which of the following part is not included in large intestine?
A. Cecum
B. Descending colon
C. Duodenum
D. Ascending colon
E. Transverse colon

36. System of the body which is NOT necessary for survival is:
A. Central nervous system
B. Cardiovascular system
C. Reproductive system
D. Respiratory system

37. Al are the phases of menstrual cycle except:
A. Luteal phase
B. Secretory phase
C. Menstrual phase
D. Proliferative phase

38. Superior venacava is formed by the union of:
A. Cardiac veins
B. Common iliac veins
C. Brachiocephalic veins
D. Internal jugular veins
E. Azygous veins

 

Answer Key

1 E

2 C

3 C

4 C

5 B

6 B

7 A

8 C

9 A

10 B

11 C

12 A

13 A

14 A

15 D

16 E

17 C

18 B

19 C

20 B

21 C

22 A

23 A

24 B

25 B

26 B

27D

28 C

29 C

30 A

31 C

32 A

33 B

34 B

35 C

36 C

37 A

38 C

 

Paragraph

What is paragraph? What are some important elements for writing a good paragraph?

A paragraph is a series of sentences that are organized and coherent, and are all related to a single topic. Almost every piece of writing you do that is longer than a few sentences should be organized into paragraphs. This is because paragraphs show a reader where the subdivisions of an essay begin and end, and thus help the reader see the organization of the essay and grasp its main points.

Paragraphs can contain many different kinds of information. A paragraph could contain a series of brief examples or a single long illustration of a general point.

Paragraph Structure/Elements

Most paragraphs in an essay have a three-part structure (Elements)—introduction, body, and conclusion. You can see this structure in paragraphs whether they are narrating, describing, comparing, contrasting, or analyzing information. Each part of the paragraph plays an important role in communicating your meaning to your reader.

Introduction: the first section of a paragraph; should include the topic sentence and any other sentences at the beginning of the paragraph that give background information or provide a transition.

Body: follows the introduction; discusses the controlling idea, using facts, arguments, analysis, examples, and other information.

Conclusion: the final section; summarizes the connections between the information discussed in the body of the paragraph and the paragraph’s controlling idea.

English MCQs/BCQs

English- BSN (Generic)

1. Yesterday she sent ______ SMS to me.
A. A
B. All of these
C. An
D. The

2. That day he _________ do as I asked him to do.
A. Does not
B. Did not
C. would not
D. Will not

3. Where is__________ pen, I gave you yesterday?
A. this
B. a
C. the
D. an

4. Are you waiting for him __________the airport?
A. Inside
B. Onto
C. On
D. At

5. An eagle flies faster than any other bird of prey (Identify underlined phrase)
A. Pronoun
B. Interjection
C. Adjective
D. Adverb

6. They are walking ______the North.
A. Since
B. Towards
C. Under
D. On

7. He drove his car very slowly (identify the marked phrase)
A. conjunction/ adjective
B. adverb/ adverb
C. adverb/ adjective
D. adjective/ adverb

8. I have already _____________this movie, you must buy another one.
A. Watch
B. Watches
C. Watched
D. Watching

9. They have been working in Karachi_______16 years.
A. from
B. since
C. up to
D. for

10. The jet sped into the deep blue sky. (Identify underlined phrase)
A. noun
B. preposition
C. adjective
D. conjunction
E. adverb

11. ______Sun rises in ______east.
A. X/An
B. A/An
C. A/The
D. The/The

12. They will be driving______2pm____4pm.
A. from/up to
B. since/x
C. from/to
D. for/x

13. Sana has_________ her book to me to mark important chapters that may help her in her interview.
A. Given
B. Gave
C. Gives
D. Give

14. Last Tuesday it _________raining since morning.
A. had
B. had been
C. has
D. have

15. She did not _______her convocation ceremony.
A. attends
B. attend
C. attended
D. have been tending
E. attending

16. Sobia & Fehmida _______plucked many flowers four garden recently.
A. have been
B. has
C. have
D. are

17. They usually _______English in their offices thus, we don’t face problem in understanding their instructions.
A. speaking
B. spoke
C. speak
D. speaks

18. Mr. Saleem is ____lecturer in our college.
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. x

19. Why were you so angry? (Identify underlined phrase)
A. Adverb
B. Preposition
C. Pronoun
D. Adjective

20. The way he answered me was really so sweet (identify the marked phrase)
A. adjective
B. preposition
C. conjunction
D. adverb

21. You have been doing your lab work___________24 hour
A. till
B. Since
C. for
D. from

22. Last Sunday they _________me several questions before my flight to Dubai.
A. asks
B. ask
C. asked
D. asking

23. Our team has been maintaining the score ____________15 minutes and 37seconds.
A. until
B. from
C. for
D. Since

24. Your friend is really sweet (identify the underline phrase)
A. verb
B. adjective
C. adverb
D. noun

25. Did you ___________attention to the announcement?
A. Paying
B. Pay
C. Pays
D. Had paid

26. Did Ayesha call her brother yesterday? Yes, she__________
A. called
B. did not called
C. call
D. have not been calling

27. He is an intelligent but a lazy boy (identify conjunction)
A. lazy
B. intelligent
C. but
D. an

28. Farhan has gone home _______he had to leave for his job interview in the afternoon.
A. But
B. Asif
C. Because
D. Therefore

29. Ali and Ahsan have been living in Islamabad ______January.
A. from
B. up to
C. since
D. for

30. She is my ___aunty, she is very sweet:
A. the
B. none of these
C. a
D. an

31. Several planets are bigger than the earth. (Identify subject)
A. the earth
B. Several
C. Planets and earth
D. several planets

32. He is _________honest man among all.
A. The
B. A
C. All these
D. An

33. My sibling did not ____________to meet their class fellow.
A. Will go
B. Gone
C. Went
D. Go

34. She answered every question very beautifully. (Identify underlined phrase)
A. interjection
B. preposition
C. Adjective
D. adverb

35. Today Hammad ________helping his brother to complete his task.
A. has
B. is
C. were
D. will

36. Zara decided to-do ______best she could.
A. An
B. A
C. The
D. None of these

37. Next year we ___________admission in Lahore.
A. Will get
B. have got
C. got
D. will got
E. get

38. These days she is trying to _________some different research work.
A. Do
B. Doing
C. Did
D. Done

39. Salman is such a tremendous player; he is ______Shahid Afridi of our team.
A. a
B. none of these
C. an
D. the

Answer Key

  1. C
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. C
  6. B
  7. D
  8. C
  9. D
  10. E
  11. D
  12. C
  13. A
  14. B
  15. B
  16. C
  17. C
  18. A
  19. D
  20. A
  21. C
  22. C
  23. C
  24. B
  25. B
  26. A
  27. C
  28. A
  29. A
  30. D
  31. C
  32. D
  33. D
  34. C
  35. A
  36. C
  37. A
  38. A
  39. A

Community Health Nursing-I MCQs/BCQs

BS Nursing

1. The term _____________ is applied to unwanted or discarded waste matter while refuse means the solid discarded material produced by human habitant except human excreta.
a. Wholesome Water
b. Sewage
c. Waste
d. Garbage
e. Refuse

2. Environment refers to:
a. Environ
b. Organisms
c. Living things
d. Surroundings
e. Objects

3. The abiotic components are classified as:
a. Climatic
b. Water
c. Air
d. Food
e. All of the above

4. Rural Communities are the:
a. Places outside cities
b. Places in Suburbs
c. Places in the cities
d. Places adjacent to the cities
e. Places built with the cities

5. _______________ is a state of poor health:
a. Wellness
b. Illness
c. Wellbeing
d. Disease
e. Ill Health

6 ______________ are places inside of the cities:
a. Urban Communities
b. Rural Communities
c. Mauhalla
d. Suburbs
e. Towns

7. The most polluted form of water is:
a. River water
b. Springs
c. Shower water
d. Surface water
e. Rain water

8. The Health Belief was a psychological model developed by:
a. Julian Anderson
b. Neil Harmor
c. Florence Nightangle
d. Adam Jenner
e. Rosenstock

9. Cultural environment include all except:
a. Society
b. Economy
c. Microbia
d. Economics
e. Politics

10. The term Anthrosphere refers:
a. Flora
b. Natural disasters
c. Man made things
d. Fauna
e. Air

11. Fauna is:
a. Lithosphere
b. Atmosphere
c. Transformers
d. Hydrosphere
e. Biosphere

12. __________________________ on the other hand refers to those interventions that take place in a hospital setting such as intravenous rehydration or surgery
a. Tertiary Health Care
b. Primary Health Care
c. Bedside care
d. Secondary Health Care
e. Primitive Health Care

13. The main objectives of Community Health Nursing are optimum individual, and
a. Secondary Health Care
b. Primitive Health Care
c. National Health
d. Community health.
e. Primary Health

14. __________________refers to contaminants that enter a waterway through a discrete conveyance, such as a pipe.
a. Non Point source Pollution
b. Point source pollution
c. Water pollution
d. Food pollution
e. Sewage pollution

15. Surface water is usually:
a. Hard in nature
b. Neutral in Nature
c. Acidic in Nature
d. Soft in Nature
e. Alkaline in Nature

16. Is the intentional movement of _____________from outside a building to the inside.
a. Air
b. Water
c. Soil
d. Food
e. Pollution

17. Absence of fresh air can cause:
a. Heartburn
b. Diabetese
c. Headache
d. Constipation
e. Iron deficiency Anemia

18. Balanced Diet is best defined as :
a. Diet that satisfies your hunger
b. Diet that contains the optimum requirement of food calories and the nutrients.
c. Diet Rich in Fructose
d. Diet rich in Fats and Carbohydrates.
e. Diet rich in Sugar

19. The example of liquid waste is:
a. Plastics,
b. Styrofoam containers
c. Scrap Iron
d. Bleach
e. Chemicals

20. Dumping is the method of waste refusal in which :
a. In costal towns refuse is carried 15 miles within sea and is dumped there
b. In costal towns refuse is carried 5 miles within sea and is dumped there
c. In costal towns refuse is carried 50 miles within sea and is dumped there
d. In costal towns refuse is carried 25 miles within sea and is dumped there
e. In costal towns refuse is carried 0.5 miles within sea and is dumped there

21. ________________ is a modified sanitary landfill. Here mixed refuse should be placed properly and covered by earth.
a. Composting
b. Incineration
c. Controlled Tipping
d. Slow Sand Filter Bed
e. Rapid Sand Filteration Bed

22. The end product, ________________, contains few or no disease producing organisms, and is a good soil builder containing small amounts of the major plant nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates

a. Compost
b. Sudge
c. Sludge
d. Siners
e. Incliners

23. The heat produced during composting, is _______________ or higher
a. 61OC
b. 62OC
c. 64OC
d. 60OC
e. 630C

24. In Bangalore Method the first layer of refuse is about __________ thick
a. 20 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 16 cm
e. 17 cm

25. Mechanical Composting is also known as :
a. Anaerobic Method
b. Old Method
c. New Method
d. Aerobic method
e. Refined Method

26. One of the disease caused by rodent is:
a. Whooping Cough
b. Plague
c. Tuberculosis
d. Diabetes
e. Angina Pectoris

27. Plague is caused by Bacteria
a. Yersinia Spirochetes
b. Yersinia Meningococal
c. Yersinia Pestis
d. Yersinia Anopheles
e. Yersinia Ameobic

28. Bubo is formed in
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Plague
c. Hypertension
d. Pneumonic plague
e. Bubonic Plague

29. Slaughter house is also known as:
a. Private Abattoir
b. Public Abattoir
c. Public Savege house
d. Public Slaughter House
e. Private Slaughter House

30. Animal infections transmitted to man by meat are called
a. Exogenoses Contamination
b. Exogenous Contamination
c. Endogenoses Contamination
d. False Contamination
e. Zoonoses Contamination

 

Answer key
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. E
6. A
7. A
8. E
9. C
10. C
11. E
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. A
17. C
18. B
19. E
20. B
21. C
22. A
23. D
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. E
29. B
30. E

Community health Nursing-II MCQs/BCQs

BS Nursing

1. Sickness is:
A. A social state, signifying an impaired role for those who are ill.
B. A phenomenon in which one or more natural functions of the body are so disturbed
C. A condition of body or some part or organ of body in which its functions are unbalanced.
D. A state in which the individual has no health problem

2. Following are the functions of Pakistan Nursing Council (PNC) except:
A. PNC works closely with the four provincial Nursing Examination Boards (NEBs)
B. PNC inspects educational institutions for approval based on established standards.
C. PNC provides registration (license) to practice to doctors
D. PNC Maintains standards of education and practice
E. PNC sets the curriculum for the education of Nurses, Midwives, LHVs and Nursing Auxiliaries

3. Which of the following is the social environmental need for normal physical and mental health?
A. All of the above
B. Good nutrition and proper rest
C. Regular exercise and recreations
D. Work in accordance with health conditions

4. International conference (Alma Ata) on primary health care was held form _______ in Alma Ata, USSR:
A. September 6-12, 1979
B. September 6-12, 1978
C. September 6-12, 1977
D. September 6-12, 1976

5. Determinants of community health include:
A. Equitable distribution
B. Environment
C. Rehabilitation
D. Treatment of disorders

6. ___________________ is a geographic area that is located outside towns and cities.
A. Rural area or countryside community
B. Suburban community
C. Urban community
D. Rural and urban community
E. Community

7. ___________________ can be define as a phenomenon in which one or more natural functions of the body are so disturbed.
A. Infection
B. Disease
C. Illness
D. Sickness

8. According to American Nurses Association _____________ is “a synthesis of nursing and public health practice applied to promoting and preserving the health populations”:
A. Community health
B. Community
C. Public health
D. Community health nursing

9. The ____________ is the most popularly used method of waste disposal used today:
A. All of the above
B. Recycling
C. Disposal in ocean/sea
D. Landfill
E. Incineration/combustion

10. Which one of the following is NOT included in the elements of primary health care (PHC):
A. Provision of safe water and basic sanitation
B. Safe food supply and proper nutrition
C. Appropriate treatment of common diseases and injuries
D. Increasing the adaptation of the individual to his environment

11. A group of people living in the same place or having a particular characteristic in common is:
A. City
B. Community
C. Town
D. Society
E. Provence

12. Basic principles of primary health care include:
A. Contributing to method of diagnosis
B. Prevention and control of non-communicable diseases
C. Decentralization of power
D. Reproductive health needs

13. Following are the components of health education except:
A. Environmental health
B. Emotional health
C. Physical health
D. Infirmity
E. Social health

14. International conference (Alma Ata) on primary health care was held at USST capital of:
A. Waziristan
B. Turkistan
C. Afghanistan
D. Kazakhstan

15. Safe food supply and proper nutrition is:
A. Essentials/Elements of primary health care
B. Goal and objective of primary health care
C. Basic requirement of primary health care
D. Basic principle of primary health care

16. __________________ is barrier to community/ public participation
A. Lack of education or information
B. Poverty/socioeconomic status
C. Cultural minorities
D. Negligence from government

17. A basic health unit (BHU) is for the population of:
A. 4000-11000
B. 3000-4000
C. 5000-10000
D. 15000- 20000

18. Education that promotes an understanding of how to maintain personal health is:
A. Health education
B. Education
C. Learning
D. Community health education
E. Teaching

19. Which of the one the following is characteristics of community health nursing?
A. Increase the average life expectancy
B. Emphasizes wellness rather than illness
C. Decreasing the morbidity rate
D. Providing total health care to improve quality of life

20. An average person must sleep for ____________ hours during night:
A. 4 to 8
B. 6 to 8
C. 7 to 8
D. 5 to 8

21. PHC based on the following principles except:
A. Nation-wide coverage
B. Inter-sectoral coordination
C. Self-reliance
D. Social equity
E. Self-actualization

22. Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?
A. To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children
B. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the promotion of health and prevention of illness
C. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services that will increase their level of health
D. To enhance the capacity of individuals, Families and communities to cope with their health needs.

23. Which one of the following is subjective component of wellness?
A. Level of provision of recreational; services
B. Individuals own evaluation of standard of life
C. Level of provision of health services
D. Occupation and employment status

24. Supervises the work of health assistants in district is responsibility of:
A. District health nurse
B. Executive district health officer
C. District health inspector
D. District health officer

25. ______________________ can be defined as a phenomenon in which one or more natural functions of the body are so disturbed.
A. Infection
B. Disease
C. Illness
D. Sickness

26. The Pakistan Nursing Council (PNC) is a regulatory body established in:
A. 1947
B. 1950
C. 1951
D. 1949
E. 1948

27. Devolution of power in health departments:
A. Improve the quantity and quality of health care delivery to the people close to their door step
B. Reproductive health
C. Food sanitation
D. Prevent and control communicable diseases
E. Occupational health

28. Chloramines in the water, like dichloramine and trichloramine, irritate and causes all except one:
A. Heart problem
B. Eye problems
C. Nose problems
D. Skin problems
E. Ear problems

Answer KEY
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. D
10. D
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. A
16. A
17. D
18. A
19. D
20. B
21. E
22. D
23. B
24. D
25. C
26. F
27. A
28. E

Islamiat MCQs/BCQs

Islamiat |1stYear| 2nd Semester| BSN (Generic)

  1. The conquest of Makkah was held in year:
    A) 6 hijra
    B) 9 hijra
    C) 7 hijra
    D) 8 hijra
    E) 10 hijra
  2. The name of grandfather of the Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H):

Abdul Mutalib

3. The Qureshi were used profession of
A) Farming
B) Teaching
C) Trading
D) Hunting
E) Fishing

4. When Prophet Muhammad(PBUH) left his followers physically the Muslims take an oath on the hand of:
A) Hazrat Ali R.A
B) Hazrat Abu Bakar R.A
C) Hazrat Usman R.A
D) Hazrat Talha R.A
E) Hazrat Umar R.A

5. The batle of Khyber was fought in hijrah:
A) 9th
B) 7th
C) 5th
D) 8th
E) 6th

6. The First Battle was fought between Muslim of Madina Quraish of Makkah was:
A) Khyber
B) Muta
C) Khandak
D) Uhad
E) Badar

7. In the battle of Baddr the leader of Quraysh was :
A) Aamir Al Hazar
B) Utbabin Rabia
C) Abu Sufyan
D) Abu Jihil
E) Umar bin abdwud

8. The name of the 1st wife of the Prophet (P.B.U.H):
A) Bibi Ume-e-Salma R.A
B) Bibi Ayesha R.A
C) Bibi Hafsa R.A
D) Bibi Khadija R.A
E) Bibi Safia R.A

9. Hazrat Ali R.A belong to:
A) Bano Quraiza
B) Bano Nazir
C) Bano Hashim
D) Bano Abbas
E) Bano Ummya

10. The Name of The Prophet whom the people had took into the fire was:
A) Hazra Essa A.S
B) Hazrat Zakarya A.S
C) Hazrat Ibrahim A.S
D) Hazrat Mussa A.S
E) Hazrat Daud A.S

11. The number of Khulafa-e-Rashdin are:
A) Two
B) Five
C) Three
D) Four
E) Six

12. The prophet (P.B.U.H) go this 1st marriage at the age of:
A) 25 years
B) 35 years
C) 30 years
D) 20 years
E) 40 years

13. In Battle of Uhud the number of Muslim Army was:
A) 600
B) 900
C) 700
D) 1000
E) 800

14. Abu Jahl Was Killed In battle of:
A) Khandak
B) Badar
C) Khyber
D) Hunain
E) Uhad

15. In The Islamic History the 1st time“Azan”call for prayer was given by:
A) Hazrat Usman
B) Hazrat Ali
C) Hazrat Umar
D) Hazrat Bilal
E) Hazrat Zubair

16. The work of taken out soul from the human body is done by the angel:
A) Hazrat Izraeel A.S
B) None of these
C) Hazrat Meekail A.S
D) Hazrat Israfeel A.S
E) Hazrat Jibraeel A.S

17. When the Holy Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) left for Madinah from Makkah, he stays on his bed:
A) Hazrat Usman R.A
B) Hazrat Ali R.A
C) Hazrat AbuBakar R.A
D) Hazrat Umar R.A
E) Hazrat Hassan R.A

18. Khana Kabah was built by:
A) Hazrat Moosa A.S
B) Hazrat Mutalib
C) Hazrat AbuTalib
D) Hazrat Daud A.S
E) Hazrat Ibrahim A.S

19. The Name of the1st daughter of the Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H):
A) Bibi Ruquia R.A
B) Bibi Sakeena R.A
C) Bibi Zainab R.A
D) Bibi Ume Kulsoom R.A
E) Bibi Fatima R.A

20. The Holy book “Quran” was revealed on the prophet:
A) Hazrat Muhammad (PBUH)
B) Hazrat Zakria A.S
C) Hazrat Daud A.S
D) Hazrat Essa A.S
E) Hazrat Mussa A.S

21. The pact of Messak-e-Madina was held in:
A) 1st Hijrah
B) 4th Hijrah
C) 2nd Hijrah
D) 3rd Hijrah
E) 5th Hijrah

22. The Heart of Holy Quran is:
A) Suray Taha
B) Surah Al Ahzab
C) Surah Furqan
D) Surah Yaseen
E) Surah Rehman

23. The total no. of the Holy verses of the “Quran” are:
A) 113
B) 116
C) 114
D) 117
E) 115

24. The saying of the Holy Prophet Muhammad(PBUH)is known as:
A) Sahifa
B) Fiqah
C) Quran
D) None of these
E) Hadees

25. The sacred building of Islam is situated in the center of Makkah is known as:
A) Arafat
B) Kabah
C) Meekat
D) Riazul Janat
E) Janatul Baqi

26. The Prophet (P.B.U.H) tookhis1st travel with his mother in the age of:
A) 8 years
B) 9 years
C) 7 years
D) 6 years
E) 5 years

27. The last pillar of Islam is:
A) Nimaz
B) Fasting
C) Zakat
D) Haj
E) Kalma Tayaba

28. The Number of Devine books are:
A) Three
B) One
C) Two
D) Five
E) Four

29. The wife of Holy Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) Bibi Ayesha R.A was the daughter of:
A) Hazrat Umar R.A
B) Hazrat Zaid R.A
C) Hazrat Abu Bakar R.A
D) Hazrat Usman R.A
E) Hazrat Zubair R.A

30. The longest surah of the Holy Quran is:
A) Surah Alaq
B) Surah Al Hijrat
C) Surah Yaseen
D) Surah Rehman
E) Surah Baqarah

31. The revelation of the holy Quran was through the angle:
A) Meekaile A.S
B) Izraiel A.S
C) Israfeel A.S
D) Jibraiel A.S
E) None of these

32. The fasting has been done in the month of:
A) Safar
B) Shouban
C) Rajab
D) Moharam
E) Ramzan

33. When Bibi Khadija Got The marriage with the Prophet (P.B.U.H) her age was:
A) 25 years
B) 40 years
C) 30 years
D) 45 years
E) 35 years

34. Due to the social boycott of Quraish of Makkah the family of Hazrat Abu Talif has stay in the valley “Shoaib Abi Talib” almost:
A) Four year
B) One year
C) Three year
D) Five year
E) Two year

35. The Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H) delivered his last sermon at the place of:
A) Taif
B) Uhad
C) Arafat
D) Hudabia
E) Safa Marvah

36. Batle of Uhad was fought in the year of :
A) 5 hijri
B) 6 hijri
C) 4 hijri
D) 3 hijri
E) 2 hijri

37. The Prophet (P.B.U.H) belongs to the linage of:
A) Hazrat Daud (A.S)
B) Hazrat Noonh (A.S)
C) Hazrat Ibrahim (A.S)
D) Hazra tMussa (A.S)
E) Hazrat Idrees (A.S)

38. 1st Soorah of the Holy Quran:
A) Surah Alaq
B) Surah Fateh
C) Surah Ikhlas
D) Surah Naas
E) Surah Falaq

39. The Prophet (P.B.U.H) had preached Islam hiddenly almost :
A) 2 year
B) 5 year
C) 1 year
D) 3 year
E) 4 year

40. Bait-e-Uqba Oola has been in the year of Nabvi:
A) 13
B) 14
C) 11
D) 12
E) 10

Answer key:

1. D
2. Abdul Mutalib
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. D
8. D
9. D
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. E
19. C
20. A
21. A
22. D
23. A
24. E
25. B
26. E
27. D
28. E
29. C
30. E
31. D
32. E
33. B
34. C
35. C
36. D
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. E

Measures of Dispersion

This term is used commonly to mean scatter, Deviation, Fluctuation, Spread or variability of data. The degree to which the individual values of the variate scatter away from the average or the central value, is called a dispersion. Types of Measures of Dispersions:
  • Absolute Measures of Dispersion: The measures of dispersion which are expressed in terms of original units of a data are termed as Absolute Measures.
  • Relative Measures of Dispersion: Relative measures of dispersion, are also known as coefficients of dispersion, are obtained as ratios or percentages. These are pure numbers independent of the units of measurement and used to compare two or more sets of data values.
http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur3.gif Absolute Measures
  • Range
  • Quartile Deviation
  • Mean Deviation
  • Standard Deviation
Relative Measure
  • Co-efficient of Range
  • Co-efficient of Quartile Deviation
  • Co-efficient of mean Deviation
  • Co-efficient of Variation.
The Range: 1.      The range is the simplest measure of dispersion.  It is defined as the difference between the largest value and the smallest value in the data: http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur4.gif 2. For grouped data, the range is defined as the difference between the upper class boundary (UCB) of the highest class and the lower class boundary (LCB) of the lowest class. MERITS OF RANGE:-
  • Easiest to calculate and simplest to understand.
  • Gives a quick answer.
DEMERITS OF RANGE:-
  • It gives a rough answer.
  • It is not based on all observations.
  • It changes from one sample to the next in a population.
  • It can’t be calculated in open-end distributions.
  • It is affected by sampling fluctuations.
  • It gives no indication how the values within the two extremes are distributed
Quartile Deviation (QD): 1.      It is also known as the Semi-Interquartile Range.  The range is a poor measure of dispersion where extremely large values are present.  The quartile deviation is defined half of the difference between the third and the first quartiles: QD = Q3 – Q1/2 Inter-Quartile Range The difference between third and first quartiles is called the ‘Inter-Quartile Range’. IQR = Q3 – Q1 Mean Deviation (MD): 1.      The MD is defined as the average of the deviations of the values from an average: http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur6.gif It is also known as Mean Absolute Deviation. 2.      MD from median is expressed as follows: http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur7.gif 3.      for grouped data: http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur8.gif http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur9.gif Mean Deviation:
  1. The MD is simple to understand and to interpret.
  2. It is affected by the value of every observation.
  3. It is less affected by absolute deviations than the standard deviation.
  4. It is not suited to further mathematical treatment.  It is, therefore, not as logical as convenient measure of dispersion as the SD.
The Variance:
  • Mean of all squared deviations from the mean is called as variance
  • (Sample variance=S2; population variance= σ2sigma squared (standard deviation squared). A high variance means most scores are far away from the mean, a low variance indicates most scores cluster tightly about the mean.
Variance2JPGFormula OR S2 = Calculating variance: Heart rate of certain patient is 80, 84, 80, 72, 76, 88, 84, 80, 78, & 78. Calculate variance for this data. Solution: Step 1: Find mean of this data measures-of-central-tendency-4 = 800/10 Mean = 80 Step 2: Draw two Columns respectively ‘X’ and deviation about mean (X- ). In column ‘X’ put all values of X and in (X- ) subtract each ‘X’ value with . Step 3: Draw another Column of (X- ) 2, in which put square of deviation about mean.
X (X- ) Deviation about mean (X- )2 Square of Deviation about mean
80 84 80 72 76 88 84 80 78 78 80 – 80 = 0 84 – 80 = 4 80 – 80 = 0 72 – 80 = -8 76 – 80 = -4 88 – 80 = 8 84 – 80 = 4 80 – 80 = 0 78 – 80 = -2 78 – 80 = -2 0 x 0 = 00 4 x 4 = 16 0 x 0 = 00 -8 x -8 = 64 -4 x -4 = 16 8 x 8 = 64 4 x 4 = 16 0 x 0 = 00 -2 x -2 = 04 -2 x -2 = 04
∑X = 800 = 80 ∑(X- ) = 0 Summation of Deviation about mean is always zero ∑(X- )2 = 184 Summation of Square of Deviation about mean
Step 4 Apply formula and put following values ∑(X- ) 2= 184 n = 10 Variance2JPG Variance = 184/ 10-1 = 184/9 Variance = 20.44 Standard Deviation
  • The SD is defined as the positive Square root of the mean of the squared deviations of the values from their mean.
  • The square root of the variance.
  • It measures the spread of data around the mean. One standard deviation includes 68% of the values in a sample population and two standard deviations include 95% of the values & 3 standard deviations include 99.7% of the values
  • The SD is affected by the value of every observation.
  • In general, it is less affected by fluctuations of sampling than the other measures of dispersion.
  • It has a definite mathematical meaning and is perfectly adaptable to algebraic treatment.
http://www.bmj.com/statsbk/2-20.gifFormula: OR S = Calculating Standard Deviation (we use same example): Heart rate of certain patient is 80, 84, 80, 72, 76, 88, 84, 80, 78, & 78. Calculate standard deviation for this data. SOLUTION: Step 1: Find mean of this data measures-of-central-tendency-4 = 800/10 Mean = 80 Step 2: Draw two Columns respectively ‘X’ and deviation about mean (X-). In column ‘X’ put all values of X and in (X-) subtract each ‘X’ value with. Step 3: Draw another Column of (X- ) 2, in which put square of deviation about mean.
X (X- ) Deviation about mean (X- )2 Square of Deviation about mean
80 84 80 72 76 88 84 80 78 78 80 – 80 = 0 84 – 80 = 4 80 – 80 = 0 72 – 80 = -8 76 – 80 = -4 88 – 80 = 8 84 – 80 = 4 80 – 80 = 0 78 – 80 = -2 78 – 80 = -2 0 x 0 = 00 4 x 4 = 16 0 x 0 = 00 -8 x -8 = 64 -4 x -4 = 16 8 x 8 = 64 4 x 4 = 16 0 x 0 = 00 -2 x -2 = 04 -2 x -2 = 04
∑X = 800 = 80 ∑(X- ) = 0 Summation of Deviation about mean is always zero ∑(X- )2 = 184 Summation of Square of Deviation about mean
Step 4 Apply formula and put following values ∑(X- )2 = 184 n = 10 sd calculation MERITS AND DEMERITS OF STD. DEVIATION
  • Std. Dev. summarizes the deviation of a large distribution from mean in one figure used as a unit of variation.
  • It indicates whether the variation of difference of a individual from the mean is real or by chance.
  • Std. Dev. helps in finding the suitable size of sample for valid conclusions.
  • It helps in calculating the Standard error.
DEMERITS-
  • It gives weightage to only extreme values. The process of squaring deviations and then taking square root involves lengthy calculations.
 Relative measure of dispersion: (a)    Coefficient of Variation, (b)   Coefficient of Dispersion, (c)    Quartile Coefficient of Dispersion, and (d)   Mean Coefficient of Dispersion. Coefficient of Variation (CV): 1.      Coefficient of variation was introduced by Karl Pearson.  The CV expresses the SD as a percentage in terms of AM: http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur50.gif   —————- For sample data http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur51.gif   ————— For population data
  • It is frequently used in comparing dispersion of two or more series.  It is also used as a criterion of consistent performance, the smaller the CV the more consistent is the performance.
  • The disadvantage of CV is that it fails to be useful when  http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur52.gif   is close to zero.
  • It is sometimes also referred to as ‘coefficient of standard deviation’.
  • It is used to determine the stability or consistency of a data.
  • The higher the CV, the higher is instability or variability in data, and vice versa.
Coefficient of Dispersion (CD): If Xm and Xn are respectively the maximum and the minimum values in a set of data, then the coefficient of dispersion is defined as: http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur53.gif Coefficient of Quartile Deviation (CQD): 1.      If Q1 and Q3 are given for a set of data, then (Q1 + Q3)/2 is a measure of central tendency or average of data.  Then the measure of relative dispersion for quartile deviation is expressed as follows: http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur54.gif CQD may also be expressed in percentage. Mean Coefficient of Dispersion (CMD): The relative measure for mean deviation is ‘mean coefficient of dispersion’ or ‘coefficient of mean deviation’: http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur55.gif   ——————– for arithmetic mean http://www.freewebs.com/maeconomics/Statistics/measures_of_dispersion_files/measur56.gif   ——————– for median Percentiles and Quartiles The mean and median are special cases of a family of parameters known as location parameters. These descriptive measures are called location parameters because they can be used to designate certain positions on the horizontal axis when the distribution of a variable is graphed. Percentile:
  1. Percentiles are numerical values that divide an ordered data set into 100 groups of values with at the most 1% of the data values in each group. There can be maximum 99 percentile in a data set.
  2. A percentile is a measure that tells us what percent of the total frequency scored at or below that measure.
Percentiles corresponding to a given data value: The percentile in a set corresponding to a specific data value is obtained by using the following formula Number of values below X + 0.5 Percentile = ——————————————– Number of total values in data set Example: Calculate percentile for value 12 from the following data 13 11 10 13 11 10 8 12 9 9 8 9 Solution: Step # 01: Arrange data values in ascending order from smallest to largest
S. No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Observations or values 8 8 9 9 9 10 10 11 11 12 13 13
Step # 02: The number of values below 12 is 9 and total number in the data set is 12 Step # 03: Use percentile formula 9 + 0.5 Percentile for 12 = ——— x 100 = 79.17% 12 It means the value of 12 corresponds to 79th percentile Example2: Find out 25th percentile for the following data 6 12 18 12 13 8 13 11 10 16 13 11 10 10 2 14 SOLUTION Step # 01: Arrange data values in ascending order from smallest to largest
S. No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
Observations or values 2 6 8 10 10 10 11 11 12 12 13 13 13 14 16 18
Step # 2 Calculate the position of percentile (n x k/ 100). Here n = No: of observation = 16 and k (percentile) = 25 16 x 25 16 x 1 Therefore Percentile = ———- = ——— = 4 100 4 Therefore, 25th percentile will be the average of values located at the 4th and 5th position in the ordered set. Here values for 4th and 5th correspond to the value of 10 each. (10 + 10) Thus, P25 (=Pk) = ————– = 10 2 Quartiles These are measures of position which divide the data into four equal parts when the data is arranged in ascending or descending order. The quartiles are denoted by Q. quartile
Quartiles Formula for Ungrouped Data Formula for Grouped Data
Q1 = First Quartile below which first 25% of the observations are present Q1_ungroup
Q2 = Second Quartile below which first 50% of the observations are present. It can easily be located as the median value. Q2_ungroup Q2
Q3 = Third Quartile below which first 75% of the observations are present Q3_ungroup Q3
Symbol Key:

Epidemiology MCQs

1. Which of the following is NOT a part of continuum of natural history of the disease?
a) Stage of Susceptibility
b) Stage of preclinical
c) Stage of prevention
d) Stage of recovery

2. Which of the following is also known as retrospective studies?
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

3. Total number of deaths reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) death rate
b) Crude death rate
c) mortality rate
d) proportional mortality

4. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) Birth Rate
b) Growth Rate
c) Crude Fertility rate
d) Crude Birth Rate

5. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated number of women age 15 to 44 years mid interval is known as;
a) Crude Fertility Rate
b) Birth Rate
c) Growth Rate
d) Sex ratio

6. Number of current cases(new and old) of specified disease identified over a given time interval from estimated population at mid interval is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Period Prevalence
c) Point Prevalence
d) Disease Prevalence

7. Use of statistics to analyze characteristics or changes to a population is termed as;
a) population Pyramid
b) vital statistics
c) Population statistics
d) Population dynamics

 

8. Which of the following term provides true representation of whole population?
a) Sampling
b) Random Sampling
c) Case reporting
d) Sample
9. Measure of the frequency of occurrence of death in a defined population during a specified interval is called;
a) Crude death rate
b) Mortality Rate
c) Death ratio
d) Mortality

10. Public health surveillance DOES NOT consists on the following step;
a) Systematic collection
b) Analysis
c) Planning
d) Interpretation

11. Surveillance system information cycles include;
a) Family and community
b) Public, Health care provider and Health agencies
c) None of the above
d) Public, Health care provider only

12. Epidemiology can be defined as follow EXCEPT;
a) Distribution of health related states
b) Community leaders and their family crises
c) Determinant of health related events
d) Apply to the control of health problems

13. A state of disorder that results from communication ONLY by direct contact is termed as;
a) Infectious disease
b) Contamination
c) Epidemic
d) Contagious disease

14. Which of the following is NOT a basic measurement in epidemiology;
a) Rate
b) Nominator
c) Ratio
d) Proportion

15. Which of the following is usually expressed as percentage;
a) Rate
b) Nominator
c) Ratio
d) Proportion

 

16. Measurement of disease, disability or death and converting this information in to rates and ratio is defined as;
a) Specificity
b) Screening
c) Frequency
d) Sensitivity

17. Measurement of current status of disease is termed as;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) Cumulative Incidence
d) Mid interval population

18. A person who harbors the microorganisms of a disease and excretes them without self suffering from symptoms is called;
a) Reservoir
b) Carrier
c) Host
d) Agent

19. The modes of transmission of infectious diseases are as follow EXCEPT;
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Physiological
d) Biological

20. The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) a and b
d) Cumulative incidence

21. Epidemiological methods can be categorized as follow;
a) Descriptive, cohort and case control
b) Descriptive, cross sectional and experimental
c) Descriptive, prospective and experimental
d) Descriptive, Analytical and experimental

22. In descriptive epidemiology disease described in terms of;
a) What, Why and How
b) Host, Agent and Environment
c) Time, Place and Person
d) Agent, Place and Person

23. Which of the following is also known as prospective study;
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

24. In epidemiological triad environmental factors can be classified as;
a) Physical
b) Chemical
c) Social
d) Biological

25. Which of the following ratio provide us an estimate of risk in case control study;
a) Odd ratio
b) Sex ratio
c) Disease ratio
d) Dependency ratio

26. The entire group of people or elements that have at least one thing is common is known as;
a) Sample
b) Parameter
c) Hypothesis
d) Population

27. Sampling done on the basis of some pre determined ideas and its result can not be generalized is defined as follow;
a) Snow ball sampling
b) Purposive sampling
c) Probability sampling
d) Non-probability sampling

28. Tertiary prevention includes;
a) Disability limitation
b) Prompt treatment
c) Rehabilitation
d) a and c
e) a and b

29. Agents such as vitamins, protein, fat etc. are an examples of;
a) Physical Agents
b) Nutritive Agents
c) Chemical Agents
d) All of the above

30. Which of the following are key components of Epidemiological triangle,
a) Host, Agent and Physical Environment
b) Host, Genes and Physical Environment
c) Host, Agent and Environment
d) None of the above

31. Tertiary prevention Does not includes;
a) Disability limitation
b) Prompt treatment
c) Rehabilitation
d) a and c
32. Agents such as vitamins, protein, fat etc. are an examples of;
a) Physical Agents
b) Nutritive Agents
c) Chemical Agents
d) All of the above
33. Which of the following are not key components of Epidemiological triangle,
a) Host and Agent
b) Host and Environment
c) Host, Agent and Environment
d) Time, Place and Person
34. Which of the following is a part of continuum of natural history of the disease?
a) Stage of health promotion
b) Stage of prevention
c) Stage of Recovery
d) Stage of sampling
35. Which of the following are also known as retrospective studies?
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

36. A person who harbors the microorganisms of a disease and excretes them without self suffering from symptoms is called;
a) Reservoir
b) Carrier
c) Host
d) Agent
37. The modes of transmission of infectious diseases are as follow EXCEPT;
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Physiological
d) Biological

38. Total number of deaths reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) death rate
b) Crude death rate
c) mortality rate
d) proportional mortality
39. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) Birth Rate
b) Growth Rate
c) Crude Fertility rate
d) Crude Birth Rate
40. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated number of women age 15 to 44 years mid interval is known as;
a) Crude Fertility Rate
b) Birth Rate
c) Growth Rate
d) Sex ratio

41. Number of current cases(new and old) of specified disease identified over a given time interval from estimated population at mid interval is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Period Prevalence
c) Point Prevalence
d) Disease Prevalence
42. Use of statistics to analyze characteristics or changes to a population is termed as;
a) population Pyramid
b) vital statistics
c) Population statistics
d) Population dynamics
43. Measure of the frequency of occurrence of death in a defined population during a specified interval is called;
a) Crude death rate
b) Mortality Rate
c) Death ratio
d) Mortality
44. Public health surveillance DOES NOT consists on the following step;
a) Systematic collection
b) Analysis
c) Planning
d) Interpretation
45. Surveillance system information cycles include;
a) Family and community
b) Public, Health care provider and Health agencies
c) None of the above
d) Public, Health care provider only

46. A state of disorder that results from communication ONLY by direct contact is termed as;
a) Infectious disease
b) Contamination
c) Epidemic
d) Contagious disease
47. Which of the following is NOT a basic measurement in epidemiology;
a) Rate
b) Nominator
c) Ratio
d) Proportion
48. Measurement of current status of disease is termed as;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) Cumulative Incidence
d) Mid interval population
49. The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) a and b
d) Cumulative incidence
50. Which of the following is also known as prospective study;
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

51. Which of the following ratio provide us an estimate of risk in case control study;
a) Odd ratio
b) Sex ratio
c) Disease ratio
d) Dependency ratio
52. The entire group of people or elements that have at least one thing is common is known as;
a) Sample
b) Parameter
c) Hypothesis
d) Population
53. Sampling done on the basis of some pre determined ideas and its result can not be generalized is defined as follow;
a) Snow ball sampling
b) Purposive sampling
c) Probability sampling
d) Non-probability sampling

54. Graphical illustration that shows the distribution of various age groups in population is known as;
a) Dependency Ratio
b) Age Ratio
c) Population Pyramid
d) Population Dynamics
55. Ratio of population who are economically not active to those who are economically active can be defined as;
a) Dependency Ratio
b) Age Ratio
c) Population Ratio
d) Risk benefit ratio
56. In which of the following sampling there is a minimum chance of bias and equally chances of being selected for study.
a) Accidental Sampling
b) Simple Random Sampling
c) Purposive Sampling
d) Snow ball Sampling
57. In study if we are selecting every seventh subject it comes under which of the following sampling method?
a) Stratified Sampling
b) Quota Sampling
c) Systematic Sampling
d) Purposive Sampling
58. Systematic errors produced by your sampling procedure is known as;
a) Sampling bias
b) Sampling errors
c) Non sampling errors
d) Random error
59. The profile of single patient is reported in detail by one or more clinicians is called as follow;
a) Case control study
b) Case Series
c) Investigation
d) Case Report
60. In which of the following study we compare one group among whom the problem is present and another group where problem is absent?
a) Case control study
b) Case Series
c) Cohort study
d) Case Report

Answer key:
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. C
20. B

21. D
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. D
27. B
28. D
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. B
33. D
34. C
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. B
44. C
45. B
46. D
47. B
48. A
49. B
50. A
51. A
52. D
53. B
54. C
55. A
56. B
57. C
58. A
59. D
60. A

Fundamental of Nursing

Fundamental of Nursing MCQs/BCQs BSc Nursing

1. A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The nurse administered anti diarrheal tablets to the patient. What phrase of nursing process is being implemented here by the nurse?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Implementation

2. It is best describe as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care for individual, families, group and community.
A. Assessment
B. Nursing Process
C. Diagnosis
D. Implementation

3. The 1st technique used in examining the abdomen of a client is:
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Percussion
D. Inspection

4. During a routine examination you are assessing the putting pressure on the patient’s abdomen to evaluate that whether the patient is having tenderness or not, you are performing which of the following technique:
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion

5. The nurse is using otoscope for assessing the patient. Which of the following area is tested?
A. Optic
B. Olfactory
C. Oculomotor
D. Trochlear

6. A nurse is performing an initial assessment for a client. Which of the following could be considered objective information except?
A. The client’s blood pressure increases when the provider enters the room
B. The client weighs 186 pounds
C. The client rates pain at a level of 6 on the numeric rating scale
D. The client has a pinpoint rash on the face and trunk

7. A patient comes to the health care setup, you are assessing the patient and you gathered information about the patient current health status and past health status, you are doing..
A. Assessment
B. Interviewing
C. Data Collection
D. All of the above

8. A patient is brought to ED in unconscious status, you gathered data from the patient’s relatives or attendants, this type of data can be labeled as_________________
A. Primary source of data
B. Objective data
C. Secondary source of data
D. All of the above

9. During your conversation for gathering data, you asked several questions from the patient and you got the answers for those questions, you are using ________________ skill for data collection.
A. Objective data
B. Secondary data
C. Source of data
D. None of the above

10. The component of the nursing diagnose that shows the client’s health status and directs the nurse towards the formation of the nursing interventions is___________________
A. Etiology
B. Defining characteristics
C. Problem Statement
D. None of the above

11. The Nurse is providing physical care, emotional support, comfort, teaching, counseling and environmental support to the patient, all these interventions can be labeled as _______________
A. Dependent interventions
B. Independent interventions
C. Collaborative interventions
D. Systematic interventions.

12. Nursing documentation can be use in the following aspects:
A. Communication
B. Education
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

13. While preparing the patient for surgery, Nurse is taking signatures from the patient or the patient’s relative to allow for the surgery, this document is called_______________
A. Medical record
B. Detailed chart
C. Check list
D. Patient assessment form
E. None of the above

14. The organized, purposeful and disciplined thinking process is known as______________
A. Deep thinking
B. Enhanced thinking
C. Critical thinking
D. Dependent thinking

15. The following are the steps that are involved in critical thinking_____________
A. Interpretation
B. Analysis
C. Evaluation
D. Self regulation
E. Both A & B
F. All of the above

16. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage is known as:
A. Pain
B. Stimulus
C. Stress
D. None of the above

17. A 50 year old male patient is admitted in the medicine department, is complaining of the pain in the right lower limb, The nurse assessed the patient and was unable to know the etiology of the pain, this pain can be labeled as ________________
A. Nociceptive pain
B. Psychogenic pain
C. Neuropathic pain
D. Relative pain.

18. A 62 year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department, with severe chest pain on the left side, spreading towards the left shoulder and left arm, when the nurse assessed the patient she came to know that the patient is suspected for MI, the nurse labeled the type of pain as_____
A. Phantom pain
B. Referred pain
C. Radiating pain
D. Psychogenic pain

19. Retrosternal chest pain can be labeled as______________
A. Phantom pain
B. Referred pain
C. Radiating pain
D. Psychogenic pain

20. A 780 year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department, with diabetic foot gangrene with severe pain in the foot, the doctor performed surgery and amputated the foot, post operatively the patient was perceiving pain in the foot, the nurse informed the doctor that the patient is having _________________ pain.
A. Referred pain
B. Radiating pain
C. Psychogenic pain
D. Nociceptive pain
E. None of the above

21. According to this theory pain is produced when any sensory nerve is stimulated to a certain level:
A. Intensity theory
B. Specificity Theory
C. Gate control Theory
D. All of the above

22. All of the following are Non Pharmacological measures for relieving pain except__________
A. Distraction
B. Humor
C. Music
D. Opoids
E. Relaxation

23. The sum of all the interactions between an organism and the food it consumes is called_____
A. Nutrients
B. Nutrition
C. Food availability
D. All of the above

24. Rate at which food is metabolized to maintain energy requirements of a person who is awake and at rest
A. Catabolism
B. Anabolism
C. Basal Metabolic Rate
D. Metabolism

25. The nurse is assessing a 3 year old baby for nutritional status, The nurse measures the Height and weight, Growth curve, Head and chest circumferences, Skin fold thickness, and Mid arm circumference, the nurse asks the student nurse that which type of measurements she had taken, the student nurse will answer _______________
A. Anthropometric measurement
B. Body measurement
C. Height and weight
D. Physical measurement

26. You are asked to calculate the BMI for the patient having Weight = 70 kg (154 lb) and Height= 5 feet (60 inches or 1.52 m) , what will be the BMI of the patient _____________
A. 20
B. 30.1
C. 55
D. 22

27. You calculated the BMI of the patient in question no. 26, look at the patient BMI and label the patient into one category:
A. Under weight
B. Normal weight
C. Obesity
D. None of the above

28. You are taking history from the patient at OPD, and the patient tell you that he pass feces 2 times a day in routine, he tells now he has not passed stool from 4 days, the nurse will consider that the patient is having:
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Flatulence
D. Bowel incontinence

29. If constipation is prolonged it can lead to _____________
A. More Constipation
B. Bowel incontinence
C. Fecal impaction
D. Fecal incontinence.

30. A 25year old male patient is admitted in the medicine department, is complaining of excessively liquid stool, Difficult to control urge for defecation and Spasmodic cramps, on assessment you came to know that the patient is dehydrated and have increase bowel sound, what will be your diagnoses?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Flatulence
D. Bowel incontinence

31. The loss of voluntary ability to control the fecal and gaseous discharge through the anal sphincter is called _________________
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Flatulence
D. Bowel incontinence

32. you are taking history from the patient, and the patient tells you that he is unable to control flatus, as well as complain of minor soiling: you can consider this condition as___________
A. Diarrhea
B. Partial bowel incontinence
C. Major bowel incontinence
D. None of the above.

33. The presence of excessive flatus in the intestines is called_______________
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

34. A nursing student ask you a question that, in which stage of sleep the dreaming occurs, what will be your answer ????
A. NREM Stage 3
B. NREM Stage 4
C. REM Stage
D. Deep Sleep Stage
E. All of the above

35. While caring for a client with disturbed sleep pattern, which of the following will be your nursing intervention on priority?
A. Maintain a good circadian rhythm
B. Get adequate exercise during day time, but avoid excessive exertion before bed time.
C. Avoid dealing with office work or family problem before bedtime.
D. Use the bed mainly for sleep, so that you associate it with sleep.

36. The most common form of sexual activity is _______________
A. Homosexual genital intercourse
B. Orgasm
C. Libido
D. Heterosexual genital intercourse

37. Sexual response cycle includes the following phases except__________
A. Excitement phase
B. Plateau phase
C. Maintenance phase
D. Orgasmic phase
E. Resolution phase

38. “Many sexual therapist advise to increase sexual communication to avoid this problem” which of the following best justifies the above statement.
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Pre mature Ejaculation
C. Dysparunia
D. All of the above

39. The chronic vulvar discomfort or pain that characterized by complaints of burning or pain or irritation of the female genitalia is known as:
A. Dysparunia
B. Vaginal infection
C. Vulvodynia
D. Vaginismus

40. You are on duty in urology department and you are asked to, asses the male patient’s genital organs, you will assess all of the following in physical examination except?
A. Inspect for any scars or lesions on the external genitals.
B. Ask for Current problem in sexual activity
C. Inspect for any changes in the shape of genital organs.
D. Compare the size of both testes

41. Nurse Elisabeth is teaching about sexual health to client, she taught about various things, some of them are the following, the head nurse noted Elisabeth that all of her teaching was right except:
A. Encourage open communication between partners.
B. Teach about kegel exercise to women.
C. Teach about any changes in sexual pattern due to any medications or following surgical procedure.
D. Do you have any problem in your sexuality?

42. The permanent cessation of function of vital organs of the body, including heart beat, spontaneous breathing and brain activity is known as_____________
A. Rest
B. Sleep
C. Death
D. All of the above

43. You have a 75 years old patient in ICU in critical condition, the physician tells you that the patient is not in satisfactory condition and going towards death, he noted the following manifestation and made his statement:
A. Loss of muscle tone
B. Slowing of the circulation
C. Changes in the vital signs
D. Sensory impairment
E. All of the above
F. None of the above

44. In the same case (as in question 43), the patient is expired, and the doctor declares the patient death, on which of the following basis the doctor declared this death?
A. Total lack of response to external stimuli
B. No muscular movement
C. No reflexes
D. Flat encephalogram
E. All of the above
F. Both B, C and D

45.” Does not understand concept of death, believes death is reversible, temporary departure or sleep.” From whom we can expect the above mentioned response?
A. A 5 year child
B. An Adult
C. A person in late adulthood
D. None of the above

46. “Fears prolonged illness, sees death as having multiple meanings, freedom from pain, and reunion with already deceased family members” From whom we can expect the above mentioned response?
A. An Adult having age of 20 years
B. A child
C. Above 65 years
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

47. The stiffening of the body that occurs about 2 to 4 hours after death is called _____________
A. Algor Mortis
B. Rigor Mortis
C. Livor Mortis
D. Stiffening of the body
E. Discoloration

48. _______________Is the gradual decrease of the body temperature after death.
A. Algor Mortis
B. Rigor Mortis
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

49. The loss that can be identified by others and can arise in response to a situation is called_________
A. Anticipatory loss
B. Perceived loss
C. Actual loss
D. None of the above

50. All of the following are Kubler Ross propose stages of grief except____________
A. Denial
B. Adopting
C. Anger
D. Depression.

Fundamental of Nursing MCQs/BCQs

Fundamental of Nursing-I|1stYear|2nd Semester| BSN(Generic)

1. Which of the following is not true about rapid eye movement sleep?
A) metabolic rate increases
B) dreams occur
C) slow wave sleep
D) pulse blood pressure and breathing increases
E) fast waves sleep

2. The client who doesn’t have fever is called:
A) Febrile
B) Hyperpyrexia
C) Afebrile
D) Pyrexia
E) Hypothermia

3. Which of the following is an example of objective data?
A) Severe headache
B) feeling of very severe pain in abdomen
C) feeling worry
D) discoloration of skin
E) complain of loose motion

4. Factors that affect sexual functioning includes
A) Family
B) Personal expectations
C) Religion
D) all of these
E) Culture

5. Concern for the Welfare and wellbeing for others is:
A) Altruism
B) Autonomy
C) Integrity
D) Social Justice
E) human dignity

6. Complicated grieving may not characterize by:
A) suicidal thoughts
B) severe physiologic symptoms
C) extended time of denial
D) sleep disturbance
E) Depression

7. Which of the following statement is true regarding non rapid eye movement (NREM)
A) also called paradoxical sleep
B) sleepoccursevery20minutesandlastfor5to30minutes
C) Brain is highly active
D) usually dream takes place in this sleep
E) sleepers heart rate and respiratory rate drops

8. Which of the following is not a component of nursing process:
A) Intervention
B) Scientific Rationale
C) Assessment & Nursing Diagnosis
D) Expected Outcome
E) Evaluation

9. Loss of voluntary ability to control fecal and gaseous discharge through anal sphincters:
A) Bowel incontinence
B) Constipation
C) Diarrhea
D) Flatulence
E) Urinary incontinence

10. Which of the following is not correct for chronic pain:
A) parasympathetic nervous system responses
B) client appears depressed and withdrawn
C) it lasted six months or longer
D) sympathetic nervous system responses
E) vital signs normal

11. After al medication have been given through nasogastric tube the nurse should:
A) Flush the tube with 30cc water
B) No Need to Flush
C) Flush the tube with 100cc water
D) Flush the tube with 50 water IN
E) Wash out tube thoroughly

12. The Most commonly used methods for stress management includes the following except
A) age
B) Minimize anxiety
C) Exercise
D) Nutrition
E) Mediating anger

13. Inability to obtain and adequate amount or quality of sleep is:
A) Hypersomnia
B) Narcolepsy
C) sleep apnea
D) insomnia
E) parainsomnia

14. Characteristics of normal color of urine is?
A) Dark amber
B) Straw, amber transparent
C) Cloudy
D) Red or dark brown
E) Dark orange

15. Painful or difficult urination is called?
A) hematuria
B) Oliguria
C) polyuria
D) residual urine
E) dysuria

16. Which of the following is a micronutrient?
A) Proteins
B) carbohydrates
C) Water
D) Fat
E) Minerals

17. The major source of body energy is:
A) Minerals
B) Vitamins
C) Carbohydrates
D) Lipids
E) Proteins

18. Data on health status of the client can be obtained by:
A) Lab. reports
B) Diagnostic test results
C) Nursing history
D) Physical assessment
E) All of these

19. Amount of urine output less than 400 ml in 24 hours is called:
A) Anuria

B) Oliguria
C) Polyuria
D) Hematuria
E) Dysuria

20. Which of The nursing intervention is not included to promote a positive concept in client:
A) establish therapeutic relationship with the client
B) avoid eye contact with patient
C) helping our clients to identify areas of strength
D) assist the client to evaluate himself
E) assist the client to make behavioral change

21. Which of The following is not a physiological manifestation of stress?
A) Depression
B) increase cardiac output
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Constipation
E) dry mouth

22. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of human need which of the following human need should met first:
A) Self-actualization
B) Safety and security
C) Self Esteem
D) Love and belonging
E) Physiologic needs

23. When Giving ophthalmic medication in the form of gtts it should be installed
A) Conjunctiva
B) Pupil
C) Sclera
D) Outer canthus
E) Inner canthus

24. Leakage of urine despite of voluntary control of urination is called:
A) Incontinence
B) Urgency
C) Dribbling
D) residual urine
E) hesitancy

25. Average daily urine output by the age of 14years through adulthood is?
A) 1500ml

B) 600-700ml
C) 800-1400ml
D) 1500ml or less
E) 700-1000ml

26. Which of The following statement regarding subcutaneous injection is not true?
A) It is injected just below the skin subcutaneous layer
B) Given at 25-degree angle
C) Only 0.5-1 ml is given
D) Insulin is also given subcutaneously
E) Given at 45-degree angle

27. Non rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep occurs about:
A) 50 to 60%
B) 70 to 80%
C) 40 to 50%
D) 30 to 40%
E) 20 to 30%

28. Physical Change of pain includes the following Except:
A) Elevated respiratory rate
B) Elevated dilated pupils, cyanosed and perspiration
C) Elevated blood pressure
D) Elevated pulse rate
E) Stress and restless

29. Process of designing nursing action required to prevent, reduce or eliminate patients’ problem is:
A) Planning
B) Assessment
C) nursing diagnosis
D) Evaluation
E) Implementation

30. The Type of functional Health Pattern which focus on the person’ perceived level of health and wellbeing and on practices for maintaining health is:
A) Self-perception/Self-concept pattern
B) Role and relationship pattern
C) Health perception/health management pattern
D) Value belief pattern
E) Cognitive/perceptual pattern

31. Which of The following statement regarding intradermal injection is not true?
A) Check for bleb or wheal
B) Use 26-27-gauge needle
C) Given at 5-15-degree angle
D) Given for allergy test
E) Inject into deep muscles

32. The first step of nursing process is?
A) Planning
B) Evaluation
C) Diagnosis
D) Assessment
E) Implementation

33. Which of The Following is a dependent nursing action?
A) Giving mouth care
B) Intake and output monitoring
C) Giving bed bath
D) Changing clients position 2hourly
E) Giving medications according to physician’s order

34. Draw The person that attention away from the pain through listening music:
A) Relaxation
B) guided imagery
C) imagery meditation
D) Distraction

35. The ability to listen actively can:
A) improve cooperation
B) improve interpersonal relationship
C) block understanding
D) minimize is communicate
E) reduce conflicts

36. One of The most important factor affecting person sleep and rest periods
A) lifestyle and habits
B) Environment
C) Illness
D) Fatigue
E) Age

37. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of oral route of medication?
A) Not suitable for unconscious patient
B) May cause irritation to gastric mucosa
C) Sometime may have adverse reaction
D) Portable, no pain, easy to take
E) Foodland Gastrointestinal motility can affect drug absorption

38. Intramuscular injection should be given at the angle of _______ degree.
A) 45
B) 75
C) 25
D) 35
E) 90

39. When Assessing a Person with altered concept the nurse should not:
A) minimize interruption
B) ask close ended questions
C) create a quiet environment
D) maintain appropriate eye contact
E) sit at eyelevel with the client

 

Answer key

1. E
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. A
6. E
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. E
16. E
17. C
18. E
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. E
23. A
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. E
32. D
33. E
34. A
35. E
36. A
37. D
38. E
39. B