Obesity and diabetes can affect breastfeeding

Obesity and diabetes can affect breastfeeding in several ways.

Obesity

  • Reduced milk production: Obese women may have lower levels of prolactin, the hormone responsible for milk production. This can lead to a reduced supply of breast milk.
  • Increased risk of mastitis: Mastitis is an inflammation of the breast tissue that can occur during breastfeeding. Obese women are at increased risk of developing mastitis.
  • Delayed lactogenesis II: Lactogenesis II is the “let-down” reflex that triggers the release of breast milk. Obese women may experience delayed lactogenesis II, which can make it more difficult for them to breastfeed.
  • Shorter breastfeeding duration: Obese women are more likely to stop breastfeeding early.

Diabetes

  • Increased risk of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) in the baby: Breast milk from mothers with diabetes may contain higher levels of glucose, which can lead to hypoglycemia in the baby.
  • Increased risk of macrosomia (large baby): Babies born to mothers with diabetes are at increased risk of macrosomia, which can make it more difficult for them to latch on and breastfeed.
  • Delayed lactogenesis II: Similar to obese women, women with diabetes may experience delayed lactogenesis II.
  • Shorter breastfeeding duration: Women with diabetes are more likely to stop breastfeeding early.

Despite these challenges, breastfeeding is still possible for women with obesity and diabetes. With proper support and education, these women can successfully breastfeed their babies.

Here are some tips for breastfeeding mothers with obesity or diabetes:

  • Work with a lactation consultant: A lactation consultant can provide support and education to help you breastfeed successfully.
  • Monitor your blood sugar levels: If you have diabetes, it is important to monitor your blood sugar levels regularly.
  • Eat a healthy diet: Eating a healthy diet can help you control your blood sugar levels and produce nutritious breast milk.
  • Get regular exercise: Regular exercise can help you control your weight and blood sugar levels.
  • Join a support group: Joining a support group can connect you with other breastfeeding mothers who are facing similar challenges.

Breastfeeding is a healthy and natural way to feed your baby. With proper care and support, women with obesity and diabetes can successfully breastfeed their babies.

Health Assessment: Ophthalmology- BCQs

  1. A 50-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of red, itchy eyes. He denies any history of eye injury, contact lens use, or recent travel. Examination reveals conjunctival hyperemia, chemosis, and mild discharge. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Bacterial conjunctivitis

(B) Viral conjunctivitis

(C) Allergic conjunctivitis

(D) Dry eye syndrome

  1. A 30-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of blurred vision in her right eye. She also reports eye pain, photophobia, and redness. Examination reveals conjunctival hyperemia, corneal clouding, and a 3 mm hypopyon. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Bacterial keratitis

(B) Viral keratitis

(C) Fungal keratitis

(D) Herpes simplex keratitis

  1. A 60-year-old male presents with a 2-year history of progressive vision loss in both eyes. He also reports difficulty seeing in low light and halos around lights. Examination reveals bilateral cataracts. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his vision loss?

(A) Age-related macular degeneration

(B) Diabetic retinopathy

(C) Glaucoma

(D) Cataracts

  1. A 55-year-old male presents with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is well-controlled on oral hypoglycemic agents. Examination reveals bilateral non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following is the most important next step in his care?

(A) Annual eye exams

(B) Laser photocoagulation

(C) Vitrectomy

(D) Systemic corticosteroids

  1. A 40-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of increasing intraocular pressure (IOP) in her right eye. She also reports halos around lights and difficulty seeing in low light. Examination reveals open angles in her anterior chambers and IOP of 30 mmHg in her right eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Primary open-angle glaucoma

(B) Primary angle-closure glaucoma

(C) Secondary glaucoma

(D) Ocular hypertension

Answers:

  1. (B) Viral conjunctivitis
  2. (A) Bacterial keratitis
  3. (D) Cataracts
  4. (A) Annual eye exams
  5. (A) Primary open-angle glaucoma

 

  1. A 55-year-old female presents with a 2-year history of progressive vision loss in her right eye. She also reports difficulty seeing in low light and halos around lights. Examination reveals cataracts in her right eye. What is the most likely cause of her vision loss?

(a) Age-related macular degeneration

(b) Diabetic retinopathy

(c) Glaucoma

(d) Cataracts

  1. A 60-year-old male presents with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is well-controlled on oral hypoglycemic agents. Examination reveals non-proliferative diabetic
  2. in both eyes. What is the most important next step in his care?

(a) Annual eye exams

(b) Laser photocoagulation

(c) Vitrectomy

(d) Systemic corticosteroids

  1. A 45-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of increasing intraocular pressure (IOP) in her left eye. She also reports halos around lights and difficulty seeing in low light. Examination reveals closed angles in her anterior chambers and IOP of 32 mmHg in her left eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Primary open-angle glaucoma

(b) Primary angle-closure glaucoma

(c) Secondary glaucoma

(d) Ocular hypertension

  1. A 30-year-old male presents with a 2-day history of blurred vision in his left eye. He also reports eye pain, photophobia, and redness. Examination reveals conjunctival hyperemia, corneal clouding, and a 2 mm hypopyon. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Bacterial keratitis

(b) Viral keratitis

(c) Fungal keratitis

(d) Herpes simplex keratitis

  1. A 50-year-old male presents with a 1-week history of red, itchy eyes. He denies any history of eye injury, contact lens use, or recent travel. Examination reveals bilateral conjunctival hyperemia, chemosis, and mild discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Bacterial conjunctivitis

(b) Viral conjunctivitis

(c) Allergic conjunctivitis

(d) Dry eye syndrome

Answers:

  1. (d) Cataracts
  2. (a) Annual eye exams
  3. (b) Primary angle-closure glaucoma
  4. (a) Bacterial keratitis
  5. (c) Allergic conjunctivitis

 

  1. Which of the following is the most common cause of vision loss in patients with diabetes?
    A. Cataract
    B. Diabetic retinopathy
    C. Glaucoma
    D. Macular edema

2. A 45-year-old patient presents with acute onset of severe eye pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
B. Corneal abrasion
C. Ocular migraine
D. Retinal detachment

3. What is the first-line treatment for a bacterial corneal ulcer?
A. Topical corticosteroids
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Topical antibiotics
D. Antiviral therapy

4. A 60-year-old patient with cataracts undergoes phacoemulsification. Which intraocular lens (IOL) type would provide the patient with the best near and distance vision without the use of glasses?
A. Monofocal IOL
B. Toric IOL
C. Multifocal IOL
D. Phakic IOL

5. What is the most common cause of irreversible blindness worldwide?
A. Cataract
B. Glaucoma
C. Age-related macular degeneration
D. Diabetic retinopathy

6. Which of the following clinical features is most indicative of a retinal detachment?
A. Painful red eye
B. Sudden onset of floaters and/or flashes
C. Gradual peripheral visual field loss
D. Central vision loss

7. What is the characteristic fundus finding in age-related macular degeneration (AMD)?
A. Optic disc pallor
B. Drusen deposits
C. Flame hemorrhages
D. Cotton wool spots

Health Assessment MCQs/BCQs

What is the primary purpose of a comprehensive health assessment?
A. To diagnose acute health problems
B. To create a baseline of health data
C. To prescribe medication
D. To perform a surgical evaluation

Which vital sign is typically assessed first during a physical examination?
A. Blood pressure
B. Temperature
C. Heart rate
D. Respiratory rate

When conducting a health assessment, which of the following is the most important aspect to consider?
A. The patient’s insurance coverage
B. The patient’s self-reported symptoms
C. The patient’s previous medical history
D. The patient’s ability to pay for treatment

A comprehensive health assessment usually includes which of the following components?
A. History taking and physical examination
B. Ordering and interpreting laboratory tests
C. Making a diagnosis
D. All of the above

Which assessment technique would a healthcare provider use to evaluate the presence of fluid in the lungs?
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Percussion
D. Inspection

The mnemonic “PQRST” is used during the assessment of:
A. A headache
B. Pain
C. A seizure
D. Diabetes management

What does the “S” in the SOAP note stand for?
A. Subjective
B. Symptomatic
C. Synopsis
D. Systematic

During an abdominal assessment, the proper sequence of techniques is:
A. Inspection, auscultation, palpation, percussion
B. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
C. Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection

Which of the following is not a normal age-related change?
A. Increased blood pressure
B. Decreased maximal heart rate
C. Increased lung capacity
D. Thinning of the skin

Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated by:
A. Dividing weight in kilograms by height in meters squared
B. Dividing weight in pounds by height in inches squared and multiplying by 703
C. Dividing height in meters by weight in kilograms squared
D. Both A and B

Answers:

B. To create a baseline of health data
C. Heart rate
B. The patient’s self-reported symptoms
D. All of the above
B. Auscultation
B. Pain
A. Subjective
A. Inspection, auscultation, palpation, percussion
C. Increased lung capacity
D. Both A and B

Health Assessment MCQs/BCQs

1. Which of the following is a finding of a normal physical examination?
(A) A heart rate of 120 beats per minute (B) A respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute (C) A temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit (D) A blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg
2. What is the most common symptom of a heart attack?
(A) Chest pain (B) Shortness of breath (C) Nausea and vomiting (D) Lightheadedness
3. Which of the following is a risk factor for stroke?
(A) High blood pressure (B) High cholesterol (C) Diabetes (D) All of the above
4. What is the best way to prevent the spread of the common cold?
(A) Wash your hands frequently (B) Avoid close contact with sick people (C) Get vaccinated against the flu (D) All of the above
5. What is the recommended daily intake of fruits and vegetables for adults?
(A) 2 servings (B) 4 servings (C) 5 servings (D) 6 servings
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (C)
1. Which of the following is a sign of esophageal obstruction?
(A) Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) (B) Regurgitation (C) Chest pain (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common cause of acute gastritis?
(A) Infection with Helicobacter pylori (B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (C) Alcohol abuse (D) All of the above
3. Which of the following is a sign of peptic ulcer disease?
(A) Epigastric pain (B) Heartburn (C) Melena (black, tarry stools) (D) All of the above
4. What is the first-line treatment for irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?
(A) Dietary modifications (B) Antispasmodic medications (C) Antidepressants (D) All of the above
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for colon cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) Family history of colon cancer (C) Ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s disease (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (D)
1. Which of the following is a risk factor for coronary artery disease?
(A) High blood pressure (B) High cholesterol (C) Diabetes (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common symptom of a heart attack?
(A) Chest pain (B) Shortness of breath (C) Nausea and vomiting (D) All of the above
3. What is the purpose of an electrocardiogram (EKG)?
(A) To measure the heart rate and rhythm (B) To detect damage to the heart muscle (C) To diagnose heart attacks and other heart conditions (D) All of the above
4. What is the treatment for heart failure?
(A) Medications to improve heart function (B) Lifestyle changes, such as diet and exercise (C) Surgery, such as a heart transplant (D) All of the above
5. What is the best way to prevent stroke?
(A) Control blood pressure (B) Manage cholesterol (C) Treat diabetes (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (D)
6. A patient presents with chest pain that worsens with exertion and is relieved by rest. This is most consistent with:
(A) Angina pectoris (B) Myocardial infarction (C) Pericarditis (D) Heart failure
7. A patient has a heart murmur on auscultation. Which of the following is the most common cause of heart murmurs in adults?
(A) Mitral valve regurgitation (B) Aortic stenosis (C) Pulmonary stenosis (D) Tricuspid valve regurgitation
8. A patient has a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg. This is classified as:
(A) Stage 1 hypertension (B) Stage 2 hypertension (C) Severe hypertension (D) Hypertensive crisis
9. A patient has a history of atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of warfarin?
(A) Bleeding (B) Thrombosis (C) Elevated liver enzymes (D) All of the above
10. A patient is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. What is the main purpose of CABG surgery?
(A) To bypass blocked coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart muscle (B) To repair or replace damaged heart valves (C) To remove plaque from the coronary arteries (D) To implant a pacemaker or defibrillator
Answers:
6. (A)
7. (A)
8. (A)
9. (D)
10. (A)

1. Which of the following is a sign of meningitis?
(A) Severe headache (B) Stiff neck (C) Fever (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common type of stroke?
(A) Ischemic stroke (B) Hemorrhagic stroke (C) Transient ischemic attack (TIA) (D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
3. Which of the following is a symptom of Parkinson’s disease?
(A) Tremor at rest (B) Rigidity (C) Slowness of movement (D) All of the above
4. What is the most common cause of Alzheimer’s disease?
(A) Deposition of amyloid plaques and tau tangles in the brain (B) Vascular dementia (C) Lewy body dementia (D) Frontotemporal dementia
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for epilepsy?
(A) Head injury (B) Family history of epilepsy (C) Stroke (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (A)
5. (D)
6. A patient presents with weakness and numbness in the right arm and leg. This is most consistent with:
(A) Stroke (B) Multiple sclerosis (C) Myasthenia gravis (D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
7. A patient has difficulty speaking and understanding speech. This is most consistent with:
(A) Aphasia (B) Dysarthria (C) Apraxia of speech (D) All of the above
8. A patient has a headache that worsens with activity and is relieved by rest. This is most consistent with:
(A) Migraine headache (B) Tension headache (C) Cluster headache (D) None of the above
9. A patient presents with a seizure. What is the first-line treatment for seizures?
(A) Lorazepam (Ativan) (B) Levetiracetam (Keppra) (C) Valproic acid (Depakote) (D) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
10. A patient is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG). What is the purpose of an EEG?
(A) To measure the electrical activity of the brain (B) To diagnose seizures and other brain disorders (C) To monitor the effectiveness of anticonvulsant medications (D) All of the above
Answers:
6. (A)
7. (D)
8. (A)
9. (A)
10. (D)

1. Which of the following is a symptom of amenorrhea?
(A) Absence of menstruation (B) Heavy menstrual bleeding (C) Painful menstrual cramps (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common cause of infertility in women?
(A) Ovulation disorders (C) Tubal factor infertility (D) Endometriosis
3. Which of the following is a symptom of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
(A) Lower abdominal pain (B) Pelvic tenderness (C) Vaginal discharge (D) All of the above
4. What is the first-line treatment for chlamydia?
(A) Azithromycin (Zithromax) (B) Doxycycline (Monodox) (C) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) (D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for breast cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) Family history of breast cancer (C) Dense breasts (D) All of the above
6. What is the most common type of cervical cancer?
(A) Squamous cell carcinoma (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Adenosquamous carcinoma (D) None of the above
7. Which of the following is a symptom of testicular cancer?
(A) Painless lump in the testicle (B) Enlargement of the testicle (C) Change in the consistency of the testicle (D) All of the above
8. What is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction (ED)?
(A) Vascular disease (B) Neurological disease (C) Hormonal imbalance (D) All of the above
9. Which of the following is a risk factor for prostate cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) African American race (C) Family history of prostate cancer (D) All of the above
10. What is the first-line treatment for early-stage prostate cancer?
(A) Radical prostatectomy (B) Radiation therapy (C) Androgen deprivation therapy (D) Active surveillance
Answers:
1. (A)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (A)
5. (D)
6. (A)
7. (D)
8. (D)
9. (D)
10. (D)
1. Which of the following is a risk factor for testicular cancer?
(A) Cryptorchidism (undescended testicle) (B) Family history of testicular cancer (C) Klinefelter syndrome (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction (ED)?
(A) Vascular disease (B) Neurological disease (C) Hormonal imbalance (D) All of the above
3. Which of the following is a symptom of prostate cancer?
(A) Painful urination (B) Frequent urination (C) Difficulty urinating (D) All of the above
4. What is the first-line treatment for early-stage prostate cancer?
(A) Radical prostatectomy (B) Radiation therapy (C) Androgen deprivation therapy (D) Active surveillance
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for male infertility?
(A) Varicocele (enlarged veins in the scrotum) (B) Testosterone deficiency (C) Obstruction of the vas deferens (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (D)
3. (D)
4. (D)
5. (D)
1. Which of the following is a risk factor for breast cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) Family history of breast cancer (C) Dense breasts (D) All of the above
2. What is the most common type of cervical cancer?
(A) Squamous cell carcinoma (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Adenosquamous carcinoma (D) None of the above
3. Which of the following is a symptom of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
(A) Lower abdominal pain (B) Pelvic tenderness (C) Vaginal discharge (D) All of the above
4. What is the first-line treatment for chlamydia?
(A) Azithromycin (Zithromax) (B) Doxycycline (Monodox) (C) Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) (D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for ovarian cancer?
(A) Age over 50 (B) Family history of ovarian cancer (C) Endometriosis (D) All of the above
6. What is the most common cause of infertility in women?
(A) Ovulation disorders (B) Tubal factor infertility (C) Endometriosis (D) All of the above
7. Which of the following is a symptom of endometriosis?
(A) Painful menstruation (B) Pelvic pain (D) Infertility (D) All of the above
8. What is the first-line treatment for endometriosis?
(A) Oral contraceptive pills (B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists (C) Laparoscopy (D) All of the above
9. Which of the following is a risk factor for premature menopause?
(A) Smoking (B) Autoimmune disorders (C) Chemotherapy or radiation therapy (D) All of the above
10. What is the first-line treatment for premature menopause?
(A) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) (B) Calcium and vitamin D supplements (C) Lifestyle changes, such as diet and exercise (D) All of the above
Answers:
1. (D)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (A)
5. (D)
6. (D)
7. (D)
8. (D)
9. (D)
10. (D)

Monkeypox (Mpox)

Key facts

  • Mpox, also called “monkeypox,” is a disease caused by a virus called the monkeypox virus, which is a species of the genus Orthopoxvirus. There are two different clades: clade I and clade II.
  • Common symptoms of Monkeypox include a skin rash or mucosal lesions that can last 2–4 weeks, along with fever, headache, muscle aches, back pain, low energy, and swollen lymph nodes.
  • Monkeypox can be passed to humans through direct contact with an infected person, contaminated materials, or infected animals.
  • PCR tests of skin lesions can be used to prove Monkeypox in the lab.
  • Supportive care is used to treat mumps. Some vaccines and treatments for smallpox that have been cleared for use in some countries can also be used for Monkeypox.
  • In 2022–2023, a type called clade IIb spread Monkeypox all over the world.
  • You can avoid getting Monkeypox by staying away from people who have it. Vaccinations can help keep people who are at risk from getting sick.

Overview

Mpox, also called “monkeypox,” is a condition spread by the monkeypox virus. It may cause you a fever, a painful rash, and swollen lymph nodes. The majority of people get better, but some get very sick.

Anyone can get Monkeypox. It spreads through touch with people who have it:

  • Individuals, through touch, kissing, or sex;
  • Animals, when shooting, skinning, or cooking them;
  • Materials, such as dirty sheets, clothes, or needles;
  • Pregnant individuals, who may pass the virus on to their developing child.

If you have Monkeypox:

  • Tell anyone you’ve been close to recently
  • Stay at home until all the scabs fall off and a new layer of skin forms
  • Cover the sores and wear a mask when you’re around other people.
  • Don’t touch anyone.

The monkeypox virus, also known as MPXV, is what causes Monkeypox, which used to be called monkeypox. MPXV is an enveloped double-stranded DNA virus of the Orthopoxvirus genus in the Poxviridae family. Other viruses in this family include variola, cowpox, vaccinia, and others. Clades I and II are the two groups of genes that make up the virus.

The monkeypox virus was first found in 1958 in monkeys kept for study in Denmark. In 1970, a nine-month-old boy in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) was the first person to be diagnosed with monkeypox. Mumps can be passed from person to person and sometimes from animals to people. After smallpox was wiped out in 1980 and vaccinations against it were stopped everywhere, Monkeypox slowly spread through central, east, and west Africa. In 2022 and 2023, there was a worldwide spread. No one knows where the virus comes from in nature, but small animals like squirrels and monkeys can get it.

Transmission

Person-to-person transmission of Monkeypox can happen through direct contact with infected skin or other lesions, like those in the mouth or genitals. This includes

  • face-to-face contact (talking or breathing),
  • skin-to-skin contact (touching or vaginal/anal sex),
  • mouth-to-mouth contact (kissing), and
  • mouth-to-skin contact (oral sex or kissing the skin).
  • breathing drops or short-range fumes from close touch for a long time

The virus then gets into the body through broken skin, mucous areas (like the mouth, throat, eyes, genitalia, and urethra), or the breathing system. Mumps can spread to other people in the same house and to people who have sex. People who have more than one sexual partner are more likely to get sick.

People can get Monkeypox from animals when they bite or scratch them, or when they hunt, skin, trap, cook, play with dead animals, or eat them. We don’t know everything about how viruses spread through animal groups, and more research is being done.

People can get Monkeypox from infected items like clothes or sheets, from sharps injuries in health care, or in public places like tattoo parlours.

Signs and symptoms

Monkeypox causes signs and symptoms that usually start within a week, but can start anywhere from 1 to 21 days after contact. Symptoms usually last between two and four weeks, but someone with a weak immune system may have them for longer.

Common symptoms of Monkeypox are:

  • rash
  • fever
  • sore throat
  • headache
  • muscle aches
  • back pain
  • low energy
  • swollen lymph nodes.

For some people, the first sign of Monkeypox is a rash. For others, the first sign may be something else.

The rash starts out as a flat sore that turns into a blister filled with fluid. The blister may itch or hurt. As the rash gets better, the sores dry out, harden, and fall off.

Some people have one or two skin blemishes, while others have hundreds or even thousands. These can appear anywhere on the body such as the:

  • palms of hands and soles of feet
  • face, mouth and throat
  • groin and genital areas
  • anus.

Some people also have painful swelling of their rectum, or they have pain and trouble going to the toilet.

People with monkeypox are contagious and can give the disease to others until all the sores have healed and a new layer of skin has grown.

People with weak immune systems, children, and pregnant women are more likely to get sick from monkeypox.

Most of the time, heat, aches in the muscles, and a sore throat are the first signs of monkeypox. The rash of monkeypox starts on the face and moves to the rest of the body, including the palms and soles of the feet and hands. It happens in stages over 2 to 4 weeks: macules, papules, vesicles, and pustules. Lesions have a depression in the middle before they crust over. Then, the scabs fall off. Monkeypox often causes lymphadenopathy, which means that the lymph nodes swell up. Some people can be sick but not show any signs of illness.

In the setting of the worldwide spread of monkeypox that started in 2022 and was mostly caused by the Clade IIb virus, some people get sick in different ways. A rash can show up before or at the same time as other symptoms in just over half of cases, and it doesn’t always spread all over the body. The first spot can be in or around the mouth, in the groyne, or in the anus.

When someone has monkeypox, they can get very sick. For example, germs can get into the skin and cause sores or major damage to the skin. Other complications include pneumonia, an infection of the cornea that causes blindness, pain or trouble swallowing, vomiting and diarrhoea that cause severe dehydration or malnutrition, sepsis, inflammation of the brain (encephalitis), heart (myocarditis), rectum (proctitis), genital organs (balanitis), or urinary passages (urethritis), or death. Monkeypox is more likely to cause major illness or death in people whose immune systems are weak because of medicine or a medical condition. People whose HIV is not well controlled or handled are more likely to get very sick.

Diagnosis

Monkeypox can be hard to spot because it looks like other illnesses and diseases. It is important to tell the difference between monkeypox and chickenpox, measles, bacterial skin infections, lice, herpes, syphilis, and other sexually transmitted diseases, as well as allergies caused by medications. Someone with monkeypox might also have an illness that can be spread sexually, like herpes. On the other hand, a child who might have monkeypox could also have chickenpox. Because of these things, testing is important so that people can get care as soon as possible and the disease doesn’t spread further.

The best lab test for Monkeypox is polymerase chain reaction (PCR), which looks for virus DNA. The best diagnostic samples come from the rash itself—skin, fluid, or crusts—and are taken by swabbing it hard. If there are no skin sores, tests can be done with swabs from the oropharynx, the anus, or the pelvic area. It is not a good idea to test blood. Methods for finding antibodies may not be useful because they can’t tell the difference between different orthopoxviruses.

Treatment and vaccination

The goal of treating monkeypox is to get rid of the rash, ease the pain, and keep other problems from happening. It’s important to get care early and in a helpful way to help handle symptoms and keep problems from getting worse.

Getting a vaccine against monkeypox can help keep you from getting sick. The vaccine should be given within 4 days of coming into touch with someone who has monkeypox, or within 14 days if there are no signs.

People who are at a high risk of getting Monkeypox should get vaccine, especially when there is an outbreak. This includes:

  • health workers at risk of exposure
  • men who have sex with men
  • people with multiple sex partners
  • sex workers.

People who have monkeypox should be cared for away from other people.

Tecovirimat and other antivirals that were made to treat smallpox have been used to treat monkeypox, and more research is being done. There is more information about monkeypox vaccinations and how to treat cases.

Self-care and prevention

Most people get better in 2–4 weeks after getting monkeypox. Things you can do to ease the symptoms and keep from spreading the illness:

Do

  • If you can, stay home and in your own room.
  • Wash your hands often with soap and water or hand sanitizer, especially before or after touching sores.
  • Wear a mask and cover sores when you’re around other people until your rash heals.
  • Keep skin dry and covered (unless you’re in a room with someone else);
  • Don’t touch things in shared spaces and clean them often;
  • Rinse mouth sores with saltwater;
  • Soothe body sores with sitz baths, warm baths with baking soda or Epsom salts;
  • Take painkillers like paracetamol (acetaminophen) or ibuprofen.

Do not

  • pop blisters or scratch sores, which can slow healing, spread the rash to other parts of the body, and cause sores to get sick; or
  • shave areas with sores until scabs have healed and new skin is showing (this can spread the rash to other parts of the body).

To prevent Monkeypox from spreading to other people, those who have it should stay at home or, if necessary, in the hospital for as long as they are contagious (from the start of symptoms until sores have healed and scabs fall off). Covering the sores and wearing a medical mask when around other people may help stop the disease from spreading. Using a condom when you have sex will lower your chance of getting monkeypox, but it won’t stop the virus from spreading through skin-to-skin or mouth-to-skin contact.

Source: WHO

Manifestations Of Urinary System Disorders

 

MANIFESTATIONS OF URINARY SYSTEM DISORDERS
General Manifestations Specific Manifestations Related to Urinary System
 Edema  Pain  Patterns of Urination  Urine Output  Urine Composition
Fatigue Facial (periorbital) Dysuria Frequency Anuria Concentrated
Headaches Ankle Flank or Urgency Oliguria Dilute
Blurred vision Ascites costovertebral Hesitancy of stream Polyuria Hematuria
Elevated blood pressure Anasarca angle Change in stream Pyuria
Anorexia Sacral Groin Retention Color (red, brown,
Nausea and vomiting Suprapubic Dysuria yellowish green)
Chills Nocturia
Itching Incontinence
Excessive thirst Stress incontinence
Change in body weight Dribbling
Cognitive changes

Urinary System

HEALTH HISTORY
Health Perception–Health Management
• How is your energy level compared with 1 yr ago?
• Do you notice any visual changes?*
• Have you ever smoked? If yes, how many packs per day?
Nutritional-Metabolic
• How is your appetite?
• Has your weight changed over the past yr?*
• Do you take vitamins, herbs, or any other supplements?*
• How much and what kinds of fluids do you drink daily?
• How many dairy products and how much meat do you eat?
• Do you drink coffee? Colas? Tea?
• Do you eat chocolate?
• Do you spice your food heavily?*
Elimination
• Are you able to sit through a 2-hr meeting or ride in a car for 2 hr without urinating?
• Do you awaken at night with the desire to urinate? If so, how many times does this occur during an average night?
• Do you ever notice blood in your urine?* If so, at what point in the urination does it occur?
• Do you ever pass urine when you do not intend to? When?
• Do you use special devices or supplies for urine elimination or control?*
• How often do you move your bowels?
• Do you ever experience constipation?
• Do you frequently experience diarrhea? Do you ever have problems controlling your bowels? If so, do you have problems controlling the passage of gas? Watery or liquid stool? Solid stool?
Activity-Exercise
• Have you noticed any changes in your ability to do your usual daily activities?*
• Do certain activities aggravate your urinary problem?*
• Has your urinary problem caused you to alter or stop any activity or exercise?*
• Do you require assistance in moving or getting to the bathroom?*
Sleep-Rest
• Do you awaken at night from an urge to urinate?*
• Do you awaken at night from pain or other problems and urinate as a matter of routine before returning to sleep?*
• Do you experience daytime sleepiness and fatigue as a result of nighttime urination?*
Cognitive-Perceptual
• Do you ever have pain when you urinate?* If so, where is the pain?
Self-Perception–Self-Concept
• How does your urinary problem make you feel about yourself?
• Do you perceive your body differently since you have developed a urinary problem?
Role-Relationship
• Does your urinary problem interfere with your relationships with family or friends?*
• Has your urinary problem caused a change in your job status or
affected your ability to carry out job-related responsibilities?*
Sexuality-Reproductive
• Has your urinary problem caused any change in your sexual pleasure or performance?*
• Do you have hygiene problems related to sexual activities that cause you concern?*
Coping–Stress Tolerance
• Do you feel able to manage the problems associated with your urinary problem? If not, explain.
• What strategies are you using to cope with your urinary problem?
Values-Beliefs
• Has your present illness affected your belief system?*
• Are your treatment decisions related to your urinary problem in conflict with your value system?*

Health Assessment MCQs/BCQs 4th Semester

1.The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is involved in the sensory supply to __________

  1. Abdominal muscles
  2. Face and muscles of mastication
  3. Respiratory muscles
  4. Head and neck muscles

2. While palpating Ms. Asia’s chest, the nurse should detect a 1cm soft, tapping vibration over the midclavicular line at the 5th intercostal space (ICS). This is correctly interpreted as

  1. Heave
  2. Lift
  3. Normal PMI
  4. Thrill

3. While preforming passive Range Of Motion (ROM), your client has a strong painful muscle contraction. Which is this involuntary movement called?

  1. Spasm
  2. Asterixis
  3. Fasciculation
  4. Tremor

4. _________ Is the inability to move the joints after a period of rest:

  1. Stiffness
  2. Swelling
  3. Deformity
  4. Locking

5. The normal breathing sound is:

  1. Monophonic wheeze
  2. Wheeze (rhonchi)
  3. Crackles (crepitation)
  4. Vesicular

6. A connection or point of contact between bones and cartilage is called as:

  1. Muscle
  2. Ligaments
  3. Joint
  4. Tendon

7. The normal chest AP ratio is:

  1. 2.5
  2. 2.6
  3. 1.2
  4. 1.3
  5. 1.4

8. Which one is true about Weber test?

  1. Air conduction is less than bone conduction
  2. Both are nothing
  3. Air conduction is greater than bone conduction
  4. Bone conduction is greater than air conduction

9. To palpate the chest for thrills, nurse should use what part of hand

  1. Ulnar surface
  2. Palm
  3. Back of hands
  4. Finger tips

10. 20/20 vision means:

  1. Ptosis
  2. Normal vision
  3. Myopia
  4. Hyper myopia

11. Amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle over 1 minute:

  1. Preload
  2. Cardiac output
  3. Stroke volume
  4. Afterload

12. Nail base angle should normally measure

  1. 180 Degrees
  2. 100 Degrees
  3. 130 Degrees
  4. 160 Degrees

13. Blue bloater is sign of

  1. Asthma
  2. Bronchitis
  3. Bronchiestasis
  4. Emphysema

14. Lymph nodes are:

  1. Transverse, round or oval shaped structures
  2. Longitudinal, round or oval shaped structures
  3. Round, oval or bean shaped structures
  4. Long, round or oval shaped structures

15. Ability to recognize common objects through the senses:

  1. Aphasia
  2. Apraxia
  3. Graphesthesia
  4. Ataxia

16. _________ is a thin, pearly gray, oval, semi-transparent membrane at the medial end of the outer ear

  1. Tympanic cavity
  2. Semicircular canals
  3. Eustachian tube
  4. Tympanic membrane

17. Moving the ankle to bring the dorsum of the foot forward to the tibia:

  1. Plantar flexion
  2. Supination
  3. Protraction
  4. Dorsiflexion

18. During physical chest assessment nurse found that Mr. Asad has anterior-posterior chest diameter that is approximately same as his lateral diameter of rib cage. Nurse documents this as:

  1. Normal chest diameter
  2. Barrel chest
  3. Pectus excavatum
  4. Pectus carinatum

19. Flat sound normally heard over

  1. Bone
  2. Infant lungs
  3. Adult lungs
  4. Abdomen

20. Hyper Resonance sound normally heard over:

  1. Bone
  2. Abdomen
  3. Adult lungs
  4. Infant lungs

21. The most outer layer of the heart is

  1. Endocardium
  2. Myocardium
  3. Pericardium
  4. Precordium

22. Heel to toe walking is called:

  1. Adjustment
  2. Healthy walking
  3. Standing with feet together
  4. Tandem walking

23. ________ is a palpable vibration transmitted through patent bronchi and lung parenchyma to the chest wall where they can be felt as vibrations:

  1. Tactile fremitus
  2. Periodontal fremitus
  3. Pleura fremitus
  4. Dental fremitus

24. The phase of ventricular contraction in which the ventricles have been filled, then contract to expel the blood into the aorta and pulmonary arteries:

  1. Systole
  2. Diastole
  3. Cardiac output
  4. Stroke volume

25. Joint capable for flexion, extension and opposition

  1. Elbow
  2. Knee
  3. Thumb
  4. Finger

26. Movement of bone towards the midline is

  1. Extension
  2. Abduction
  3. Adduction
  4. Flexion

27. An ability to discern the shapes and details of the things you see:

  1. Visual acuity
  2. Visual field and visual acuity
  3. Accommodation
  4. Visual field

28. Sac containing fluid that are located around the joints to prevent friction is

  1. Capsule
  2. Tendon
  3. Cartilage
  4. Bursa
  5. Joint

29. A normal resting heart rate

  1. 100 to 150
  2. 150 to 200
  3. 60 to 100
  4. 60 to 70

30. A sound produced in part by hemodynamic events immediately following closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves

  1. S4
  2. S2
  3. S3
  4. S1

31. A barrel chest is not an expected finding for

  1. Aging adults
  2. Teenagers
  3. Infants
  4. In old age

32. Which type of test is perform for the Position sense

  1. Rinne test
  2. Allan test
  3. Romberg test
  4. Weber test

33. _________ is the ability to perceive and recognize an object in the absence of visual and auditory information

  1. Hemiparesis
  2. Paresis
  3. Stereognosis
  4. Graphesthesia

34. The grating sound produced be two inflamed surface is refers:

  1. Murmur
  2. Crackles
  3. Pleural friction rub
  4. Wheezes

35. Pink puffer is a sign of

  1. Bronchiectasis
  2. Emphysema
  3. Asthma
  4. Bronchitis

36. The first sound results from the closing of the _______ and _______ valves

  1. Aortic and pulmonary valves
  2. Aortic and tricuspid valves
  3. Mitral and pulmonic valves
  4. Mitral and tricuspid valve

37. The Vagus nerve provides motor supply to the

  1. Facial muscles
  2. Larynx
  3. Pharynx
  4. Sternocleidomastoid

38. Which one is proper grading for reflexes :

  1. 1 to 6
  2. 0 to 2
  3. 1 to 5
  4. 0 to 4

39. The cranial nerve 01 which have sense of smell is called

  1. Olfactory
  2. Optic nerve
  3. Trochlear
  4. Oculomotor

40. An instrument used to look into the ear canal is:

  1. Laryngeal scope
  2. Stethoscope
  3. Otoscope
  4. Ophalmoscope

Health Assessment Solved Past paper 2019

Q1) define interview and explain the principles of interviewing

Interview Definition:

The interview is a process of communication or interaction in which the subject or interviewee gives the needed information verbally in a face to face situation.

Principles Of Interviewing:

  1. Interviewing is a special kind of conversation
  2. Has a definite purpose
  3. More structured
  4. Strong element of control
  5. Two parties only: interviewer and respondent
  6. Different amounts of speaking (30/70)
  7. A significant aspect of daily business

Q2) describe the component of health history that should be produced during the assessment of skin, head and neck

Subjective Data:

  1. Any previous skin disease or problem (infection, rashes, lesions, itching).
  2. How was it treated?
  3. Skin allergic problem
  4. precipitating factors (stress, weather, drugs)
  5. Any birth marks or tattoos.
  6. Change in skin color, pigmentation and lesions
  7. Any recent hair loss
  8. Amount of sun exposure

Examination of Skin:

1. Color
2.Temperature
3.Texture
4.Mobility
5.Turgor
6.Moisture
7.Sensation
8.Integrity

Lesions

  1. lLocation/ distribution
  2. lMorphology
  3. –Primary
  4. –Secondary
  5. –Vascular
  6. –Cancerous

Q3) classify the structure landmarks of the nose mouth and pharynx

Nose

  1. The nose is the first segment of the respiratory system.
  2. It is the sensory organ of smell
  3. External nose (It shaped like a triangle with one side attached to the face on its leading edge.
  4. The superior part is the bridge and the free corner is the tip.
  5. The oval openings at the base of the triangle are the nares just inside, each nares widen into the vestibule.
  6. The upper third of the external nose is made of bone, the rest is cartilage. The parts of the nose are:
  7. Nasal cavity
  8. Septum
    iii.        Turbinate
    Paranasal sinuses
    Frontal
    Maxillary
    vii.       Ethmoid
    VIII. Sphenoid

Mouth

  1. Mouth is the first segments of the digestive system and the airway of the respiratory system.
  2. The oral cavity is the short passage boarded by the lips, palate, checks, and tongue.
  3. It continues the teeth, gums, tongue and salivary glands.
  4. The arching roof of the mouth is the palate, it is divided into two parts.
  5. The interior, hard palate; Posterior to this is the soft palate.
  6. The uvula is the free projection hanging down from the middle of the soft palate.
  7. The cheeks are the side walls of the oral cavity.
  8. Floor of the mouth is tongue and horse shoe shaped mandible bone.
  9. Parotid
  10. Submandibular gland
  11. Sublingual fold, duct and gland
  12. Teeth

Pharynx:

  1. Oropharynx
  2. Tonsils
  3. Nasopharynx

Q4) describe the specific assessment to be made during the physical examination of abdomen

Assessment

1. Inspect
a. Shape and contour
i. Look across abdomen left to right
ii. Can use pen light to look for visible bulging or masses
iii. Look for distention
b. Umbilicus – discoloration, inflammation, or hernia
c. Skin texture and color
d. Lesions or scars
i. Note details – length, color, drainage, etc.
e. Visible pulsations
f. Respiratory movements (belly breather)
2. Auscultate
a. Start in RLQ → RUQ → LUQ → LLQ
i. This follows the large intestine
b. Use diaphragm of stethoscope to listen for 1 full minute per quadrant
i. Active – Should hear 5-30 clicks per minute
ii. Hypoactive
iii. Hyperactive
iv. Absent – must listen for 5 minutes per quadrant to confirm this
c. Use bell of stethoscope to listen for bruits
i. Aorta – over the epigastrium
ii. Iliac and femoral arteries – Inguinal are
iii. Renal arteries – A few cm above and to the side of the umbilicus
1. Press firmly
iv. The presence of a bruit could indicate narrowing of the arteries – if this is a new finding, report to provider
3. Percuss
a. Percuss x 4 quadrants, starting in RLQ as with auscultation
b. Expect to hear tympany
c. Dullness could indicate a mass, fluid-filled bladder, blood in the belly, or significant adipose tissue
i. Exception – dullness over the liver is expected
d. CVA tenderness
i. Place nondominant hand flat over the costovertebral angle (flank).
ii. Strike your hand with the ulnar surface of your dominant hand
iii. Should be nontender
iv. Repeat bilaterally
4. Palpate
a. Light palpation – small circles in all 4 quadrants
i. Can do 4 small areas in each quadrant to be thorough
b. Deep palpation – deeper circles in all areas
c. Palpating for masses – make note of size, location, consistency, tenderness, and mobility
d. Make note of any guarding or tenderness
e. Assess for rebound tenderness
i. Press down slowly and deeply
ii. Release quickly
iii. Ask patient which hurt most (down or up)
iv. Rebound tenderness over RLQ could indicate appendicitis
f. If distended, perform Fluid-Wave test to look for ascites:
i. Place patient’s hand over umbilicus
ii. Place your hand on right flank, then tap or push on the left flank with your other hand
iii. If you feel the tap/push on the opposite hand, that’s a Positive Fluid-Wave test
1. Indicates Ascites
iv. You may also see the patient’s hand ‘wave’ with the fluid

Q5) define breast examination and discuss the steps of self-breast examination

 Definition

A physical exam of the breast performed by a health care provider to check for lumps or other changes. Also called CBE.

steps of self-breast examination

 Step 1: stand up before the mirror and Start by looking for differences between your breasts

  1. Good breast self-exams should be concerned with both the look and feel of breasts. The look element should be performed while either standing or sitting in front of a mirror, with your clothes removed. Examine both breasts and look for:
  2. Visible lumps
  3. Any unusual differences between the two breasts

iii.  Dimpling or indentations in the breast tissue

  1. Redness, scaliness, or other changes to the skin or nipples that appear abnormal
  2. Changes to your nipples, for example a nipple that is newly inverted or pulling in

Step 2: Put your hands on your hips, pull your elbows forward

  1. Look for the same changes in the breasts from Step 1 — such as redness, lumps and indentations — this time with your hands resting on your hips

while squeezing your elbows forward since this might bring out lumps that might not appear otherwise. Keep your hands on your hips and slowly swivel from side to side to catch possible abnormalities from more angles.

  1. Next, lift your arms above your head to see if there’s any puckering or dimpling of the skin when you elevate them. “When you raise your arms, the mass, if there is one, stays there and the skin pulls in,” says Kruper.

Step 3: Use 3 fingers when examining your breasts

  1. The feel part of the breast self-exam should be done while lying down, with a pillow propping up your head and your arm resting behind it. With the opposite hand, take the first three fingers — index, middle and ring fingers — and use them to press down around the breast and surrounding area using circular motions. Using three fingers, rather than just one, keeps you from mistaking normal breast tissue for lumps. Increase the pressure you use with each pass around the breasts to ensure you are not just feeling superficial tissue.

Step 4: Examine the areas surrounding the breast

  1. After examining your breasts, it is important to perform a check of the areas around them. Continue to use circular motions and increasing pressure as you move from the collarbone to the sternum and down below the breast. From the lower part of the breast, travel up to the area under your arm to look for any swelling in the lymph nodes. “What you’re looking for is something that stands out — something that feels like a pea, or a marble or a walnut,” says Kruper. “Something that definitely feels different than the surrounding breast tissue.”

Step 5: Perform the test at the same time each month

A, Be sure to do the breast self-examination the same time every month. If you are still menstruating, Kruper recommends you do the exam about seven to 10 days after your menstrual cycle, since at that time there will likely be fewer cycle-related changes in the breast tissue. Women who are postmenopausal can do the exam at any time of the month, as long it is around the same time each month.

B, Keep in mind that there is some debate about whether women should perform routine breast self-exams to find potentially cancerous lumps.

According to current research, some of the issues depend on the possibility of false positives and the possibility that the screenings might not really increase a woman’s probability of survival.

Q6) classify the equipment needed to perform a physical examination

 The equipment needed to perform a physical examination

  1. Within reach and ready
  2. Arranged as per need
  3. Required equipment
  4. Extra supplies/equipment
  5. Clean or sterile equipment
  6. Warm metallic piece

The following are the more common but essential medical tools that are used during physical health exam.

  1. Medical Weighing Scale
  2. Sphygmomanometer
  3. Stethoscope
  4. Thermometer
  5. Ophthalmoscope
  6. OTOSCOPE
  7. TUNING FORK
  8. NASAL SPECULUM
  9. PERCUSSION HAMMER
  10. VAGINAL SPECULUM
  11. PROTOSCOPE
  12. GLOVES

Q7) define health assessment and identify types of health assessment

Definition

A health assessment is a plan of treatment that outlines a person’s unique requirements and how those needs will be met. A is provided by the hospital system or a skilled nursing facility. Health assessment is the evaluation of one’s health status through a physical exam and a health history. It is done to detect diseases in people who appear to be healthy.
There are four types of Health Assessment

1)   Comprehensive Initial Assessment:

  1. The initial assessment, also known as triage assessment.
  2. Performed shortly after admittance to hospital
  3. Performed by the nurse to collect data on all aspects of patient’s health
  4. It helps to determine the nature of the problem and prepares the way for the ensuing assessment stages.
  5. The initial assessment is used more than the other assessments used by nurses.
  6. Components may include obtaining a patient’s medical history or putting him/her through a physical exam, or preparing a psychosocial assessment for a mental health patient.
  7. Other components may include obtaining a patient’s vital signs and taking subjective statements from the patient, as well as double-checking the subjective symptoms with the objective signs of the condition.

2)   Focused Assessment:

  1. The focused assessment is the stage in which the problem is exposed and treated.
  2. Due to the importance of vital signs and their ever-changing nature, they are continuously monitored during all parts of the assessment.
  3. May be performed during initial assessment or as routine ongoing data collection
  4. Performed to gather data about a specific problem already identified, or to identify new or overlooked problems
  5. Performed by the nurse to collect data about the specific problem
  6. Depending on the problem, initial treatment for pain and long-term treatment for the root cause of the trouble is administered and monitored.
  7. Part of the goal of the focused assessment is to diagnose and treat the patient in order to stabilize her condition.
  8. Focused assessments may also include X Rays or other types of tests.

3)   Time-Lapsed Assessment:

  1. Once treatment has been implemented, a time-lapsed assessment must be conducted to ensure that the patient is recovering from his problem and his condition has stabilized.
  2. Depending on the nature of the problem, the time-lapsed assessment may span the length of one or two hours or a couple of months.
  3. Performed to compare a patient’s current status to baseline data obtained earlier
  4. Performed to reassess health status and make necessary revisions in plan of care
  5. Performed by the nurse to collect data about current health status of patient
  6. During the time-lapsed assessment, the current status of the patient is compared to the previous baseline during and prior to treatment.
  7. Similar to the focused assessment, the time lapsed assessment may also include lab work, X-rays or other diagnostic medical testing.

4)   Emergency Assessments:

  1. During emergency procedures, a nurse is focused on rapidly identifying the root causes of concern for the patient and assessing the airway, breathing and circulation (ABCs) of the patient.
  2. Once the ABCs are stabilized, the emergency assessment may turn into an initial or focused assessment, depending on the situation.
  3. If the nurse is not in a health care setting, emergency assessments must also include an assessment for scene safety so that no other individuals, including the nurse himself/herself are hurt during the rescue and emergency response process.
  4. Performed by the nurse to gather data about the life-threatening problem