Category Archives: Health Assessment

Monkeypox (Mpox)

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Key facts

  • Mpox, also called “monkeypox,” is a disease caused by a virus called the monkeypox virus, which is a species of the genus Orthopoxvirus. There are two different clades: clade I and clade II.
  • Common symptoms of Monkeypox include a skin rash or mucosal lesions that can last 2–4 weeks, along with fever, headache, muscle aches, back pain, low energy, and swollen lymph nodes.
  • Monkeypox can be passed to humans through direct contact with an infected person, contaminated materials, or infected animals.
  • PCR tests of skin lesions can be used to prove Monkeypox in the lab.
  • Supportive care is used to treat mumps. Some vaccines and treatments for smallpox that have been cleared for use in some countries can also be used for Monkeypox.
  • In 2022–2023, a type called clade IIb spread Monkeypox all over the world.
  • You can avoid getting Monkeypox by staying away from people who have it. Vaccinations can help keep people who are at risk from getting sick.

Overview

Mpox, also called “monkeypox,” is a condition spread by the monkeypox virus. It may cause you a fever, a painful rash, and swollen lymph nodes. The majority of people get better, but some get very sick.

Anyone can get Monkeypox. It spreads through touch with people who have it:

  • Individuals, through touch, kissing, or sex;
  • Animals, when shooting, skinning, or cooking them;
  • Materials, such as dirty sheets, clothes, or needles;
  • Pregnant individuals, who may pass the virus on to their developing child.

If you have Monkeypox:

  • Tell anyone you’ve been close to recently
  • Stay at home until all the scabs fall off and a new layer of skin forms
  • Cover the sores and wear a mask when you’re around other people.
  • Don’t touch anyone.

The monkeypox virus, also known as MPXV, is what causes Monkeypox, which used to be called monkeypox. MPXV is an enveloped double-stranded DNA virus of the Orthopoxvirus genus in the Poxviridae family. Other viruses in this family include variola, cowpox, vaccinia, and others. Clades I and II are the two groups of genes that make up the virus.

The monkeypox virus was first found in 1958 in monkeys kept for study in Denmark. In 1970, a nine-month-old boy in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) was the first person to be diagnosed with monkeypox. Mumps can be passed from person to person and sometimes from animals to people. After smallpox was wiped out in 1980 and vaccinations against it were stopped everywhere, Monkeypox slowly spread through central, east, and west Africa. In 2022 and 2023, there was a worldwide spread. No one knows where the virus comes from in nature, but small animals like squirrels and monkeys can get it.

Transmission

Person-to-person transmission of Monkeypox can happen through direct contact with infected skin or other lesions, like those in the mouth or genitals. This includes

  • face-to-face contact (talking or breathing),
  • skin-to-skin contact (touching or vaginal/anal sex),
  • mouth-to-mouth contact (kissing), and
  • mouth-to-skin contact (oral sex or kissing the skin).
  • breathing drops or short-range fumes from close touch for a long time

The virus then gets into the body through broken skin, mucous areas (like the mouth, throat, eyes, genitalia, and urethra), or the breathing system. Mumps can spread to other people in the same house and to people who have sex. People who have more than one sexual partner are more likely to get sick.

People can get Monkeypox from animals when they bite or scratch them, or when they hunt, skin, trap, cook, play with dead animals, or eat them. We don’t know everything about how viruses spread through animal groups, and more research is being done.

People can get Monkeypox from infected items like clothes or sheets, from sharps injuries in health care, or in public places like tattoo parlours.

Signs and symptoms

Monkeypox causes signs and symptoms that usually start within a week, but can start anywhere from 1 to 21 days after contact. Symptoms usually last between two and four weeks, but someone with a weak immune system may have them for longer.

Common symptoms of Monkeypox are:

  • rash
  • fever
  • sore throat
  • headache
  • muscle aches
  • back pain
  • low energy
  • swollen lymph nodes.

For some people, the first sign of Monkeypox is a rash. For others, the first sign may be something else.

The rash starts out as a flat sore that turns into a blister filled with fluid. The blister may itch or hurt. As the rash gets better, the sores dry out, harden, and fall off.

Some people have one or two skin blemishes, while others have hundreds or even thousands. These can appear anywhere on the body such as the:

  • palms of hands and soles of feet
  • face, mouth and throat
  • groin and genital areas
  • anus.

Some people also have painful swelling of their rectum, or they have pain and trouble going to the toilet.

People with monkeypox are contagious and can give the disease to others until all the sores have healed and a new layer of skin has grown.

People with weak immune systems, children, and pregnant women are more likely to get sick from monkeypox.

Most of the time, heat, aches in the muscles, and a sore throat are the first signs of monkeypox. The rash of monkeypox starts on the face and moves to the rest of the body, including the palms and soles of the feet and hands. It happens in stages over 2 to 4 weeks: macules, papules, vesicles, and pustules. Lesions have a depression in the middle before they crust over. Then, the scabs fall off. Monkeypox often causes lymphadenopathy, which means that the lymph nodes swell up. Some people can be sick but not show any signs of illness.

In the setting of the worldwide spread of monkeypox that started in 2022 and was mostly caused by the Clade IIb virus, some people get sick in different ways. A rash can show up before or at the same time as other symptoms in just over half of cases, and it doesn’t always spread all over the body. The first spot can be in or around the mouth, in the groyne, or in the anus.

When someone has monkeypox, they can get very sick. For example, germs can get into the skin and cause sores or major damage to the skin. Other complications include pneumonia, an infection of the cornea that causes blindness, pain or trouble swallowing, vomiting and diarrhoea that cause severe dehydration or malnutrition, sepsis, inflammation of the brain (encephalitis), heart (myocarditis), rectum (proctitis), genital organs (balanitis), or urinary passages (urethritis), or death. Monkeypox is more likely to cause major illness or death in people whose immune systems are weak because of medicine or a medical condition. People whose HIV is not well controlled or handled are more likely to get very sick.

Diagnosis

Monkeypox can be hard to spot because it looks like other illnesses and diseases. It is important to tell the difference between monkeypox and chickenpox, measles, bacterial skin infections, lice, herpes, syphilis, and other sexually transmitted diseases, as well as allergies caused by medications. Someone with monkeypox might also have an illness that can be spread sexually, like herpes. On the other hand, a child who might have monkeypox could also have chickenpox. Because of these things, testing is important so that people can get care as soon as possible and the disease doesn’t spread further.

The best lab test for Monkeypox is polymerase chain reaction (PCR), which looks for virus DNA. The best diagnostic samples come from the rash itself—skin, fluid, or crusts—and are taken by swabbing it hard. If there are no skin sores, tests can be done with swabs from the oropharynx, the anus, or the pelvic area. It is not a good idea to test blood. Methods for finding antibodies may not be useful because they can’t tell the difference between different orthopoxviruses.

Treatment and vaccination

The goal of treating monkeypox is to get rid of the rash, ease the pain, and keep other problems from happening. It’s important to get care early and in a helpful way to help handle symptoms and keep problems from getting worse.

Getting a vaccine against monkeypox can help keep you from getting sick. The vaccine should be given within 4 days of coming into touch with someone who has monkeypox, or within 14 days if there are no signs.

People who are at a high risk of getting Monkeypox should get vaccine, especially when there is an outbreak. This includes:

  • health workers at risk of exposure
  • men who have sex with men
  • people with multiple sex partners
  • sex workers.

People who have monkeypox should be cared for away from other people.

Tecovirimat and other antivirals that were made to treat smallpox have been used to treat monkeypox, and more research is being done. There is more information about monkeypox vaccinations and how to treat cases.

Self-care and prevention

Most people get better in 2–4 weeks after getting monkeypox. Things you can do to ease the symptoms and keep from spreading the illness:

Do

  • If you can, stay home and in your own room.
  • Wash your hands often with soap and water or hand sanitizer, especially before or after touching sores.
  • Wear a mask and cover sores when you’re around other people until your rash heals.
  • Keep skin dry and covered (unless you’re in a room with someone else);
  • Don’t touch things in shared spaces and clean them often;
  • Rinse mouth sores with saltwater;
  • Soothe body sores with sitz baths, warm baths with baking soda or Epsom salts;
  • Take painkillers like paracetamol (acetaminophen) or ibuprofen.

Do not

  • pop blisters or scratch sores, which can slow healing, spread the rash to other parts of the body, and cause sores to get sick; or
  • shave areas with sores until scabs have healed and new skin is showing (this can spread the rash to other parts of the body).

To prevent Monkeypox from spreading to other people, those who have it should stay at home or, if necessary, in the hospital for as long as they are contagious (from the start of symptoms until sores have healed and scabs fall off). Covering the sores and wearing a medical mask when around other people may help stop the disease from spreading. Using a condom when you have sex will lower your chance of getting monkeypox, but it won’t stop the virus from spreading through skin-to-skin or mouth-to-skin contact.

Source: WHO

Manifestations Of Urinary System Disorders

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MANIFESTATIONS OF URINARY SYSTEM DISORDERS
General Manifestations Specific Manifestations Related to Urinary System
 Edema  Pain  Patterns of Urination  Urine Output  Urine Composition
Fatigue Facial (periorbital) Dysuria Frequency Anuria Concentrated
Headaches Ankle Flank or Urgency Oliguria Dilute
Blurred vision Ascites costovertebral Hesitancy of stream Polyuria Hematuria
Elevated blood pressure Anasarca angle Change in stream Pyuria
Anorexia Sacral Groin Retention Color (red, brown,
Nausea and vomiting Suprapubic Dysuria yellowish green)
Chills Nocturia
Itching Incontinence
Excessive thirst Stress incontinence
Change in body weight Dribbling
Cognitive changes

Urinary System

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HEALTH HISTORY
Health Perception–Health Management
• How is your energy level compared with 1 yr ago?
• Do you notice any visual changes?*
• Have you ever smoked? If yes, how many packs per day?
Nutritional-Metabolic
• How is your appetite?
• Has your weight changed over the past yr?*
• Do you take vitamins, herbs, or any other supplements?*
• How much and what kinds of fluids do you drink daily?
• How many dairy products and how much meat do you eat?
• Do you drink coffee? Colas? Tea?
• Do you eat chocolate?
• Do you spice your food heavily?*
Elimination
• Are you able to sit through a 2-hr meeting or ride in a car for 2 hr without urinating?
• Do you awaken at night with the desire to urinate? If so, how many times does this occur during an average night?
• Do you ever notice blood in your urine?* If so, at what point in the urination does it occur?
• Do you ever pass urine when you do not intend to? When?
• Do you use special devices or supplies for urine elimination or control?*
• How often do you move your bowels?
• Do you ever experience constipation?
• Do you frequently experience diarrhea? Do you ever have problems controlling your bowels? If so, do you have problems controlling the passage of gas? Watery or liquid stool? Solid stool?
Activity-Exercise
• Have you noticed any changes in your ability to do your usual daily activities?*
• Do certain activities aggravate your urinary problem?*
• Has your urinary problem caused you to alter or stop any activity or exercise?*
• Do you require assistance in moving or getting to the bathroom?*
Sleep-Rest
• Do you awaken at night from an urge to urinate?*
• Do you awaken at night from pain or other problems and urinate as a matter of routine before returning to sleep?*
• Do you experience daytime sleepiness and fatigue as a result of nighttime urination?*
Cognitive-Perceptual
• Do you ever have pain when you urinate?* If so, where is the pain?
Self-Perception–Self-Concept
• How does your urinary problem make you feel about yourself?
• Do you perceive your body differently since you have developed a urinary problem?
Role-Relationship
• Does your urinary problem interfere with your relationships with family or friends?*
• Has your urinary problem caused a change in your job status or
affected your ability to carry out job-related responsibilities?*
Sexuality-Reproductive
• Has your urinary problem caused any change in your sexual pleasure or performance?*
• Do you have hygiene problems related to sexual activities that cause you concern?*
Coping–Stress Tolerance
• Do you feel able to manage the problems associated with your urinary problem? If not, explain.
• What strategies are you using to cope with your urinary problem?
Values-Beliefs
• Has your present illness affected your belief system?*
• Are your treatment decisions related to your urinary problem in conflict with your value system?*

Health Assessment MCQs/BCQs 4th Semester

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1.The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is involved in the sensory supply to __________

  1. Abdominal muscles
  2. Face and muscles of mastication
  3. Respiratory muscles
  4. Head and neck muscles

2. While palpating Ms. Asia’s chest, the nurse should detect a 1cm soft, tapping vibration over the midclavicular line at the 5th intercostal space (ICS). This is correctly interpreted as

  1. Heave
  2. Lift
  3. Normal PMI
  4. Thrill

3. While preforming passive Range Of Motion (ROM), your client has a strong painful muscle contraction. Which is this involuntary movement called?

  1. Spasm
  2. Asterixis
  3. Fasciculation
  4. Tremor

4. _________ Is the inability to move the joints after a period of rest:

  1. Stiffness
  2. Swelling
  3. Deformity
  4. Locking

5. The normal breathing sound is:

  1. Monophonic wheeze
  2. Wheeze (rhonchi)
  3. Crackles (crepitation)
  4. Vesicular

6. A connection or point of contact between bones and cartilage is called as:

  1. Muscle
  2. Ligaments
  3. Joint
  4. Tendon

7. The normal chest AP ratio is:

  1. 2.5
  2. 2.6
  3. 1.2
  4. 1.3
  5. 1.4

8. Which one is true about Weber test?

  1. Air conduction is less than bone conduction
  2. Both are nothing
  3. Air conduction is greater than bone conduction
  4. Bone conduction is greater than air conduction

9. To palpate the chest for thrills, nurse should use what part of hand

  1. Ulnar surface
  2. Palm
  3. Back of hands
  4. Finger tips

10. 20/20 vision means:

  1. Ptosis
  2. Normal vision
  3. Myopia
  4. Hyper myopia

11. Amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle over 1 minute:

  1. Preload
  2. Cardiac output
  3. Stroke volume
  4. Afterload

12. Nail base angle should normally measure

  1. 180 Degrees
  2. 100 Degrees
  3. 130 Degrees
  4. 160 Degrees

13. Blue bloater is sign of

  1. Asthma
  2. Bronchitis
  3. Bronchiestasis
  4. Emphysema

14. Lymph nodes are:

  1. Transverse, round or oval shaped structures
  2. Longitudinal, round or oval shaped structures
  3. Round, oval or bean shaped structures
  4. Long, round or oval shaped structures

15. Ability to recognize common objects through the senses:

  1. Aphasia
  2. Apraxia
  3. Graphesthesia
  4. Ataxia

16. _________ is a thin, pearly gray, oval, semi-transparent membrane at the medial end of the outer ear

  1. Tympanic cavity
  2. Semicircular canals
  3. Eustachian tube
  4. Tympanic membrane

17. Moving the ankle to bring the dorsum of the foot forward to the tibia:

  1. Plantar flexion
  2. Supination
  3. Protraction
  4. Dorsiflexion

18. During physical chest assessment nurse found that Mr. Asad has anterior-posterior chest diameter that is approximately same as his lateral diameter of rib cage. Nurse documents this as:

  1. Normal chest diameter
  2. Barrel chest
  3. Pectus excavatum
  4. Pectus carinatum

19. Flat sound normally heard over

  1. Bone
  2. Infant lungs
  3. Adult lungs
  4. Abdomen

20. Hyper Resonance sound normally heard over:

  1. Bone
  2. Abdomen
  3. Adult lungs
  4. Infant lungs

21. The most outer layer of the heart is

  1. Endocardium
  2. Myocardium
  3. Pericardium
  4. Precordium

22. Heel to toe walking is called:

  1. Adjustment
  2. Healthy walking
  3. Standing with feet together
  4. Tandem walking

23. ________ is a palpable vibration transmitted through patent bronchi and lung parenchyma to the chest wall where they can be felt as vibrations:

  1. Tactile fremitus
  2. Periodontal fremitus
  3. Pleura fremitus
  4. Dental fremitus

24. The phase of ventricular contraction in which the ventricles have been filled, then contract to expel the blood into the aorta and pulmonary arteries:

  1. Systole
  2. Diastole
  3. Cardiac output
  4. Stroke volume

25. Joint capable for flexion, extension and opposition

  1. Elbow
  2. Knee
  3. Thumb
  4. Finger

26. Movement of bone towards the midline is

  1. Extension
  2. Abduction
  3. Adduction
  4. Flexion

27. An ability to discern the shapes and details of the things you see:

  1. Visual acuity
  2. Visual field and visual acuity
  3. Accommodation
  4. Visual field

28. Sac containing fluid that are located around the joints to prevent friction is

  1. Capsule
  2. Tendon
  3. Cartilage
  4. Bursa
  5. Joint

29. A normal resting heart rate

  1. 100 to 150
  2. 150 to 200
  3. 60 to 100
  4. 60 to 70

30. A sound produced in part by hemodynamic events immediately following closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves

  1. S4
  2. S2
  3. S3
  4. S1

31. A barrel chest is not an expected finding for

  1. Aging adults
  2. Teenagers
  3. Infants
  4. In old age

32. Which type of test is perform for the Position sense

  1. Rinne test
  2. Allan test
  3. Romberg test
  4. Weber test

33. _________ is the ability to perceive and recognize an object in the absence of visual and auditory information

  1. Hemiparesis
  2. Paresis
  3. Stereognosis
  4. Graphesthesia

34. The grating sound produced be two inflamed surface is refers:

  1. Murmur
  2. Crackles
  3. Pleural friction rub
  4. Wheezes

35. Pink puffer is a sign of

  1. Bronchiectasis
  2. Emphysema
  3. Asthma
  4. Bronchitis

36. The first sound results from the closing of the _______ and _______ valves

  1. Aortic and pulmonary valves
  2. Aortic and tricuspid valves
  3. Mitral and pulmonic valves
  4. Mitral and tricuspid valve

37. The Vagus nerve provides motor supply to the

  1. Facial muscles
  2. Larynx
  3. Pharynx
  4. Sternocleidomastoid

38. Which one is proper grading for reflexes :

  1. 1 to 6
  2. 0 to 2
  3. 1 to 5
  4. 0 to 4

39. The cranial nerve 01 which have sense of smell is called

  1. Olfactory
  2. Optic nerve
  3. Trochlear
  4. Oculomotor

40. An instrument used to look into the ear canal is:

  1. Laryngeal scope
  2. Stethoscope
  3. Otoscope
  4. Ophalmoscope

Health Assessment Solved Past paper 2019

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Q1) define interview and explain the principles of interviewing

Interview Definition:

The interview is a process of communication or interaction in which the subject or interviewee gives the needed information verbally in a face to face situation.

Principles Of Interviewing:

  1. Interviewing is a special kind of conversation
  2. Has a definite purpose
  3. More structured
  4. Strong element of control
  5. Two parties only: interviewer and respondent
  6. Different amounts of speaking (30/70)
  7. A significant aspect of daily business

Q2) describe the component of health history that should be produced during the assessment of skin, head and neck

Subjective Data:

  1. Any previous skin disease or problem (infection, rashes, lesions, itching).
  2. How was it treated?
  3. Skin allergic problem
  4. precipitating factors (stress, weather, drugs)
  5. Any birth marks or tattoos.
  6. Change in skin color, pigmentation and lesions
  7. Any recent hair loss
  8. Amount of sun exposure

Examination of Skin:

1. Color
2.Temperature
3.Texture
4.Mobility
5.Turgor
6.Moisture
7.Sensation
8.Integrity

Lesions

  1. lLocation/ distribution
  2. lMorphology
  3. –Primary
  4. –Secondary
  5. –Vascular
  6. –Cancerous

Q3) classify the structure landmarks of the nose mouth and pharynx

Nose

  1. The nose is the first segment of the respiratory system.
  2. It is the sensory organ of smell
  3. External nose (It shaped like a triangle with one side attached to the face on its leading edge.
  4. The superior part is the bridge and the free corner is the tip.
  5. The oval openings at the base of the triangle are the nares just inside, each nares widen into the vestibule.
  6. The upper third of the external nose is made of bone, the rest is cartilage. The parts of the nose are:
  7. Nasal cavity
  8. Septum
    iii.        Turbinate
    Paranasal sinuses
    Frontal
    Maxillary
    vii.       Ethmoid
    VIII. Sphenoid

Mouth

  1. Mouth is the first segments of the digestive system and the airway of the respiratory system.
  2. The oral cavity is the short passage boarded by the lips, palate, checks, and tongue.
  3. It continues the teeth, gums, tongue and salivary glands.
  4. The arching roof of the mouth is the palate, it is divided into two parts.
  5. The interior, hard palate; Posterior to this is the soft palate.
  6. The uvula is the free projection hanging down from the middle of the soft palate.
  7. The cheeks are the side walls of the oral cavity.
  8. Floor of the mouth is tongue and horse shoe shaped mandible bone.
  9. Parotid
  10. Submandibular gland
  11. Sublingual fold, duct and gland
  12. Teeth

Pharynx:

  1. Oropharynx
  2. Tonsils
  3. Nasopharynx

Q4) describe the specific assessment to be made during the physical examination of abdomen

Assessment

1. Inspect
a. Shape and contour
i. Look across abdomen left to right
ii. Can use pen light to look for visible bulging or masses
iii. Look for distention
b. Umbilicus – discoloration, inflammation, or hernia
c. Skin texture and color
d. Lesions or scars
i. Note details – length, color, drainage, etc.
e. Visible pulsations
f. Respiratory movements (belly breather)
2. Auscultate
a. Start in RLQ → RUQ → LUQ → LLQ
i. This follows the large intestine
b. Use diaphragm of stethoscope to listen for 1 full minute per quadrant
i. Active – Should hear 5-30 clicks per minute
ii. Hypoactive
iii. Hyperactive
iv. Absent – must listen for 5 minutes per quadrant to confirm this
c. Use bell of stethoscope to listen for bruits
i. Aorta – over the epigastrium
ii. Iliac and femoral arteries – Inguinal are
iii. Renal arteries – A few cm above and to the side of the umbilicus
1. Press firmly
iv. The presence of a bruit could indicate narrowing of the arteries – if this is a new finding, report to provider
3. Percuss
a. Percuss x 4 quadrants, starting in RLQ as with auscultation
b. Expect to hear tympany
c. Dullness could indicate a mass, fluid-filled bladder, blood in the belly, or significant adipose tissue
i. Exception – dullness over the liver is expected
d. CVA tenderness
i. Place nondominant hand flat over the costovertebral angle (flank).
ii. Strike your hand with the ulnar surface of your dominant hand
iii. Should be nontender
iv. Repeat bilaterally
4. Palpate
a. Light palpation – small circles in all 4 quadrants
i. Can do 4 small areas in each quadrant to be thorough
b. Deep palpation – deeper circles in all areas
c. Palpating for masses – make note of size, location, consistency, tenderness, and mobility
d. Make note of any guarding or tenderness
e. Assess for rebound tenderness
i. Press down slowly and deeply
ii. Release quickly
iii. Ask patient which hurt most (down or up)
iv. Rebound tenderness over RLQ could indicate appendicitis
f. If distended, perform Fluid-Wave test to look for ascites:
i. Place patient’s hand over umbilicus
ii. Place your hand on right flank, then tap or push on the left flank with your other hand
iii. If you feel the tap/push on the opposite hand, that’s a Positive Fluid-Wave test
1. Indicates Ascites
iv. You may also see the patient’s hand ‘wave’ with the fluid

Q5) define breast examination and discuss the steps of self-breast examination

 Definition

A physical exam of the breast performed by a health care provider to check for lumps or other changes. Also called CBE.

steps of self-breast examination

 Step 1: stand up before the mirror and Start by looking for differences between your breasts

  1. Good breast self-exams should be concerned with both the look and feel of breasts. The look element should be performed while either standing or sitting in front of a mirror, with your clothes removed. Examine both breasts and look for:
  2. Visible lumps
  3. Any unusual differences between the two breasts

iii.  Dimpling or indentations in the breast tissue

  1. Redness, scaliness, or other changes to the skin or nipples that appear abnormal
  2. Changes to your nipples, for example a nipple that is newly inverted or pulling in

Step 2: Put your hands on your hips, pull your elbows forward

  1. Look for the same changes in the breasts from Step 1 — such as redness, lumps and indentations — this time with your hands resting on your hips

while squeezing your elbows forward since this might bring out lumps that might not appear otherwise. Keep your hands on your hips and slowly swivel from side to side to catch possible abnormalities from more angles.

  1. Next, lift your arms above your head to see if there’s any puckering or dimpling of the skin when you elevate them. “When you raise your arms, the mass, if there is one, stays there and the skin pulls in,” says Kruper.

Step 3: Use 3 fingers when examining your breasts

  1. The feel part of the breast self-exam should be done while lying down, with a pillow propping up your head and your arm resting behind it. With the opposite hand, take the first three fingers — index, middle and ring fingers — and use them to press down around the breast and surrounding area using circular motions. Using three fingers, rather than just one, keeps you from mistaking normal breast tissue for lumps. Increase the pressure you use with each pass around the breasts to ensure you are not just feeling superficial tissue.

Step 4: Examine the areas surrounding the breast

  1. After examining your breasts, it is important to perform a check of the areas around them. Continue to use circular motions and increasing pressure as you move from the collarbone to the sternum and down below the breast. From the lower part of the breast, travel up to the area under your arm to look for any swelling in the lymph nodes. “What you’re looking for is something that stands out — something that feels like a pea, or a marble or a walnut,” says Kruper. “Something that definitely feels different than the surrounding breast tissue.”

Step 5: Perform the test at the same time each month

A, Be sure to do the breast self-examination the same time every month. If you are still menstruating, Kruper recommends you do the exam about seven to 10 days after your menstrual cycle, since at that time there will likely be fewer cycle-related changes in the breast tissue. Women who are postmenopausal can do the exam at any time of the month, as long it is around the same time each month.

B, Keep in mind that there is some debate about whether women should perform routine breast self-exams to find potentially cancerous lumps.

According to current research, some of the issues depend on the possibility of false positives and the possibility that the screenings might not really increase a woman’s probability of survival.

Q6) classify the equipment needed to perform a physical examination

 The equipment needed to perform a physical examination

  1. Within reach and ready
  2. Arranged as per need
  3. Required equipment
  4. Extra supplies/equipment
  5. Clean or sterile equipment
  6. Warm metallic piece

The following are the more common but essential medical tools that are used during physical health exam.

  1. Medical Weighing Scale
  2. Sphygmomanometer
  3. Stethoscope
  4. Thermometer
  5. Ophthalmoscope
  6. OTOSCOPE
  7. TUNING FORK
  8. NASAL SPECULUM
  9. PERCUSSION HAMMER
  10. VAGINAL SPECULUM
  11. PROTOSCOPE
  12. GLOVES

Q7) define health assessment and identify types of health assessment

Definition

A health assessment is a plan of treatment that outlines a person’s unique requirements and how those needs will be met. A is provided by the hospital system or a skilled nursing facility. Health assessment is the evaluation of one’s health status through a physical exam and a health history. It is done to detect diseases in people who appear to be healthy.
There are four types of Health Assessment

1)   Comprehensive Initial Assessment:

  1. The initial assessment, also known as triage assessment.
  2. Performed shortly after admittance to hospital
  3. Performed by the nurse to collect data on all aspects of patient’s health
  4. It helps to determine the nature of the problem and prepares the way for the ensuing assessment stages.
  5. The initial assessment is used more than the other assessments used by nurses.
  6. Components may include obtaining a patient’s medical history or putting him/her through a physical exam, or preparing a psychosocial assessment for a mental health patient.
  7. Other components may include obtaining a patient’s vital signs and taking subjective statements from the patient, as well as double-checking the subjective symptoms with the objective signs of the condition.

2)   Focused Assessment:

  1. The focused assessment is the stage in which the problem is exposed and treated.
  2. Due to the importance of vital signs and their ever-changing nature, they are continuously monitored during all parts of the assessment.
  3. May be performed during initial assessment or as routine ongoing data collection
  4. Performed to gather data about a specific problem already identified, or to identify new or overlooked problems
  5. Performed by the nurse to collect data about the specific problem
  6. Depending on the problem, initial treatment for pain and long-term treatment for the root cause of the trouble is administered and monitored.
  7. Part of the goal of the focused assessment is to diagnose and treat the patient in order to stabilize her condition.
  8. Focused assessments may also include X Rays or other types of tests.

3)   Time-Lapsed Assessment:

  1. Once treatment has been implemented, a time-lapsed assessment must be conducted to ensure that the patient is recovering from his problem and his condition has stabilized.
  2. Depending on the nature of the problem, the time-lapsed assessment may span the length of one or two hours or a couple of months.
  3. Performed to compare a patient’s current status to baseline data obtained earlier
  4. Performed to reassess health status and make necessary revisions in plan of care
  5. Performed by the nurse to collect data about current health status of patient
  6. During the time-lapsed assessment, the current status of the patient is compared to the previous baseline during and prior to treatment.
  7. Similar to the focused assessment, the time lapsed assessment may also include lab work, X-rays or other diagnostic medical testing.

4)   Emergency Assessments:

  1. During emergency procedures, a nurse is focused on rapidly identifying the root causes of concern for the patient and assessing the airway, breathing and circulation (ABCs) of the patient.
  2. Once the ABCs are stabilized, the emergency assessment may turn into an initial or focused assessment, depending on the situation.
  3. If the nurse is not in a health care setting, emergency assessments must also include an assessment for scene safety so that no other individuals, including the nurse himself/herself are hurt during the rescue and emergency response process.
  4. Performed by the nurse to gather data about the life-threatening problem

 

Health Assessment Paper- MCQs/BCQs

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1) When doing an assessment on a client’s eyes the very first thing that a nurse should look at is?
A. Eye internal structures
B. Eye external structures
C. The pupils reactivity to light
D. Color of the irises of the eye
2) While the nurse is inspecting the throat of a client with a tongue blade, the client begins to gag. What does this response indicate to the nurse?
A. The client is nauseated.
B. The client has nerve damage to his tongue.
C. The client has a functioning response.
D. The client has a malfunctioning response
3) During the health history, a client begins to talk about her dog and the trouble she is having housebreaking the new pet. To help the client return to the health interview, the nurse could use the communication skill:
A. Listening
B. Reflecting
C. Questioning
D. Focusing
4) After inspecting a client’s abdomen, which assessment technique should the nurse use next?
A. Light Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Deep Palpation
5) Nurse Tara asks her client Farhan to clench his jaw as she continues to palpate his head. When she asks him to do this what is Nurse Tara most likely trying to palpate?
A. Faran’s submandibular joint
B. Farhan’s submental joint
C. Farhan’s temporomandibular joint
D. Faran’s temporal artery
6) The nurse is planning to palpate a client’s bladder. Which area of the abdomen should this palpation be done?
A. Hypogastric region
B. Right hypochondriac region
C. Right Lower Quadrant
D. Left lumbar region
7) A 70-year-old male client comes into the clinic with weight loss and difficulty swallowing. Which of the following should the nurse document for this client?
A. Odynophagia
B. Bulimia
C. Dysphagia
D. Aphasia
8) A 15-year-old high school student came to the clinic with a 1-day history of nausea and anorexia. He describes the pain as generalized yesterday, but today it has localized to the right lower quadrant. You palpate the left lower quadrant and the patient experiences pain in the right lower quadrant. What is the name of this sign?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign
9) During eye assessment when you asked the patient to follow your finger or pencil as you move it in toward the bridge of the nose. Which of the following test you are performing?
A. Visual acuity
B. Visual Fields by Confrontation
C. Test for convergence
D. Visual fields
10) A nurse doing her assessment proceeds to palpate a client’s frontal and maxillary sinuses. What should she make sure she checks for?
A. Tactile signs of carcinoma
B. Swelling
C. Lesions
D. Tenderness
11) A nurse would use either a Snelling chart or the finger wiggle test to assess a client’s what?
A. Hearing
B. Vision
C. Consensual light reflex
D. Bone conduction
12) During assessment of pharynx you as the client to say “Ah” and uvula and soft palate rise centrally. It determines the function of which cranial nerve:
A. Spinal accessory
B. Vagus
C. Trochlear
D. Trigeminal
13) During the assessment of a client, the nurse gently touches the tip of a sterile cotton swab in the client’s eye. Which of the following would be considered an expected response for the client to make?
A. Begin sneezing.
B. Blink.
C. Scream in pain.
D. Swat the nurse’s hand away.
14) If assessing a client for kidney tenderness, where would you begin?
A. External Oblique Angle
B. Left Upper Quadrant
C. Right Upper Quadrant
D. Costovertebral Angle
15) The three things a nurse needs to check for when doing an examination on the eyes regarding the external structures is?
A. Eyelash texture, shape of eyes, redness
B. Shape of eyes, pupils reactivity, iris’s color
C. Drainage, possible tumors, irritation
D. Eyelash distribution, coloring, drainage
16) A 40-year-old female came for evaluation of abdominal pain. She stated that it is worse after eating, especially if she has a meal that is spicy or high in fat. She has taken antacids, but they have not helped the pain. After examining her abdomen, you strongly suspect cholecystitis. Which sign on examination increases your suspicion for this diagnosis?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign
17) During the percussion of a client’s abdomen, the nurse hears a loud high-pitched drum like tone. The nurse would document this sound as being:
A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Hyper-resonance
D. Flatness
18) What could the nurse assess based solely on the way the client walks into the room?
A. Signs of illness, well nourished
B. Dress and signs of illness
C. Gender and age
D. Gait and posture
19) Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of Bell’s palsy?
A. Asymmetry of the mouth
B. Asymmetry of the entire side of the face
C. Asymmetry of the lower face
D. Involuntary movements of the face
20) The nurse notices that a client walks with a limp and has long legs. Which of the following aspects of the general survey is this nurse assessing?
A. Physical appearance
B. Behavior
C. Mental status
D. Mobility
21) Test for shifting dullness is performed to assess:
A. Liver abscess
B. Ascites
C. Cholecystitis
D. Peritonitis
22) When a nurse performing the eye examinations, which piece of equipment does she/he use to inspect the eye structures?
A. Ultrasonic stethoscope
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Ophthalmoscope
D. Otoscope
23) The normal liver span of an adult is:
A. 7-12 cm
B. 5-12 cm
C. 6-12 cm
D. 4-12 cm
24) A client comes into the clinic for a routine breast and axilla exam. Which assessment technique does the nurse use first during this examination?
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion
25) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program…
C. A:
D. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E
26) Grade +2 pitting edema is:
A. 4 mm deep
B. 6 mm deep
C. 2 mm deep
D. 8 mm deep
27) The nurse is going to assess a client’s blood pressure. To do this, the nurse will need to have:
A. A stethoscope and sphygmomanometer
B. A tongue blade and tuning fork
C. A flashlight and gloves
D. A stethoscope and thermometer
28) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E.
C. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program.
D. Encourage all females to complete monthly breast exams
29) After auscultating the bowel sounds of a client, the nurse realizes the sounds were long. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to use to document this finding?
A. Intensity
B. Pitch
C. Quality
D. Duration
30) During the physical assessment of Mr. Ahsan’s skin, the nurse observed that Mr. Ahsan’s skin color is pale, the nurse expect that Mr. Ahsan may has:
A. Jaundice
B. Anemia
C. Heart failure
D. Pulmonary edema
31) The nurse assesses a client’s vision to be 20/150. The client asks for an explanation of the numbers. Which of the following would be a correct explanation for the nurse to say to the client?
A. You might need surgery to correct the nystagmus
B. You see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 150 feet.
C. You see at 150 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 20 feet.
D. You have impaired vision
32) A nurse conducting an assessment on a client’s head would do what first?
A. Inspect and palpate hair
B. Look at patient’s prior medical history
C. Inspect and palpate scalp
D. Inspect and palpate sinuses to control spread of germs
33) The nurse is planning to assess the abdomen of an adult male.
A. Place the client in side-lying position
B. Ask client to empty bladder
C. Tell client to raise arms above the head
D. Ask client to hold his breath for a few seconds
34) Normal angle at nail base is:
A. 10 degrees
B. 160 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 30 degrees
35) When performing an ear assessment, the nurse notes tenderness of the pinna and tragus to movement and the presence of drainage in the external canal. The nurse suspects which of the following?
A. Otitis Media
B. Otitis Externa
C. An inner ear infection
D. A negative rmberg’s sign
36) The nurse asks the client to move his eyes in the shape of an H and then in a large X. The portion of the physical assessment the nurse is completing with this client is:
A. Assessing the optic nerve
B. Assessing extra ocular muscle movements
C. Assessing the eyelids
D. Assessing the red reflex
37) As the nurse introduces the otoscope into a client’s ear, the client starts to jerk his head and complains of pain. Which of the following should the nurse do?
A. Remove the otoscope and reinsert taking care not to touch the sides of the ear canal.
B. Begin to remove the embedded cerumen.
C. Instill ear drops.
D. Document “unable to complete the examination.
38) Which cranial nerve is affected by Bell’s palsy?
A. Facial (CN VII)
B. Trigeminal (CN V)
C. Vagus (X)
D. Abducens (CN VI)
39) In medical which term is used for “impaired near vision”?
A. Amblyopia
B. Myopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Diplopia
40) During the physical examination of a male client’s scrotum, the nurse palpates a mass. What should the nurse do next with this information?
A. Perform transillumination to further assess the finding.
B. Nothing. This is a normal finding.
C. Document mass palpated, left testicle.
D. Ask the client how long he’s had a tumor in his testicle.
41) During the breast exam, the nurse asks the client to raise her arms over her head. Why did the nurse change the client’s position?
A. The client has small breasts.
B. The client has large breasts.
C. The nurse couldn’t palpate the axillae correctly.
D. Skin dimpling is accented in this position

 

Hypertension

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Key facts

  • Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a life-threatening medical condition that greatly raises the chances of cardiovascular disease, stroke, dementia, and renal failure, and many others.
  • It is estimated that 1.28 billion individuals aged 30-79 years worldwide have hypertension, with the majority (two-thirds) living in low- and middle-income countries.
  • Additionally, it is estimated that 46 percent of adults with hypertension do not know they have the illness.
  • Hypertension is detected in less than half of adult patients (42%).
  • Only about a fifth of persons with hypertension (21%) have it under control.
  • Premature mortality due to hypertension is a serious global health problem.

What exactly is hypertension?

Blood pressure is the force produced by flowing blood on the arterial walls, the body’s primary blood vessels. Hypertension is too high blood pressure.

Blood pressure is expressed as a pair of numbers. The first number (systolic) shows the blood vessel pressure when the heart contracts or beats. The second number (diastolic) indicates the pressure in the blood arteries between heartbeats.

When tested on two separate days, hypertension is diagnosed if the systolic blood pressure readings on both days are 140 mmHg and/or the diastolic blood pressure readings on both days are 90 mmHg.

Know the Risk Factors for High Blood Pressure (Hypertension) | Top 10 Home RemediesWhat risk factors are associated with hypertension?

Unhealthy diets (excessive salt consumption, a diet heavy in saturated fat and trans fats, and a poor intake of fruits and vegetables), physical inactivity, cigarette and alcohol use, and being overweight or obese are modifiable risk factors.

Non-modifiable risk factors include a family history of hypertension, age over 65, and coexisting conditions like diabetes or renal illness.

Pathophysiology Of Primary Hypertension

Hypertension is characterised by a consistently elevated SVR.

Retention of water and sodium: A high sodium intake may activate many pressor systems and produce water retention.

High plasma renin activity (PRA) causes an increase in the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which causes arteriolar constriction, vascular hypertrophy, and aldosterone production.

Stress and increased SNS activity: Anger, fear, and pain have an effect on arterial pressure. Normally protective physiological reactions to stress may continue to a pathologic degree, resulting in a protracted increase in SNS activity. Enhanced SNS activation results in increased vasoconstriction, heart rate, and renin release.

Insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia are frequent in primary hypertension, as are abnormalities of glucose, insulin, and lipoprotein metabolism. Vascular hypertrophy and enhanced renal salt reabsorption are supplementary pressor effects of insulin.

Endothelial cell dysfunction is characterised by a diminished vasodilator response to nitric oxide in some hypertensive individuals. Nitric oxide, an endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), helps maintain low arterial tone at rest, inhibits smooth muscle layer development, and prevents platelet aggregation. Vasoconstriction produced by endothelin is pronounced and protracted.

Symptoms of low blood pressure include feeling tired or dizzy.What are common hypertension symptoms?

Hypertension is referred to as the “silent killer.” The majority of hypertensive individuals are unaware of their condition, since there may be no warning indications or symptoms. Therefore, it is crucial that blood pressure be monitored often.

When symptoms do manifest, they might include headaches in the early morning, nosebleeds, abnormal heart rhythms, visual problems, and a buzzing sound in the ears. Severe hypertension may result in tiredness, nausea, vomiting, disorientation, anxiety, chest discomfort, and tremors.

A professional measurement of blood pressure is the sole method for detecting hypertension. The measurement of blood pressure is rapid and painless. Individuals may test their own blood pressure using automated equipment, but a professional examination is necessary for assessing risk and related problems.

What are the complications of hypertension that is uncontrolled?

In addition to other issues, hypertension may cause severe heart damage. Excessive pressure may cause artery hardening, reducing blood and oxygen flow to the heart. This increased blood pressure and decreased blood flow may result in:

  • Chest discomfort, often known as angina.
  • Heart attack, which happens when the heart’s blood flow is obstructed and heart muscle cells are deprived of oxygen, is fatal. The longer the heart is deprived of blood flow, the worse the cardiac damage.
  • Heart failure occurs when the heart is unable to pump sufficient blood and oxygen to other critical organs.

The irregular heartbeat that might cause abrupt death.

Additionally, hypertension may rupture or obstruct the arteries that feed blood and oxygen to the brain, resulting in a stroke.

Additionally, hypertension may damage the kidneys, leading to renal failure.

Why is hypertension a significant problem in low- and middle-income nations?

The prevalence of hypertension varies by geography and socioeconomic level within a nation. The WHO African Region has the greatest prevalence of hypertension at 27%, whilst the WHO American Region has the lowest incidence at 18%.

From 1975 to 2015, the number of individuals with hypertension grew from 594 million to 1.13 billion, with the majority of the rise occurring in low- and middle-income nations. This increase is mostly attributable to an increase in hypertension risk factors in these groups.

How may the consequences of hypertension be reduced?

Reducing hypertension avoids heart attacks, strokes, and renal damage, among other health complications.

Prevention

  • reducing salt consumption (to less than 5g daily).
  • Increasing consumption of fruits and vegetables.
  • Physical activity on a regular basis.
  • avoiding tobacco usage.
  • reducing the amount of alcohol consumed.
  • Restricting consumption of foods rich in saturated fats.
  • Dietary elimination or reduction of trans fats.

Management

  • Stress reduction and management.
  • Routinely monitoring blood pressure.
  • The treatment of high blood pressure
  • Managing additional health issues.

Nursing Management

Primary nursing duties for the long-term management of hypertension include assisting the patient in lowering blood pressure and adhering to the treatment plan. The nursing interventions include patient and family education, detection and reporting of adverse treatment effects, assessment and improvement of compliance, and evaluation of therapeutic efficacy.

Patient and family-centered instruction involves the following:

(1) dietary treatment,

(2) pharmacological therapy,

(3) physical exercise,

(4) home monitoring of blood pressure (if appropriate), and

(5) cessation of cigarette use (if applicable).

Health assessment MCQs

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1) When doing an assessment on a client’s eyes the very first thing that a nurse should look at is?
A. Eye internal structures
B. Eye external structures
C. The pupils reactivity to light
D. Color of the irises of the eye

2) While the nurse is inspecting the throat of a client with a tongue blade, the client begins to gag. What does this response indicate to the nurse?
A. The client is nauseated.
B. The client has nerve damage to his tongue.
C. The client has a functioning response.
D. The client has a malfunctioning response

3) During the health history, a client begins to talk about her dog and the trouble she is having housebreaking the new pet. To help the client return to the health interview, the nurse could use the communication skill:
A. Listening
B. Reflecting
C. Questioning
D. Focusing

4) After inspecting a client’s abdomen, which assessment technique should the nurse use next ?
A. Light Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Deep Palpation

5) Nurse Tara asks her client Farhan to clench his jaw as she continues to palpate his head. When she asks him to do this what is Nurse Tara most likely trying to palpate?
A. Faran’s submandibular joint
B. Farhan’s submental joint
C. Farhan’s temporomandibular joint
D. Faran’s temporal artery

6) The nurse is planning to palpate a client’s bladder. Which area of the abdomen should this palpation be done?
A. Hypogastric region
B. Right hypochondriac region
C. Right Lower Quadrant
D. Left lumbar region

7) A 70-year-old male client comes into the clinic with weight loss and difficulty swallowing. Which of the following should the nurse document for this client?
A. Odynophagia
B. Bulimia
C. Dysphagia
D. Aphasia

8) A 15-year-old high school student came to the clinic with a 1-day history of nausea and anorexia. He describes the pain as generalized yesterday, but today it has localized to the right lower quadrant. You palpate the left lower quadrant and the patient experiences pain in the right lower quadrant. What is the name of this sign?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign

9) During eye assessment when you asked the patient to follow your finger or pencil as you move it in toward the bridge of the nose. Which of the following test you are performing?
A. Visual acuity
B. Visual Fields by Confrontation
C. Test for convergence
D. Visual fields

10) A nurse doing her assessment proceeds to palpate a client’s frontal and maxillary sinuses. What should she make sure she checks for?
A. Tactile signs of carcinoma
B. Swelling
C. Lesions
D. Tenderness

11) A nurse would use either a Snelling chart or the finger wiggle test to assess a client’s what?
A. Hearing
B. Vision
C. Consensual light reflex
D. Bone conduction

12 ) During assessment of pharynx you as the client to say “Ah” and uvula and soft palate rise centrally. It determine the function of which cranial nerve:
A. Spinal accessory
B. Vagus
C. Trochlear
D. Trigeminal

13) During the assessment of a client, the nurse gently touches the tip of a sterile cotton swab in the client’s eye. Which of the following would be considered an expected response for the client to make?
A. Begin sneezing.
B. Blink.
C. Scream in pain.
D. Swat the nurse’s hand away.

14) If assessing a client for kidney tenderness, where would you begin?
A. External Oblique Angle
B. Left Upper Quadrant
C. Right Upper Quadrant
D. Costovertebral Angle

15) The three things a nurse needs to check for when doing an examination on the eyes regarding the external structures is?
A. Eyelash texture, shape of eyes, redness
B. Shape of eyes, pupils reactivity, iris’s color
C. Drainage, possible tumors, irritation
D. Eyelash distribution, coloring, drainage

16) A 40-year-old female came for evaluation of abdominal pain. She stated that it is worse after eating, especially if she has a meal that is spicy or high in fat. She has taken antacids, but they have not helped the pain. After examining her abdomen, you strongly suspect cholecystitis. Which sign on examination increases your suspicion for this diagnosis?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign

17) During the percussion of a client’s abdomen, the nurse hears a loud high-pitched drum like tone. The nurse would document this sound as being:
A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Hyper-resonance
D. Flatness

18) What could the nurse assess based solely on the way the client walks into the room?
A. Signs of illness, well nourished
B. Dress and signs of illness
C. Gender and age
D. Gait and posture

19) Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of Bell’s palsy?
A. Asymmetry of the mouth
B. Asymmetry of the entire side of the face
C. Asymmetry of the lower face
D. Involuntary movements of the face

20) The nurse notices that a client walks with a limp and has long legs. Which of the following aspects of the general survey is this nurse assessing?
A. Physical appearance
B. Behavior
C. Mental status
D. Mobility

21) Test for shifting dullness is performed to assess:
A. Liver abscess
B. Ascites
C. Cholecystitis
D. Peritonitis

22) When a nurse performing the eye examinations, which piece of equipment does she/he use to inspect the eye structures?
A. Ultrasonic stethoscope
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Ophthalmoscope
D. Otoscope

23) The normal liver span of an adult is:
A. 7-12 cm
B. 5-12 cm
C. 6-12 cm
D. 4-12 cm

24) A client comes into the clinic for a routine breast and axilla exam. Which assessment technique does the nurse use first during this examination?
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion

25) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. a. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. b. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program…
C. A:
D. c. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E

26) Grade +2 pitting edema is:
A. 4 mm deep
B. 6 mm deep
C. 2 mm deep
D. 8 mm deep

27) The nurse is going to assess a client’s blood pressure. To do this, the nurse will need to have:
A. A stethoscope and sphygmomanometer
B. A tongue blade and tuning fork
C. A flashlight and gloves
D. A stethoscope and thermometer

28) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E.
C. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program.
D. Encourage all females to complete monthly breast exams

29) After auscultating the bowel sounds of a client, the nurse realizes the sounds were long. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to use to document this finding?
A. Intensity
B. Pitch
C. Quality
D. Duration

30) During the physical assessment of Mr. Ahsan’s skin, the nurse observed that Mr. Ahsan’s skin color is pale, the nurse expect that Mr. Ahsan may has:
A. Jaundice
B. Anemia
C. Heart failure
D. Pulmonary edema

31) The nurse assesses a client’s vision to be 20/150. The client asks for an explanation of the numbers. Which of the following would be a correct explanation for the nurse to say to the client?
A. You might need surgery to correct the nystagmus
B. You see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 150 feet.
C. You see at 150 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 20 feet.
D. You have impaired vision

32) A nurse conducting an assessment on a client’s head would do what first?
A. Inspect and palpate hair
B. Look at patient’s prior medical history
C. Inspect and palpate scalp
D. Inspect and palpate sinuses to control spread of germs

33) The nurse is planning to assess the abdomen of an adult male.
A. Place the client in side-lying position
B. Ask client to empty bladder
C. Tell client to raise arms above the head
D. Ask client to hold his breath for a few seconds

34) Normal angle at nail base is:
A. 10 degrees
B. 160 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 30 degrees

35) When performing an ear assessment, the nurse notes tenderness of the pinna and tragus to movement and the presence of drainage in the external canal. The nurse suspects which of the following?
A. Otitis Media
B. Otitis Externa
C. An inner ear infection
D. A negative rmberg’s sign

36) The nurse asks the client to move his eyes in the shape of an H and then in a large X. The portion of the physical assessment the nurse is completing with this client is:
A. Assessing the optic nerve
B. Assessing extra ocular muscle movements
C. Assessing the eyelids
D. Assessing the red reflex

37) As the nurse introduces the otoscope into a client’s ear, the client starts to jerk his head and complains of pain. Which of the following should the nurse do?
A. Remove the otoscope and reinsert taking care not to touch the sides of the ear canal.
B. Begin to remove the embedded cerumen.
C. Instill ear drops.
D. Document “unable to complete the examination.

38) Which cranial nerve is affected by Bell’s palsy?
A. Facial (CN VII)
B. Trigeminal (CN V)
C. Vagus (X)
D. Abducens (CN VI)

39) In medical which term is used for “impaired near vision”?
A. Amblyopia
B. Myopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Diplopia

40) During the physical examination of a male client’s scrotum, the nurse palpates a mass. What should the nurse do next with this information?
A. Perform transillumination to further assess the finding.
B. Nothing. This is a normal finding.
C. Document mass palpated, left testicle.
D. Ask the client how long he’s had a tumor in his testicle.

41) During the breast exam, the nurse asks the client to raise her arms over her head. Why did the nurse change the client’s position?
A. The client has small breasts.
B. The client has large breasts.
C. The nurse couldn’t palpate the axillae correctly.
D. Skin dimpling is accented in this position

Health Assessment MCQs/BCQs

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Health Assessment

B.Sc Nursing (Post RN) 1st year 1st semester Session

Q.No.1: Choose the correct answer

Objective Paper
Q.No.1: Choose the correct answer
1. A plan of care that identifies the specific needs of the client and that needs will be addressed by the healthcare system or skilled nursing facility is
a. Health identification
b. Health assessment
c. Health examination
d. Disease identification
e. Patients assessment
2. The process in which diseases detect early in people that may look and feel well is called
a. Medical assessment
b. Disease assessment
c. Investigation of disease
d. Health assessment
e. Health care
3. Nurses use physical assessment skills to
a. To identify and manage a variety of patient problems
b. To discharge the patient from hospital
c. To collect the health history
d. To realize the patient importance to relatives
e. To enhance the quality of care
4. When a client have a complain of sever headache a nurse assess that it is
a. Objective data
b. Subjective data
c. Client history
d. Chief complain
e. Present complain

5. A patient admit in general ward and have a complain of vertigo a nurse check blood pressure and inform to doctor it is called
a. Subjective data
b. Take vital sign of client
c. Health history
d. Objective data
e. duty of nurse

6. A seated position back unsupported and legs hanging freely is
a. Dorsal recumbent
b. Supine
c. Sims
d. Lithotomy
e. Sitting
7. Lies on abdomen with head torn to the side, wit or without a small pillow this is
a. Supine position
b. Lithotomy position
c. Horizontal recumbent position
d. Prone position
e. Sims position
8. A assessment technique in which critical observation of client done without touching by nurse or health care provider is
a. Inspection
b. Palpation
c. Percussion
d. Auscultation
e. Objective data
9. During assessment a sounds produced by striking body surface of individual this step of technique is called
a. Subjective data
b. Objective data
c. Inspection
d. Percussion
e. Diagnostic procedure

 

10. A Stethoscope is used to listening the sounds produced by the body of patient or individual this technique is called
a. Inspection
b. Palpation
c. Percussion
d. Auscultation
e. Physical examination
11. During the physical examination a lubricant like xylocain jell or liquid paraffin is used to
a. Ease the insertion of instrument
b. Visualize the body part
c. Heal the injury
d. Enhance the client’s complain
e. Document the main complain of patient
12. A physical examination in which tongue blades ( depressor) is used
a. To depress the tongue during assessment of nose and throat
b. To depress the tongue during assessment of mouth and larynx
c. To depress the tongue during assessment of mouth and pharynx
d. To depress the tongue during assessment of mouth and esophagus
e. To elevate the tongue during assessment of mouth and pharynx
13. Vaginal speculum is used to assess the
a. ovary
b. fallopian tube
c. Uterus
d. Cervix & vagina
e. Urethra
14. During assessment a lighted instrument is used to visualize the anterior of eye is called
a. Otoscope
b. Stethoscope
c. Laryngoscope
d. Nasal speculum
e. Ophthalmoscope

 

15. When client have a complain of congested chest and sounds are audible without stethoscope it is
a. Direct auscultation
b. Indirect auscultation
c. Inspection
d. Percussion
e. Palpation

16. Acknowledging the patient’s verbal and nonverbal communication conveys true interest and encourages further communication by
a. History taking
b. Interview
c. Data collection
d. Subjective data
e. Objective data
17. Otitis media is an
a. Inflammation of external ear
b. Inflammation of middle ear
c. Inflammation of inner ear
d. Inflammation of nasal cavity
e. Inflammation of oral cavity
18. The interviews require less time and are very effective for obtaining factual data with specific questions and are controlled by the nurse
a. Interview
b. Directive interview
c. Nondirective interview
d. History taking step
e. Open-ended question
19. In interview elicit a “yes” or “no” response, to client this type of question are
a. Open question
b. Closed question
c. Direct question
d. Indirect question
e. Simple question

 

20. The time during which a female is menstruating
a. Menopause
b. Menstrual period
c. Last menstrual period
d. Expected date of menstruation
e. Irregular cycle

21. X-ray of breast
a. Mammogram
b. Digital x-ray
c. Ct-scan
d. MRI
e. Barium scan
22. The process of identification of the condition, needs, abilities and preferences of a patient is
a. Nursing assessment
b. Patient assessment
c. Medical assessment
d. Professional assessment
e. Physical assessment
23. The process gathering of information about a patient’s physiological, psychological, sociological, and spiritual status in
a. Nursing assessment
b. Patient assessment
c. Medical assessment
d. Professional assessment
e. Physical assessment
24. When Blanch Test is performed and nails pressed between the fingers the nails return to usual color in less than
a. 4 seconds
b. 6 seconds
c. 8 second
d. 2 second
e. 3 second
25. The thyroid gland is not visible during the
a. Inspection
b. Palpation
c. Percussion
d. Auscultation
e. Surgery
26. Patient was able to read the newsprint at a distance of
a. 8 inches
b. 10 inches
c. 12 inches
d. 20 inches
e. 25 inches

27. Able to hear ticking on right ear at a distance of one inch and was able to hear the ticking on the left ear at the same distance this assessment test is called
a. Hearing Acuity Test
b. Watch Tick Test
c. Blanch Test
d. Weber test
e. Assessment test
28. An instrument used to measure the B.P of client is called
a. Stethoscope
b. Otoscope
c. Ophthalmoscope
d. Sphygmomanometer
e. Laryngoscope
29. The sweat to reduce the body temperature is eliminated by
a. Sweats gland
b. Apocrine gland
c. Eccrine gland
d. Thyroid gland
e. Hypothalamus gland
30. For the detection of hearing loss an instrument in physical examination is called
a. Otoscope
b. Ophthalmoscope
c. Hammer
d. Tuning fork
e. Speculum

 

31. Cleft palate is a congenital defect where the maxillary process fails to fuse. This causes a gap in the
a. hard palate and possibly the lower lip
b. soft palate and possibly the upper lip
c. hard palate and possibly the upper lip
d. hard palate and possibly the corner of lip
e. hard palate and possibly the mucous part of lip
32. A 70-year-old woman complains of dry mouth. The most frequent cause of this problem is:
a. The aging process
b. Related to medications she may be taking
c. The use of dentures
d. Related to a diminished sense of smell
e. Atrophy of esophagus
33. 72-year-old client is considered a normal process or aging the most common complain
a. My tongue feels swollen.”
b. “My tonsils are large and sore.”
c. “I have white and black spots under my tongue.”
d. “Food does not taste the same as it used to.”
e. Insomnia
34. A technique in which the hands and fingers are used to gather information by touch or it may be either superficial or deep
a. Inspection
b. Palpation
c. Percussion
d. Auscultation
e. Physical examination
35. During physical examination when using the stethoscope its exact position between
a. index and little fingers
b. thumb and all four fingers
c. index and ring fingers
d. thumb and index fingers
e. index and middle fingers
36. Occipital lobe of brain is said to be
a. memory storage center
b. Emotions control center
c. Visual center
d. Interpretation of sensory center
e. Auditory center
37. Name, Date of Birth, Age, Parents & siblings information of client are gather in
a. Present history
b. Past medical history
c. Bio-graphic data
d. Health history
e. Interview
38. When a nurse performed the physical examination of abdomen the sequence of examination should be
a. Inspection, auscultation, Percussion, palpation
b. Inspection, palpation ,Percussion, , auscultation,
c. auscultation , Inspection, , Percussion, palpation
d. Percussion, Inspection, auscultation, palpation
e. Palpation, Inspection, auscultation, Percussion,
39. The appropriate time to collect a urine specimen from a patient Is
a. before the physical examination
b. any time the patient feels he can provide a specimen
c. during the examination
d. after the examination
e. after follow up
40. The best examination position for the physician to evaluate the patient’s ability to fully expand the lungs is the
a. Sitting position
b. Prone position
c. Lithotomy position
d. knee-chest position
e. Fowler’s position
41. A patient who has low blood pressure or is in shock would be placed in a
a. Sitting position
b. Prone position
c. Lithotomy position
d. knee-chest position
e. Trendelenburg position
42. The normal range for body temperature is
a. 96°F to 98°F
b. 97°F to 99°F
c. 98°F to 99°F
d. 97°F to 100.4°F
e. 96°F to 97 °F
43. A temperature of 103°F is classified as
a. Normal
b. Hypo pyrexia
c. Hyper pyrexia
d. Low-grade fever
e. Pyrexia
44. One respiration consists of
a. One inhalation
b. One exhalation
c. One inhalation and one exhalation
d. The opening and closing of the valves of the heart
e. The opening and closing of the pulmonary valves of the lungs
45. The normal respiratory rate of an adult ranges from:
a. 8 to 16 respirations per minute
b. 10 to 18 respirations per minute
c. 12 to 20 respirations per minute
d. 16 to 22 respirations per minute
e. 14 to 20 respirations per minute
46. The abbreviation used to record oxygen saturation as measured by a pulse oximeter is:
a. SaO2
b. PCO2
c. PO2
d. SpO2
e. SpO4
47. Blood pressure is measured in:
a. Units
b. Degrees
c. Beats/min
d. Millimeters of mercury
e. Nanometer
48. Over which artery is the stethoscope placed when taking blood pressure:
a. Radial
b. Brachial
c. Apical
d. Carotid
e. Femoral
49. When measuring blood pressure, the patient’s arm should be positioned
a. Above heart level
b. At heart level
c. Across the chest
d. With the palm facing downward
e. With the palm facing upward
50. The term used to describe the point of lesser pressure on the arterial walls when assessing blood pressure:
a. Systolic pressure
b. Diastolic pressure
c. Diastole
d. Hypotension
e. Pulse pressure

Subjective paper
Q: 01. Define health assessment? Enlist the step of history taking.
Q: 02. What is interview? Explain the interview phases.
Q: 03. Describe the physical assessment skill & give any one example of each skill.
Q: 04. What is vital sign? Differentiate the value of infant, adult and older with example of normal range.
Q: 05. Define exercise? Enlist the type of exercise.
Q: 06. Define the following terms:
a. Tachycardia
b. Bradypnea
c. Otitis media
d. Percussion
e. Subjective & objective data
f. Temperature

Answer key

1 B
2 D
3 A
4 B
5 D
6 E
7 D
8 A
9 D
10 D
11 A
12 C
13 D
14 E
15 A
16 B
17 B
18 B
19 B
20 B

 

21 A
22 B
23 A
24 A
25 A
26 A
27 B
28 D
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 D
34 B
35 E
36 C
37 C
38 A
39 A

40 A
41 E
42 C
43 C
44 C
45 C
46 D
47 D
48 B
49 B
50 B