Adult health Nursing-I Solved past papers- 2019

Q1) Explain Strategies for managing patient with urinary stress incontinence

Ans :- The nurse instructs the patient to:

1)Avoid bladder irritants, such as caffeine, alcohol, and aspartame (NutraSweet).

2)Avoid taking diuretic agents after 4 pm.

3)increased awareness of the amount and timing of all fluid intake.

4)Perform all pelvic floor muscle exercises as prescribed, every day.

5)Stop smoking (smokers usually cough frequently, which increases incontinence).

6)Take steps to avoid constipation: Drink adequate fluids, eat a well-balanced diet high in fiber, exercise regularly, and take stool softeners if recommended.

7)Void regularly, 5–8 times a day (about every 2–3 hours):

  • First thing in the morning
  • Before each meal
  • Before retiring to bed
  • Once during the night if necessary

Q2) a) difference between AIDS and HIV

  1. b) explain the prevention of HIV

HIV:

HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus)

HIV is the acronym for human deficiency virus

Virus that invades the immunity system

Patient may suffer minor difficulties; symptoms will be similar to flu

AIDS:

AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)

AIDS is the acronym for acquired immune deficiency syndrome

Large stage of spectrum of conditions, initially caused by the infection of (HIV)

Patient will experience severe sign and symptoms, disrupting the quality of life

Prevention of HIV

Individuals can reduce the risk of HIV infection by limiting exposure to risk factors.

1)Male and female condom use before sex

2)Testing and counselling for HIV and STIs

3)Testing and counselling, linkages to tuberculosis (TB) care

4)Avoid sharing contaminated needles, syringes and other injecting equipment and drug solutions when injecting drugs

5)Elimination of mother-to-child transmission of HIV

Q3) enlist types of hypersensitivity and explain management of any one of them And :- Definition

Hypersensitivity is an excessive or aberrant immune response to any type of stimulus

Types of hypersensitivity

1)Anaphylactic (Type I) Hypersensitivity

2)Cytotoxic (Type II) Hypersensitivity

3)Immune Complex (Type III) Hypersensitivity

4)Delayed-Type (Type IV) Hypersensitivity

Anaphylactic (Type I) Hypersensitivity Management

1)​Antihistamines act​to block the effects of ​histamine​, which reduces ​vascular permeability ​and ​bronchoconstriction​.
2)Corticosteroids ​which can be used to reduce the inflammatory response, as well as epinephrine​, which is sometimes given during severe reactions via intramuscular injections through an EpiPen or ​intravenous​injection.
3)​Epinephrine​can help constrict blood vessels and prevent ​anaphylactic shock​.

Q4) enlist complication of chemotherapy

Ans :- ​Complication of chemotherapy

  • Hair loss.
  • Easy bruising and bleeding.
  • Anemia (low red blood cell counts)
  • Nausea and vomiting.
  • Appetite changes.

Q5) explain immediate post operative care of patient after appendectomy Ans :-

Post Operative care

1)Monitor vital sign.
2)Assess level of consciousness.
3)Assess bleeding at wound site.
4)Give clear fluid for first POD.
5)Monitor for infection and any complication at the wound incision.
6)Administer IV prophylaxis antibiotics as ordered.
7)Maintain aseptic technique during dressing.
8)Encourage patient to do ROM exercise.

Q6) English types of abortion and explain management of any one Ans :- Definition

Interruption of pregnancy or expulsion of the product of conception before the fetus is viable is called abortion. The fetus is generally considered to be viable any time after the fifth to sixth month of gestation.

Types of abortion

1)Threatened abortion:-

The term threatened abortion is used when a pregnancy is complicated by vaginal bleeding before the 20th week. Pain may not be a prominent feature of threatened abortion, although a lower abdominal dull ache sometimes accompanies the bleeding. Vaginal examination at this stage usually reveals a closed cervix. 25% to 50% of threatened abortion eventually result in loss of the pregnancy.

Management

The patient is kept at rest in bed until 2 days after blood loss has ceased. Intercourse is forbidden. As soon as the initial bleeding has stopped an ultrasound scan is performed. This will reveal whether or not the pregnancy is intact. The prognosis is good when all abnormal signs and symptoms disappear and when the resumption of the progress of pregnancy is apparent.

2)Inevitable abortion:-

In case of inevitable abortion, a clinical pregnancy is complicated by both vaginal bleeding and cramp-like lower abdominal pain . The cervix is frequently partially dilated, attesting to the inevitability of the process.

Management

The uterus usually expels its contents unaided , and examination must be made with strict aseptic technique. If the abortion is not quickly completed, or if hemorrhage becomes severe, the contents of the uterus are removed with a suction curettege.

3)Incomplete Abortion:-

In addition to vaginal bleeding, cramp-like pain, and cervical dilatation , an incomplete abortion involves the passage of products of conception , often described by the women as looking like pieces of skin or liver.

Management

Patients require admission to the hospital. Treatment is aimed at preventing infection, controlling bleeding and obtaining an empty and involuting uterus. The chief risks associated with retained products are hemorrhage and sepsis.

4)Missed Abortion: –

The term missed abortion is used when the fetus has died but is retained in the uterus, usually for some weeks. After 16 weeks’ gestation, dilatation and curettage may become a problem. Fibrinogen levels should be checked weekly until the fetus and placenta are expelled.

Management

Once the diagnosis has been made the uterus should be emptied. Early in gestation evacuation of the uterus is usually accomplished by suction curettage. The prognosis for the mother is good. Serious complications are uncommon.

5) Recurrent Abortion: –

Recurrent abortion refers to any case in which there have been three consecutive spontaneous abortions. Possible causes are known to be genetic error, anatomic abnormalities of the genital tract, hormonal abnormalities, infection, immunologic factors, or systemic disease.

Management

Paternal and maternal chromosomes should be evaluated. The mother should be ruled out the presence of systemic disorders such as DM, SLE, and thyroid disease. It should rule out the presence of Mycoplasma, Listeria, Toxoplasma etc. infectious disease. Pelvic examination

Q7) English types of abortion and explain management of them

Types of abortion
1)Threatened abortion
2)Inevitable abortion
3)Incomplete Abortion
4)Missed Abortion
5)Recurrent Abortion

 

 

Adult Health Nursing-I solved past paper- 2019

Q1) a) describe cirrhosis of liver

Cirrhosis of the liver is a chronic, progressive disease characterized by widespread fibrosis(scarring) and nodule formation.

The development of cirrhosis is an insidious, prolonged course, usually after decades of chronic liver disease.

b) enlist its signs and symptoms

Some of the more common symptoms and signs of cirrhosis include:

    1. Yellowing of the skin (jaundice) due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood
    2. Fatigue
    3. Weakness
    4. Loss of appetite
    5. Itching
    6. Easy bruising from decreased production of blood clotting factors by the diseased liver.
  1. list 10 points of nursing intervention
    1. Promoting rest ​to conserve energy
    2. Improving nutritional status
    3. Providing skin care
    4. Reducing risk of injury
    5. Monitoring & managing Potential complication
  • Bleeding & hemorrhage
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
  • Fluid Volume excess
  1. Promoting home & self care
  2. Client teaching like deep breathing techniques.
  3. Provide adequate nutrition and education, encourage lifestyle changes
  4. Provide a quiet and calm environment.
  5. Provide comfort measures such as back rubbing and changing position to relieve pain.

Q2) a) define intestinal obstruction and its types

This obstruction can involve only the small intestine (small bowel obstruction), the large intestine (large bowel obstruction), or via systemic alterations, involving both the small and large intestine (generalized ileus). The “obstruction” can involve a mechanical obstruction or, in contrast, may be related to ineffective motility without any physical obstruction, so-called functional obstruction, “pseudo-obstruction,” or paralytic ileus

There are two main types

  1. Mechanical
    1. It is caused by physical barrier
      1. Adhesions
        1. Cause Tissue and organ stick together
      2. Tumor
      3. Hernia
      4. Intussusception
      5. Volvulus
      6. Fecal impaction
  2. Functional
    1. Lack or absence of peristalsis
      1. Lack of muscular contractions to move food contents

b) describe its management and nursing care

1)Collaborative Care

a. Relieving pressure and obstruction

b. Supportive care

2)Gastrointestinal Decompression

a. Treatment with nasogastric or long intestinal tube provides bowel rest and removal of air and fluid

b. Successfully relieves many partial small bowel obstructions

3)Surgery

a. Treatment for complete mechanical obstructions, strangulated or incarcerated obstructions of small bowel, persistent incomplete mechanical obstructions

b. Preoperative care

1.Insertion of nasogastric tube to relieve vomiting, abdominal distention, and to prevent aspiration of intestinal contents

2.Restore fluid and electrolyte balance; correct acid and alkaline imbalances

3.Laparotomy: inspection of intestine and removal of infarcted or gangrenous tissue

4.Removal of cause of obstruction: adhesions, tumours, foreign bodies, gangrenous portion of intestines and anastomosis or creation of colostomy depending on individual case

4)Nursing Care

a. Prevention includes healthy diet, uid intake

b. Exercise, especially in clients with recurrent small bowel obstructions

Q3) a) define renal failure and its causes

Definition

A condition in which the ​kidneys​stop working and are not able to remove waste and extra water from the blood or keep body chemicals in balance. Acute or severe renal failure​happens suddenly (for example, after an injury) and may be treated and cured.

The most common causes are:

    1. high blood pressure
    2. chronic glomerulonephritis (kidney damage)
    3. high blood sugar (diabetes)
    4. polycystic kidney disease
    5. blocked urinary tract
    6. kidney infection
  1. describe acute renal failure along with nursing care

Acute kidney failure​happens when your ​kidneys​suddenly lose the ability to eliminate excess salts, fluids, and waste materials from the blood. This elimination is the core of your ​kidneys​’main function. Body fluids can rise to dangerous levels when ​kidneys lose their filtering ability.

Nursing Interventions:

  1. Monitor 24-hour urine volume to follow clinical course of the disease.
  2. Monitor BUN, creatinine, and electrolyte.
  3. Monitor ABG levels as necessary to evaluate acid-base balance.
  4. Weigh the patient to provide an index of fluid balance.
  5. Measure blood pressure at various times during the day with patients in supine, sitting, and standing positions.
  6. Adjust fluid intake to avoid volume overload and dehydration.
  7. Watch for cardiac dysrhythmias and heart failure from hyperkalaemia, electrolyte imbalance, or fluid overload. Have resuscitation equipment available in case of cardiac arrest.
  8. Watch for urinary tract infection and remove bladder catheter as soon as possible.
  9. Employ intensive pulmonary hygiene because incidence of pulmonary oedema and infection is high.

10.Provide meticulous wound care.

11.Offer high-carbohydrate feedings because carbohydrates have a greater protein-sparing power and provide additional calories.

12.Institute seizure precautions. Provide padded side rails and have airway and suction equipment at the bedside.

13.Encourage and assist the patient to turn and move because drowsiness and lethargy may reduce activity.

14.Explain that the patient may experience residual defects in kidney function for a long time after acute illness.

15.Encourage the patient to report routine urinalysis and follow-up examinations.

16.Recommend resuming activity gradually because muscle weakness will be present from excessive catabolism.

Q4) a) what is abortion and describe its causes and types

Abortion is the termination of pregnancy before viability of the featus before 22 weeks or if the fetal weight is less than 500gm.

Or

Interruption of pregnancy or expulsion of the product of conception before the fetus is viable is called abortion. The fetus is generally considered to be viable any time after the fifth to sixth month of gestation.

There are three main types

    1. Spontaneous Abortion
      1. It is caused by
        1. abnormality in the fetus
        2. systemic diseases
        3. hormonal imbalance
        4. anatomic abnormalities
    2. Habitual Abortion
      1. It is caused by
        1. chromosomal anomalies
    3. Induced Abortion
      1. It is caused by
        1. A voluntary induced termination of pregnancy is performed by skilled health care providers
  1. right management of habitual abortion

Medical Management

After a spontaneous abortion, all tissue passed vaginally is saved for examination, if possible. The patient and all personnel who care for her are alerted to save any discharged material. In the rare case of heavy bleeding,the patient may require blood component transfusions and fluid replacement. An estimate of the bleeding volume can be determined by recording the number of perineal pads and the degree of saturation over 24 hours. When an incomplete abortion occurs, oxytocin may be prescribed to cause uterine contractions before D&E or uterine suctioning.

Nursing management

Because patients experience loss and anxiety, emotional support and understanding are important aspects of nursing care. Women may be grieving or relieved, depending on their feelings about the pregnancy. Providing opportunities for the patient to talk and express her emotions is helpful and also provides clues for the nurse in planning more specific care.

Q5) a) what is your understanding about infertility

Infertility is defined as a couple’s inability to achieve pregnancy after 1 year of unprotected intercourse

b) describe its pathophysiology and its management

Pathophysiology

  1. Age
  2. Weight
  3. Genetic causes ; turner syndrome
  4. Hypothalamic pituitary disorder
  5. Anatomical disorders

Management

  1. Assist in reducing stress in relationship
  2. Encourage cooperation
  3. Protect privacy
  4. Foster understanding and refer the couple to appropriate resources when necessary . Because infertility workups are expensive, time consuming , invasive , stressful, and not always successful .
  5. Couples need support in working together to deal with endeavor
  6. Smoking is strongly discouraged because it has an adverse effect on the success of assisted reproduction
  7. Diet, exercise , stress reduction techniques, health maintenance ,and disease prevention are being emphasized in many infertility programs .

Q6) a) define anaemia

Anaemia​is a condition in which you lack enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to your body’s tissues. Having ​anaemia​can make you feel tired and weak. There are many forms of ​anaemia​, each with its own cause.

b) enlist its types

The seven types of anaemia

  1. Iron deficiency anaemia​.
  2. Thalassaemia.
    1. Aplastic ​anaemia​.
    2. Haemolytic ​anaemia​.
    3. Sickle cell ​anaemia​.
    4. Pernicious ​anaemia​.
    5. Fanconi ​anaemia​.
  3. describe iron deficiency anemia in detail

As the name implies, ​iron deficiency anemia​is due to insufficient ​iron​. Without enough ​iron​, your body can’t produce enough of a substance in red blood cells that enables them to carry oxygen (hemoglobin). As a result, ​iron deficiency anemia​may leave you tired and short of breath.

Iron-Deficiency Anemia: Signs, Symptoms, and Treatment

  • Fatigue.
  • Weakness.
  • Pale skin.
  • Shortness of breath.
  • Dizziness.
  • Swollen, sore tongue.
  • Abnormal heart rate.

To treat iron deficiency anemia, your doctor may recommend that you take ​iron supplements​.

Iron supplements

  • Take ​iron​tablets on an empty stomach.
  • Don’t take ​iron​with antacids.
  • Take ​iron​tablets with vitamin C.

Q7) differentiate between palliative care and hospice care

Hospice care Palliative care
1) It is mainly based on comfortable care without any intention of curing a patient It targets on patient comfort and care with or without the presence of curative
2) Requires physician certification Does not require physician certification
3) Patient is not seeking curative measures or return to the hospital Patient may be seeking curative measures or return to the hospital
4) Patient has a terminal or untreatable illness with fewer than 6 months to live in the normal course of the disease Patient has a serious chronic or life limiting illness
5) Focus on symptoms management and quality of life Address goals of care focus on symptoms management and quality of life
6) Usually takes place in a home or home like environment Usually takes place in a hospital or medical facility
7) Patient has agreed to stop active/curative treatment Can be provided with active/curative treatment

 

Adult Health Nursing MCQs

1) It is clinical condition in which the arterial PH is greater then 7.45 PaCO3 is less then 38 mmHg.
A. Respiratory distress
B. Alkalosis & Acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

2) Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable to client with fecal incontinences?
A. Risk for deficient fluid volume
B. Disturbed body image
C. Bowel incontinence
D. Altered nutrition: more than body requirement

3) Cystitis is a type of urinary tract infection of:
A. Uncomplicated lower or upper UTI
B. Upper UTI
C. Complicated lower or upper UTI
D. Lower UTI

4) When counseling a client in ways to prevent cholecystitis, which of the following guidelines is most important?
A. Eat a low-fat low cholesterol diet
B. Limit exercise to 10 minutes/day
C. Keep weight proportionate to height
D. Eat a low-protein diet

5) % of abortion in the first 12 weeks of pregnancy result from chromosomal abnormalities:
A. 50 to 80
B. 20 to 30
C. 30 to 40
D. 40 to 45

6) The patient should be setting when deep breating and coughing because this position:
A. Loosens respiratory secretions
B. Helps the patient to support their incision wiht a pillow
C. Allows the patient to observe their area and relex
D. Is physically more comfortable for the patient

7) Five minutes after the client’s first post operative exercise, the client’s vital sign have not yet return to baseline. Which is an appropriate nursing diagnosis:
A. Alteration in comfort
B. Risk for activity intolerance
C. Impaired physical mobility
D. Risk for discuss syndrome
8) The doctor has ordered 500 mg of a medication po once a day. The tablets on hand are labeled as 1 tablet = 250 mg. How many tablets will you administer to your patient?
A. 03 Tablets
B. 1 Tablets
C. 02 Tablets
D. 04 Tablets

9) Foods high in purine are restricted to patients in:
A. Calcium stones
B. Oxalate stones
C. Uric acid stones
D. Struvite stones

10) What is/are the most common cause(s) of chronic liver disease?
A. Obesity
B. Bacteria
C. Gall bladder stones
D. Alcohol abuse

11) Inflammation of the lower end of the esophagus leading to a back flow of gastric juices is called:
A. Structural abnormalities
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Acid reflux
D. Reflux esophagitis

12) Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?
A. Mc Burney’s point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis
B. Lefty lower quadrant pain is suggestive of a appendicitis
C. Appendicitis is more common among females than males
D. A high fiber diet is a risk factor associated with appendicitis

13) Renal cell carcinoma which is greater than 7 cm tumor limited to the kidney, no evidence of lymph node involvement & metastatic disease is called:
A. Stage II RCC
B. Stage I RCC
C. Stage IV RCC
D. Stage III RCC

14) Excessive bleeding occurs at frequent intervals in reproductive disorders is:
A. Menometrorrhagia
B. Menorrhagia
C. Polymenorrhea
D. Metrorrhagia

15) A hernia is the of an organ or tissue out of the body cavity in which it is normally found:
A. Trauma
B. Syndrome
C. Protrusion
D. Pressure

16) Swelling of the salivary glands in mumps is called:
A. Periodontitis
B. Parotitis
C. Granuloma

D. Salivitis

17) Painless enlargement of one or more lymph nodes on one side of the neck is:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Non Hodgkin disease
C. Lymphomas
D. Hodgkin’s Disease

18) When establishing realistic goal, the nurse:
A. Bases of the goals on the narse’s personal knowledge
B. Must have the client cooperation
C. Knows the resourses of the health care facility, family and the client
D. Must have a client who is phyiscally and emotionally stable

19) Puberty age in female is:
A. 18 to 19 years
B. 19 to 20 years
C. 16 to 17 years
D. 10 to 14 years

20) A client being treated for chronic cholecystitis should be given which of the following instructions?
A. Use anti cholinergic as prescribed
B. Increase protein in diet
C. Avoid antacids
D. Increase rest

21) Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable to client with fecal incontinence?
A. Altered Nutrition:more than body requirement
B. Risk for Deficient fluid volume
C. Bowel Incontinence
D. Disturbed body image

22) What can reduce a patient’s anxiety and postsurgical pain?
A. Preoperative checklist
B. Psychological counseling
C. Preoperative teaching
D. Preoperative medication
23) A hiatus hernia occurs when the upper part of the stomach is dislocated through the hole, called a Hiatus, in the , into the chest:
A. Duodenum
B. Abdominal cavity
C. Diaphragm
D. Esophagus

24) Mechanical obstruction of intestine in which bowel twists and turns on itself:
A. Adhesions
B. Amyloidosis
C. Volvulus
D. Stenosis

25) Which electrolyte is essential for enyzme and neurological activities?
A. Magnesium
B. Phosphate
C. Potassium
D. Chloride

26) Which of the following stage the carcinogen is irreversible?
A. Progression stage
B. Promotion stage
C. Initiation
D. Regression

27) From the following nursing diagnosis which is suitable for hemorrhoids:
A. Urinary retention related to postoperative reflux spasm and fear of pain
B. Imbalance nutrition less than body requirement
C. Anxity related to surgical intervention
D. Constipation related to ignoring the urge to defecate because of pain during elimination

28) Which one is the best investigation to find out the stone in urinary tract:
A. Ultrasound
B. M.R.I
C. I.V.P
D. CT scan

29) Which is the most common complication of peptic ulcer disease?
A. Haemorrhage
B. Penetration
C. Gastric outlet obstruction
D. Perforation

30) In what order should one perform an abdominal assessment:
A. Inspection, percussion, palpitation, auscultation
B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpitation
C. Percussion, Palpitation, Inspection, Auscultation
D. Palpitation, Inspection, Percussion,. auscultation

31) From the following in which operation patient needs sitz bath:
A. Appendectomy
B. Colostomy
C. Hysterectomy
D. Hemorrhoids

32) Food poisoning “should be suspected with persons who shared food within the previous 1-6 hours, and symptoms of nausea, vomiting,and idarrhea, typically, this is due to:
A. Emetics
B. Infection
C. Intoxication
D. Inebrition

33) Is a malignant disorder of hemopoietic tissues, associated increased number of
leukocytosis in the blood:
A. Hemophilia
B. H. Influenza
C. Leukemia
D. Poly cythemia

34) is primarily a disease of children older than 2 years of age:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Renal abscess
D. Acute pyelonephritis

35) Spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites:
A. Dysplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Malignant
D. Metastasis

36) What intervention is the best relieve constipation during pregnancy?
A. Lying flat on back when sleeping
B. Taking a mild over-the counter laxative
C. Reduction of iron intake by half or more
D. Increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetable

37) Anemia which can be classified based on the body temperature and antibodies react with the RBC antigen is:
A. Polycythemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Immune hemolytic anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
38) is disorder in which bone lose density and become porous and fragile:
A. Menarche
B. Osteoporoses
C. Formix
D. Dysmenoria

39) The most appropriate tool in confirmation of malignancy in the patient is:
A. History
B. Physical examination
C. Blood CP
D. Biopsy of tissue

40) Normal Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) per minute is:
A. 115 ml
B. 100 ml
C. 105 ml
D. 120 ml

Health assessment MCQs

1) When doing an assessment on a client’s eyes the very first thing that a nurse should look at is?
A. Eye internal structures
B. Eye external structures
C. The pupils reactivity to light
D. Color of the irises of the eye

2) While the nurse is inspecting the throat of a client with a tongue blade, the client begins to gag. What does this response indicate to the nurse?
A. The client is nauseated.
B. The client has nerve damage to his tongue.
C. The client has a functioning response.
D. The client has a malfunctioning response

3) During the health history, a client begins to talk about her dog and the trouble she is having housebreaking the new pet. To help the client return to the health interview, the nurse could use the communication skill:
A. Listening
B. Reflecting
C. Questioning
D. Focusing

4) After inspecting a client’s abdomen, which assessment technique should the nurse use next ?
A. Light Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Deep Palpation

5) Nurse Tara asks her client Farhan to clench his jaw as she continues to palpate his head. When she asks him to do this what is Nurse Tara most likely trying to palpate?
A. Faran’s submandibular joint
B. Farhan’s submental joint
C. Farhan’s temporomandibular joint
D. Faran’s temporal artery

6) The nurse is planning to palpate a client’s bladder. Which area of the abdomen should this palpation be done?
A. Hypogastric region
B. Right hypochondriac region
C. Right Lower Quadrant
D. Left lumbar region

7) A 70-year-old male client comes into the clinic with weight loss and difficulty swallowing. Which of the following should the nurse document for this client?
A. Odynophagia
B. Bulimia
C. Dysphagia
D. Aphasia

8) A 15-year-old high school student came to the clinic with a 1-day history of nausea and anorexia. He describes the pain as generalized yesterday, but today it has localized to the right lower quadrant. You palpate the left lower quadrant and the patient experiences pain in the right lower quadrant. What is the name of this sign?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign

9) During eye assessment when you asked the patient to follow your finger or pencil as you move it in toward the bridge of the nose. Which of the following test you are performing?
A. Visual acuity
B. Visual Fields by Confrontation
C. Test for convergence
D. Visual fields

10) A nurse doing her assessment proceeds to palpate a client’s frontal and maxillary sinuses. What should she make sure she checks for?
A. Tactile signs of carcinoma
B. Swelling
C. Lesions
D. Tenderness

11) A nurse would use either a Snelling chart or the finger wiggle test to assess a client’s what?
A. Hearing
B. Vision
C. Consensual light reflex
D. Bone conduction

12 ) During assessment of pharynx you as the client to say “Ah” and uvula and soft palate rise centrally. It determine the function of which cranial nerve:
A. Spinal accessory
B. Vagus
C. Trochlear
D. Trigeminal

13) During the assessment of a client, the nurse gently touches the tip of a sterile cotton swab in the client’s eye. Which of the following would be considered an expected response for the client to make?
A. Begin sneezing.
B. Blink.
C. Scream in pain.
D. Swat the nurse’s hand away.

14) If assessing a client for kidney tenderness, where would you begin?
A. External Oblique Angle
B. Left Upper Quadrant
C. Right Upper Quadrant
D. Costovertebral Angle

15) The three things a nurse needs to check for when doing an examination on the eyes regarding the external structures is?
A. Eyelash texture, shape of eyes, redness
B. Shape of eyes, pupils reactivity, iris’s color
C. Drainage, possible tumors, irritation
D. Eyelash distribution, coloring, drainage

16) A 40-year-old female came for evaluation of abdominal pain. She stated that it is worse after eating, especially if she has a meal that is spicy or high in fat. She has taken antacids, but they have not helped the pain. After examining her abdomen, you strongly suspect cholecystitis. Which sign on examination increases your suspicion for this diagnosis?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign

17) During the percussion of a client’s abdomen, the nurse hears a loud high-pitched drum like tone. The nurse would document this sound as being:
A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Hyper-resonance
D. Flatness

18) What could the nurse assess based solely on the way the client walks into the room?
A. Signs of illness, well nourished
B. Dress and signs of illness
C. Gender and age
D. Gait and posture

19) Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of Bell’s palsy?
A. Asymmetry of the mouth
B. Asymmetry of the entire side of the face
C. Asymmetry of the lower face
D. Involuntary movements of the face

20) The nurse notices that a client walks with a limp and has long legs. Which of the following aspects of the general survey is this nurse assessing?
A. Physical appearance
B. Behavior
C. Mental status
D. Mobility

21) Test for shifting dullness is performed to assess:
A. Liver abscess
B. Ascites
C. Cholecystitis
D. Peritonitis

22) When a nurse performing the eye examinations, which piece of equipment does she/he use to inspect the eye structures?
A. Ultrasonic stethoscope
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Ophthalmoscope
D. Otoscope

23) The normal liver span of an adult is:
A. 7-12 cm
B. 5-12 cm
C. 6-12 cm
D. 4-12 cm

24) A client comes into the clinic for a routine breast and axilla exam. Which assessment technique does the nurse use first during this examination?
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion

25) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. a. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. b. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program…
C. A:
D. c. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E

26) Grade +2 pitting edema is:
A. 4 mm deep
B. 6 mm deep
C. 2 mm deep
D. 8 mm deep

27) The nurse is going to assess a client’s blood pressure. To do this, the nurse will need to have:
A. A stethoscope and sphygmomanometer
B. A tongue blade and tuning fork
C. A flashlight and gloves
D. A stethoscope and thermometer

28) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E.
C. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program.
D. Encourage all females to complete monthly breast exams

29) After auscultating the bowel sounds of a client, the nurse realizes the sounds were long. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to use to document this finding?
A. Intensity
B. Pitch
C. Quality
D. Duration

30) During the physical assessment of Mr. Ahsan’s skin, the nurse observed that Mr. Ahsan’s skin color is pale, the nurse expect that Mr. Ahsan may has:
A. Jaundice
B. Anemia
C. Heart failure
D. Pulmonary edema

31) The nurse assesses a client’s vision to be 20/150. The client asks for an explanation of the numbers. Which of the following would be a correct explanation for the nurse to say to the client?
A. You might need surgery to correct the nystagmus
B. You see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 150 feet.
C. You see at 150 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 20 feet.
D. You have impaired vision

32) A nurse conducting an assessment on a client’s head would do what first?
A. Inspect and palpate hair
B. Look at patient’s prior medical history
C. Inspect and palpate scalp
D. Inspect and palpate sinuses to control spread of germs

33) The nurse is planning to assess the abdomen of an adult male.
A. Place the client in side-lying position
B. Ask client to empty bladder
C. Tell client to raise arms above the head
D. Ask client to hold his breath for a few seconds

34) Normal angle at nail base is:
A. 10 degrees
B. 160 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 30 degrees

35) When performing an ear assessment, the nurse notes tenderness of the pinna and tragus to movement and the presence of drainage in the external canal. The nurse suspects which of the following?
A. Otitis Media
B. Otitis Externa
C. An inner ear infection
D. A negative rmberg’s sign

36) The nurse asks the client to move his eyes in the shape of an H and then in a large X. The portion of the physical assessment the nurse is completing with this client is:
A. Assessing the optic nerve
B. Assessing extra ocular muscle movements
C. Assessing the eyelids
D. Assessing the red reflex

37) As the nurse introduces the otoscope into a client’s ear, the client starts to jerk his head and complains of pain. Which of the following should the nurse do?
A. Remove the otoscope and reinsert taking care not to touch the sides of the ear canal.
B. Begin to remove the embedded cerumen.
C. Instill ear drops.
D. Document “unable to complete the examination.

38) Which cranial nerve is affected by Bell’s palsy?
A. Facial (CN VII)
B. Trigeminal (CN V)
C. Vagus (X)
D. Abducens (CN VI)

39) In medical which term is used for “impaired near vision”?
A. Amblyopia
B. Myopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Diplopia

40) During the physical examination of a male client’s scrotum, the nurse palpates a mass. What should the nurse do next with this information?
A. Perform transillumination to further assess the finding.
B. Nothing. This is a normal finding.
C. Document mass palpated, left testicle.
D. Ask the client how long he’s had a tumor in his testicle.

41) During the breast exam, the nurse asks the client to raise her arms over her head. Why did the nurse change the client’s position?
A. The client has small breasts.
B. The client has large breasts.
C. The nurse couldn’t palpate the axillae correctly.
D. Skin dimpling is accented in this position

Adult health Nursing-I solved past paper -2015

Q1) a) define Folic acid deficiency anaemia

Folate​-​deficiency anaemia​is the lack of ​folic acid​in the blood. ​Folic acid​is a B vitamin that helps your body make red blood cells. If you don’t have enough red blood cells, you have ​anaemia​. Red blood cells carry oxygen to all parts of your body.

  1. b) write down the dietary sources of Folic acid

Good sources include:

  1. broccoli
  2. brussels sprouts
  3. leafy green vegetables, such as cabbage, kale, spring greens and spinach
  4. peas
  5. chickpeas and kidney beans
  6. liver (but avoid this during pregnancy)
  7. breakfast cereals fortified with folic acid
  8. Okra
  9. Beets
  10. Orange juice
  1. write down the importance of Folic acid in human body
    1. Helps your body form red blood cells and DNA
    2. Promotes normal growth and development
    3. May play a role in prevention of certain cancers
    4. Reduces your risk for heart attack and stroke
    5. Can Prevent some Birth Defects

 

Q2) a) define renal failure

Renal failure is defined as a significant loss of renal function in both kidneys to the point where less than 10 to 20% of normal GFR remains.

  1. b) difference between acute and chronic renal failure
Acute renal failure Chronic renal failure
1) Onset – over days to weeks Onset 1) Onset – over weeks to months
2) Reversibility – Invariably reversible 2) Usually Irreversible
3) Cause – Pre-renal or post-renal 3) Mostly Renal.
4) Urinary volume – Oliguria & Anuria. 4) Polyuria & Nocturia.
5) Renal failure casts – Absent 5) Renal Failure casts – Present.
6) Specific Gravity – High. 6) Specific Gravity – Low & fixed.
7) Past history of renal disease – Absent 7) Present
8) Dialysis – Required for short period 8) Required repeatedly.
9) Renal transplantation – Not required 9) Required.

Q3) a) define leukemia

Definition It is a group of malignant disorder, affecting the blood and blood –forming tissue of the bone marrow lymph system and spleen.

  1. b) discuss the sign symptoms and diagnosis of Leukemia

Common leukemia signs and symptoms include:

  1. Fever or chills.
  2. Persistent fatigue, weakness.
  3. Frequent or severe infections.
  4. Losing weight without trying.
  5. Swollen lymph nodes enlarged liver or spleen.
  6. Easy bleeding or bruising.
  7. Recurrent nosebleeds.
  1. Tiny red spots in your skin (petechiae)

Diagnosis Of Leukemia

  1. History and physical examination
  2. Clinical features
  3. Blood Examination (work up)
  4. Peripheral blood examination
  5. Chest X ray
  6. Bone marrow studies: BM biopsy, imprint and aspiration.
  7. Flow cytometry
  8. Cytological differentiation and immunophenotyping: FISH, RTPCR, chromosome analysis

Q4) a) define ovarian cyst

ovarian cyst

An ovarian cyst is a semi-solid or fluid-filled sac within the ovary.

  1. b) discuss the causes and management of ovarian cyst

Cause Ovarian Cysts

  1. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that causes lots of small, harmless cysts to develop on your ovaries. The cysts are small egg follicles that do not grow to ovulation and are the result of altered hormone levels.

Medical Management

  1. Watchful waiting (observation):​ An ultrasound scan will be carried out about a month or so later to check it, and to see whether it has gone.
  2. Hormonal birth control pills: prevent the development of new cysts in those who frequently get them.
  3. Analgesic (Pain relievers):​such as nonsteroidal ant-inflammatory drugs, opioids analgesic.

Surgical Management

  1. Laparoscopy (keyhole surgery)
  2. Laparotomy

 

Q5) a) define Fluid volume excess

Fluid overload or volume overload (hypervolemia) is a medical condition where there is too much fluid in the blood. Excess fluid, primarily salt and water, builds up throughout the body resulting in weight gain.

  1. enlist the clinical manifestation and nursing management of fluid volume excess

Signs of fluid overload may include:

  1. Rapid weight gain.
  2. Noticeable swelling (oedema) in your arms, legs and face.
  3. Swelling in your abdomen.
  4. Cramping, headache, and stomach bloating.
  5. Shortness of breath.
  6. High blood pressure.
  7. Heart problems, including congestive heart failure.

Nursing Management of Fluid Volume Excess

  1. I&O and daily weights; assess lung sounds, oedema, other symptoms; monitor responses to medications- diuretics
  2. Promote adherence to fluid restrictions, patient teaching related to sodium and fluid restrictions
  3. Monitor, avoid sources of excessive sodium, including medications
  4. Promote rest
  5. Semi-Fowler’s position for orthopnoea
  6. Skin care, positioning/turning

Q6) a) define colorectal cancer

Colorectal cancer​is cancer that occurs in the colon or rectum. Sometimes it is called colon cancer

  1. b) discuss the risk factors and nursing management of colorectal cancer

Risk factors

  1. Genetics
  2. Family history
  3. Obesity
  4. Race
  5. Irritable bowel syndrome
  6. Type 2 diabetes

Nursing Management of Colorectal Cancer

1.Prevention is primary issue

2.Client teaching

3.Diet: decrease amount of fat, refined sugar, red meat; increase amount of fiber; diet high in fruits and vegetables, whole grains, legumes

4.Screening recommendations

5.Seek medical attention for bleeding and warning signs of cancer

6.Risk may be lowered by aspirin or NSAID use

Q7) write a short note on the following

1) CT scan

A computerized tomography (CT) scan combines a series of X-ray images taken from different angles around your body and uses computer processing to create cross-sectional images (slices) of the bones, blood vessels and soft tissues inside your body. CT scan images provide more-detailed information than plain X-rays do.

2) upper and lower GI endoscopies

Endoscopy is a procedure in which the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is viewed through a fiber-optic camera known as an endoscope, inserted either through the mouth (upper) to scan the oesophagus, stomach, and small intestines, or through the anus (lower) to examine the large intestine, colon and rectum.

3) ultrasound

Ultrasound is sound that travels through soft tissue and fluids, but it bounces back, or echoes, off denser surfaces. This is how it creates an image. The term “ultrasound” refers to sound with a frequency that humans cannot hear. For diagnostic uses, the ultrasound is usually between 2 and 18 megahertz (MHz).

4) barium studies

Barium studies are specialized X-ray examinations of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract such as the oesophagus, stomach, small and large intestines using a solution containing barium.

5)Biopsy (liver)

A liver biopsy is a procedure to remove a small piece of liver tissue, so it can be examined under a microscope for signs of damage or disease.

Adult health Nursing-I Solved past paper -2014

Q1) define cirrhosis of liver write its specific nursing management

Cirrhosis is a chronic progressive disease of the liver characterized by extensive degeneration and destruction of the liver parenchymal cells.

Specific Nursing Management

Nursing management for the patient with cirrhosis of the liver should focus on promoting rest, improving nutritional status, providing skin care, reducing risk of injury, and monitoring and managing complications.

Q2) define pancreatitis what are its clinical manifestations

Define pancreatitis

An inflammation of pancreas is called pancreatitis.

Clinical Manifestations

1.Pain in epigastrium region or in left upper quadrant

2.Constant pain

3.Low grade fever

4.Weight loss

5.Shock in severe condition

6.Nausea/Vomiting

7.Steatorrhea (fatty stool)

8.Decrease bowel movement

9.Breathlessness

10.Weak pulse

11.Low body temperature

12.Bluish discoloration of skin.

Q3) differentiate between peptic and duodenal ulcer

Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the inside lining of your stomach and the upper portion of your small intestine. The most common symptom of a peptic ulcer is stomach pain. Peptic ulcers include Gastric ulcers that occur on the inside of the stomach.

A duodenal ulcer is a peptic ulcer that develops in the first part of the small intestine (duodenum). An oesophageal ulcer occurs in the lower part of your oesophagus. Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the inside lining of your stomach and the upper portion of your small intestine.

Q4) define peritonitis and write its specific nursing management

Define peritonitis

An acute or chronic inflammation of peritoneum layer and peritoneal cavity.

Specific Nursing Management

1.Blood pressure monitoring

2.Medications

3.Pain management

4.I & O charting

5.Iv fluids

6.Drainage monitoring

Q5) define Iron deficiency anaemia write down its clinical manifestations and nursing management

Iron deficiency anaemia ​is a common type of anaemia — a condition in which blood lacks adequate healthy red blood cells. Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body’s tissues. As the name implies, iron deficiency anaemia is due to insufficient iron.

Iron deficiency anaemia signs and symptoms may include:

  1. Extreme fatigue.
  2. Pale skin.
  3. Chest pain, fast heartbeat, or shortness of breath.
  4. Headache, dizziness, or light-headedness.
  5. Cold hands and feet.
  6. Inflammation or soreness of your tongue.
  7. Brittle nails.

Nursing management

  1. Assess cardiovascular & respiratory status
  2. Monitor vital signs
  3. Recognizing s/s bleeding
  4. Monitor stool, urine, and emesis for occult blood
  5. Diet teaching—foods rich in iron
  6. Provide periods of rest
  7. Supplemental iron
  8. Discuss diagnostic studies
  9. Emphasize compliance
  10. Iron therapy for 2-3 months after the haemoglobin levels return to normal

Q6) define acute renal failure write down its specific nursing management

Renal failure ​is defined as a significant loss of renal function in both kidneys to the point where less than 10 to 20% of normal GFR remains.

Acute Renal Failure Nursing Management:

  1. Monitor for complications.
  2. Participate in emergency treatment of fluids and electrolyte imbalances
  3. Provide physical and emotional support
  4. Monitor fluid and electrolyte balance
  5. Reduce metabolic rate
  6. Promoting Pulmonary function

Q7) define urinary incontinence write down its clinical manifestations

Define urinary incontinence

Urinary incontinence is the involuntary leakage of urine. It means a person urinates when they do not want to. Control over the urinary sphincter is either lost or weakened.

1.Stress incontinence:​increased intra-abdominal pressure (sneezing, coughing, changing position)

2.Urge incontinence:​strong urge to void that cannot be suppressed (neurological dysfunction)

3.Reflex incontinence ​: hyper reflex in the absence of normal sensation (spinal cord injury)

4.Overflow incontinence:​over distention of the bladder (spinal cord lesions, tumours, strictures, prostatic hyperplasia.

5.Functional incontinence:​cognitive impairment, Alzheimer’s disease)

6.Lactogenic incontinence: ​Extrinsic medical factors (alpha-adrenergic agents

7.Mixed incontinence:​Combination of stress and urge incontinence

English MCQs/BCQs

English- BSN (Generic)

1. Yesterday she sent ______ SMS to me.
A. A
B. All of these
C. An
D. The

2. That day he _________ do as I asked him to do.
A. Does not
B. Did not
C. would not
D. Will not

3. Where is__________ pen, I gave you yesterday?
A. this
B. a
C. the
D. an

4. Are you waiting for him __________the airport?
A. Inside
B. Onto
C. On
D. At

5. An eagle flies faster than any other bird of prey (Identify underlined phrase)
A. Pronoun
B. Interjection
C. Adjective
D. Adverb

6. They are walking ______the North.
A. Since
B. Towards
C. Under
D. On

7. He drove his car very slowly (identify the marked phrase)
A. conjunction/ adjective
B. adverb/ adverb
C. adverb/ adjective
D. adjective/ adverb

8. I have already _____________this movie, you must buy another one.
A. Watch
B. Watches
C. Watched
D. Watching

9. They have been working in Karachi_______16 years.
A. from
B. since
C. up to
D. for

10. The jet sped into the deep blue sky. (Identify underlined phrase)
A. noun
B. preposition
C. adjective
D. conjunction
E. adverb

11. ______Sun rises in ______east.
A. X/An
B. A/An
C. A/The
D. The/The

12. They will be driving______2pm____4pm.
A. from/up to
B. since/x
C. from/to
D. for/x

13. Sana has_________ her book to me to mark important chapters that may help her in her interview.
A. Given
B. Gave
C. Gives
D. Give

14. Last Tuesday it _________raining since morning.
A. had
B. had been
C. has
D. have

15. She did not _______her convocation ceremony.
A. attends
B. attend
C. attended
D. have been tending
E. attending

16. Sobia & Fehmida _______plucked many flowers four garden recently.
A. have been
B. has
C. have
D. are

17. They usually _______English in their offices thus, we don’t face problem in understanding their instructions.
A. speaking
B. spoke
C. speak
D. speaks

18. Mr. Saleem is ____lecturer in our college.
A. a
B. an
C. the
D. x

19. Why were you so angry? (Identify underlined phrase)
A. Adverb
B. Preposition
C. Pronoun
D. Adjective

20. The way he answered me was really so sweet (identify the marked phrase)
A. adjective
B. preposition
C. conjunction
D. adverb

21. You have been doing your lab work___________24 hour
A. till
B. Since
C. for
D. from

22. Last Sunday they _________me several questions before my flight to Dubai.
A. asks
B. ask
C. asked
D. asking

23. Our team has been maintaining the score ____________15 minutes and 37seconds.
A. until
B. from
C. for
D. Since

24. Your friend is really sweet (identify the underline phrase)
A. verb
B. adjective
C. adverb
D. noun

25. Did you ___________attention to the announcement?
A. Paying
B. Pay
C. Pays
D. Had paid

26. Did Ayesha call her brother yesterday? Yes, she__________
A. called
B. did not called
C. call
D. have not been calling

27. He is an intelligent but a lazy boy (identify conjunction)
A. lazy
B. intelligent
C. but
D. an

28. Farhan has gone home _______he had to leave for his job interview in the afternoon.
A. But
B. Asif
C. Because
D. Therefore

29. Ali and Ahsan have been living in Islamabad ______January.
A. from
B. up to
C. since
D. for

30. She is my ___aunty, she is very sweet:
A. the
B. none of these
C. a
D. an

31. Several planets are bigger than the earth. (Identify subject)
A. the earth
B. Several
C. Planets and earth
D. several planets

32. He is _________honest man among all.
A. The
B. A
C. All these
D. An

33. My sibling did not ____________to meet their class fellow.
A. Will go
B. Gone
C. Went
D. Go

34. She answered every question very beautifully. (Identify underlined phrase)
A. interjection
B. preposition
C. Adjective
D. adverb

35. Today Hammad ________helping his brother to complete his task.
A. has
B. is
C. were
D. will

36. Zara decided to-do ______best she could.
A. An
B. A
C. The
D. None of these

37. Next year we ___________admission in Lahore.
A. Will get
B. have got
C. got
D. will got
E. get

38. These days she is trying to _________some different research work.
A. Do
B. Doing
C. Did
D. Done

39. Salman is such a tremendous player; he is ______Shahid Afridi of our team.
A. a
B. none of these
C. an
D. the

Answer Key

  1. C
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. C
  6. B
  7. D
  8. C
  9. D
  10. E
  11. D
  12. C
  13. A
  14. B
  15. B
  16. C
  17. C
  18. A
  19. D
  20. A
  21. C
  22. C
  23. C
  24. B
  25. B
  26. A
  27. C
  28. A
  29. A
  30. D
  31. C
  32. D
  33. D
  34. C
  35. A
  36. C
  37. A
  38. A
  39. A

Islamiat MCQs/BCQs

Islamiat |1stYear| 2nd Semester| BSN (Generic)

  1. The conquest of Makkah was held in year:
    A) 6 hijra
    B) 9 hijra
    C) 7 hijra
    D) 8 hijra
    E) 10 hijra
  2. The name of grandfather of the Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H):

Abdul Mutalib

3. The Qureshi were used profession of
A) Farming
B) Teaching
C) Trading
D) Hunting
E) Fishing

4. When Prophet Muhammad(PBUH) left his followers physically the Muslims take an oath on the hand of:
A) Hazrat Ali R.A
B) Hazrat Abu Bakar R.A
C) Hazrat Usman R.A
D) Hazrat Talha R.A
E) Hazrat Umar R.A

5. The batle of Khyber was fought in hijrah:
A) 9th
B) 7th
C) 5th
D) 8th
E) 6th

6. The First Battle was fought between Muslim of Madina Quraish of Makkah was:
A) Khyber
B) Muta
C) Khandak
D) Uhad
E) Badar

7. In the battle of Baddr the leader of Quraysh was :
A) Aamir Al Hazar
B) Utbabin Rabia
C) Abu Sufyan
D) Abu Jihil
E) Umar bin abdwud

8. The name of the 1st wife of the Prophet (P.B.U.H):
A) Bibi Ume-e-Salma R.A
B) Bibi Ayesha R.A
C) Bibi Hafsa R.A
D) Bibi Khadija R.A
E) Bibi Safia R.A

9. Hazrat Ali R.A belong to:
A) Bano Quraiza
B) Bano Nazir
C) Bano Hashim
D) Bano Abbas
E) Bano Ummya

10. The Name of The Prophet whom the people had took into the fire was:
A) Hazra Essa A.S
B) Hazrat Zakarya A.S
C) Hazrat Ibrahim A.S
D) Hazrat Mussa A.S
E) Hazrat Daud A.S

11. The number of Khulafa-e-Rashdin are:
A) Two
B) Five
C) Three
D) Four
E) Six

12. The prophet (P.B.U.H) go this 1st marriage at the age of:
A) 25 years
B) 35 years
C) 30 years
D) 20 years
E) 40 years

13. In Battle of Uhud the number of Muslim Army was:
A) 600
B) 900
C) 700
D) 1000
E) 800

14. Abu Jahl Was Killed In battle of:
A) Khandak
B) Badar
C) Khyber
D) Hunain
E) Uhad

15. In The Islamic History the 1st time“Azan”call for prayer was given by:
A) Hazrat Usman
B) Hazrat Ali
C) Hazrat Umar
D) Hazrat Bilal
E) Hazrat Zubair

16. The work of taken out soul from the human body is done by the angel:
A) Hazrat Izraeel A.S
B) None of these
C) Hazrat Meekail A.S
D) Hazrat Israfeel A.S
E) Hazrat Jibraeel A.S

17. When the Holy Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) left for Madinah from Makkah, he stays on his bed:
A) Hazrat Usman R.A
B) Hazrat Ali R.A
C) Hazrat AbuBakar R.A
D) Hazrat Umar R.A
E) Hazrat Hassan R.A

18. Khana Kabah was built by:
A) Hazrat Moosa A.S
B) Hazrat Mutalib
C) Hazrat AbuTalib
D) Hazrat Daud A.S
E) Hazrat Ibrahim A.S

19. The Name of the1st daughter of the Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H):
A) Bibi Ruquia R.A
B) Bibi Sakeena R.A
C) Bibi Zainab R.A
D) Bibi Ume Kulsoom R.A
E) Bibi Fatima R.A

20. The Holy book “Quran” was revealed on the prophet:
A) Hazrat Muhammad (PBUH)
B) Hazrat Zakria A.S
C) Hazrat Daud A.S
D) Hazrat Essa A.S
E) Hazrat Mussa A.S

21. The pact of Messak-e-Madina was held in:
A) 1st Hijrah
B) 4th Hijrah
C) 2nd Hijrah
D) 3rd Hijrah
E) 5th Hijrah

22. The Heart of Holy Quran is:
A) Suray Taha
B) Surah Al Ahzab
C) Surah Furqan
D) Surah Yaseen
E) Surah Rehman

23. The total no. of the Holy verses of the “Quran” are:
A) 113
B) 116
C) 114
D) 117
E) 115

24. The saying of the Holy Prophet Muhammad(PBUH)is known as:
A) Sahifa
B) Fiqah
C) Quran
D) None of these
E) Hadees

25. The sacred building of Islam is situated in the center of Makkah is known as:
A) Arafat
B) Kabah
C) Meekat
D) Riazul Janat
E) Janatul Baqi

26. The Prophet (P.B.U.H) tookhis1st travel with his mother in the age of:
A) 8 years
B) 9 years
C) 7 years
D) 6 years
E) 5 years

27. The last pillar of Islam is:
A) Nimaz
B) Fasting
C) Zakat
D) Haj
E) Kalma Tayaba

28. The Number of Devine books are:
A) Three
B) One
C) Two
D) Five
E) Four

29. The wife of Holy Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) Bibi Ayesha R.A was the daughter of:
A) Hazrat Umar R.A
B) Hazrat Zaid R.A
C) Hazrat Abu Bakar R.A
D) Hazrat Usman R.A
E) Hazrat Zubair R.A

30. The longest surah of the Holy Quran is:
A) Surah Alaq
B) Surah Al Hijrat
C) Surah Yaseen
D) Surah Rehman
E) Surah Baqarah

31. The revelation of the holy Quran was through the angle:
A) Meekaile A.S
B) Izraiel A.S
C) Israfeel A.S
D) Jibraiel A.S
E) None of these

32. The fasting has been done in the month of:
A) Safar
B) Shouban
C) Rajab
D) Moharam
E) Ramzan

33. When Bibi Khadija Got The marriage with the Prophet (P.B.U.H) her age was:
A) 25 years
B) 40 years
C) 30 years
D) 45 years
E) 35 years

34. Due to the social boycott of Quraish of Makkah the family of Hazrat Abu Talif has stay in the valley “Shoaib Abi Talib” almost:
A) Four year
B) One year
C) Three year
D) Five year
E) Two year

35. The Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H) delivered his last sermon at the place of:
A) Taif
B) Uhad
C) Arafat
D) Hudabia
E) Safa Marvah

36. Batle of Uhad was fought in the year of :
A) 5 hijri
B) 6 hijri
C) 4 hijri
D) 3 hijri
E) 2 hijri

37. The Prophet (P.B.U.H) belongs to the linage of:
A) Hazrat Daud (A.S)
B) Hazrat Noonh (A.S)
C) Hazrat Ibrahim (A.S)
D) Hazra tMussa (A.S)
E) Hazrat Idrees (A.S)

38. 1st Soorah of the Holy Quran:
A) Surah Alaq
B) Surah Fateh
C) Surah Ikhlas
D) Surah Naas
E) Surah Falaq

39. The Prophet (P.B.U.H) had preached Islam hiddenly almost :
A) 2 year
B) 5 year
C) 1 year
D) 3 year
E) 4 year

40. Bait-e-Uqba Oola has been in the year of Nabvi:
A) 13
B) 14
C) 11
D) 12
E) 10

Answer key:

1. D
2. Abdul Mutalib
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. D
8. D
9. D
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. E
19. C
20. A
21. A
22. D
23. A
24. E
25. B
26. E
27. D
28. E
29. C
30. E
31. D
32. E
33. B
34. C
35. C
36. D
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. E

Epidemiology MCQs

1. Which of the following is NOT a part of continuum of natural history of the disease?
a) Stage of Susceptibility
b) Stage of preclinical
c) Stage of prevention
d) Stage of recovery

2. Which of the following is also known as retrospective studies?
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

3. Total number of deaths reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) death rate
b) Crude death rate
c) mortality rate
d) proportional mortality

4. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) Birth Rate
b) Growth Rate
c) Crude Fertility rate
d) Crude Birth Rate

5. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated number of women age 15 to 44 years mid interval is known as;
a) Crude Fertility Rate
b) Birth Rate
c) Growth Rate
d) Sex ratio

6. Number of current cases(new and old) of specified disease identified over a given time interval from estimated population at mid interval is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Period Prevalence
c) Point Prevalence
d) Disease Prevalence

7. Use of statistics to analyze characteristics or changes to a population is termed as;
a) population Pyramid
b) vital statistics
c) Population statistics
d) Population dynamics

 

8. Which of the following term provides true representation of whole population?
a) Sampling
b) Random Sampling
c) Case reporting
d) Sample
9. Measure of the frequency of occurrence of death in a defined population during a specified interval is called;
a) Crude death rate
b) Mortality Rate
c) Death ratio
d) Mortality

10. Public health surveillance DOES NOT consists on the following step;
a) Systematic collection
b) Analysis
c) Planning
d) Interpretation

11. Surveillance system information cycles include;
a) Family and community
b) Public, Health care provider and Health agencies
c) None of the above
d) Public, Health care provider only

12. Epidemiology can be defined as follow EXCEPT;
a) Distribution of health related states
b) Community leaders and their family crises
c) Determinant of health related events
d) Apply to the control of health problems

13. A state of disorder that results from communication ONLY by direct contact is termed as;
a) Infectious disease
b) Contamination
c) Epidemic
d) Contagious disease

14. Which of the following is NOT a basic measurement in epidemiology;
a) Rate
b) Nominator
c) Ratio
d) Proportion

15. Which of the following is usually expressed as percentage;
a) Rate
b) Nominator
c) Ratio
d) Proportion

 

16. Measurement of disease, disability or death and converting this information in to rates and ratio is defined as;
a) Specificity
b) Screening
c) Frequency
d) Sensitivity

17. Measurement of current status of disease is termed as;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) Cumulative Incidence
d) Mid interval population

18. A person who harbors the microorganisms of a disease and excretes them without self suffering from symptoms is called;
a) Reservoir
b) Carrier
c) Host
d) Agent

19. The modes of transmission of infectious diseases are as follow EXCEPT;
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Physiological
d) Biological

20. The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) a and b
d) Cumulative incidence

21. Epidemiological methods can be categorized as follow;
a) Descriptive, cohort and case control
b) Descriptive, cross sectional and experimental
c) Descriptive, prospective and experimental
d) Descriptive, Analytical and experimental

22. In descriptive epidemiology disease described in terms of;
a) What, Why and How
b) Host, Agent and Environment
c) Time, Place and Person
d) Agent, Place and Person

23. Which of the following is also known as prospective study;
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

24. In epidemiological triad environmental factors can be classified as;
a) Physical
b) Chemical
c) Social
d) Biological

25. Which of the following ratio provide us an estimate of risk in case control study;
a) Odd ratio
b) Sex ratio
c) Disease ratio
d) Dependency ratio

26. The entire group of people or elements that have at least one thing is common is known as;
a) Sample
b) Parameter
c) Hypothesis
d) Population

27. Sampling done on the basis of some pre determined ideas and its result can not be generalized is defined as follow;
a) Snow ball sampling
b) Purposive sampling
c) Probability sampling
d) Non-probability sampling

28. Tertiary prevention includes;
a) Disability limitation
b) Prompt treatment
c) Rehabilitation
d) a and c
e) a and b

29. Agents such as vitamins, protein, fat etc. are an examples of;
a) Physical Agents
b) Nutritive Agents
c) Chemical Agents
d) All of the above

30. Which of the following are key components of Epidemiological triangle,
a) Host, Agent and Physical Environment
b) Host, Genes and Physical Environment
c) Host, Agent and Environment
d) None of the above

31. Tertiary prevention Does not includes;
a) Disability limitation
b) Prompt treatment
c) Rehabilitation
d) a and c
32. Agents such as vitamins, protein, fat etc. are an examples of;
a) Physical Agents
b) Nutritive Agents
c) Chemical Agents
d) All of the above
33. Which of the following are not key components of Epidemiological triangle,
a) Host and Agent
b) Host and Environment
c) Host, Agent and Environment
d) Time, Place and Person
34. Which of the following is a part of continuum of natural history of the disease?
a) Stage of health promotion
b) Stage of prevention
c) Stage of Recovery
d) Stage of sampling
35. Which of the following are also known as retrospective studies?
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

36. A person who harbors the microorganisms of a disease and excretes them without self suffering from symptoms is called;
a) Reservoir
b) Carrier
c) Host
d) Agent
37. The modes of transmission of infectious diseases are as follow EXCEPT;
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Physiological
d) Biological

38. Total number of deaths reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) death rate
b) Crude death rate
c) mortality rate
d) proportional mortality
39. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) Birth Rate
b) Growth Rate
c) Crude Fertility rate
d) Crude Birth Rate
40. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated number of women age 15 to 44 years mid interval is known as;
a) Crude Fertility Rate
b) Birth Rate
c) Growth Rate
d) Sex ratio

41. Number of current cases(new and old) of specified disease identified over a given time interval from estimated population at mid interval is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Period Prevalence
c) Point Prevalence
d) Disease Prevalence
42. Use of statistics to analyze characteristics or changes to a population is termed as;
a) population Pyramid
b) vital statistics
c) Population statistics
d) Population dynamics
43. Measure of the frequency of occurrence of death in a defined population during a specified interval is called;
a) Crude death rate
b) Mortality Rate
c) Death ratio
d) Mortality
44. Public health surveillance DOES NOT consists on the following step;
a) Systematic collection
b) Analysis
c) Planning
d) Interpretation
45. Surveillance system information cycles include;
a) Family and community
b) Public, Health care provider and Health agencies
c) None of the above
d) Public, Health care provider only

46. A state of disorder that results from communication ONLY by direct contact is termed as;
a) Infectious disease
b) Contamination
c) Epidemic
d) Contagious disease
47. Which of the following is NOT a basic measurement in epidemiology;
a) Rate
b) Nominator
c) Ratio
d) Proportion
48. Measurement of current status of disease is termed as;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) Cumulative Incidence
d) Mid interval population
49. The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) a and b
d) Cumulative incidence
50. Which of the following is also known as prospective study;
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

51. Which of the following ratio provide us an estimate of risk in case control study;
a) Odd ratio
b) Sex ratio
c) Disease ratio
d) Dependency ratio
52. The entire group of people or elements that have at least one thing is common is known as;
a) Sample
b) Parameter
c) Hypothesis
d) Population
53. Sampling done on the basis of some pre determined ideas and its result can not be generalized is defined as follow;
a) Snow ball sampling
b) Purposive sampling
c) Probability sampling
d) Non-probability sampling

54. Graphical illustration that shows the distribution of various age groups in population is known as;
a) Dependency Ratio
b) Age Ratio
c) Population Pyramid
d) Population Dynamics
55. Ratio of population who are economically not active to those who are economically active can be defined as;
a) Dependency Ratio
b) Age Ratio
c) Population Ratio
d) Risk benefit ratio
56. In which of the following sampling there is a minimum chance of bias and equally chances of being selected for study.
a) Accidental Sampling
b) Simple Random Sampling
c) Purposive Sampling
d) Snow ball Sampling
57. In study if we are selecting every seventh subject it comes under which of the following sampling method?
a) Stratified Sampling
b) Quota Sampling
c) Systematic Sampling
d) Purposive Sampling
58. Systematic errors produced by your sampling procedure is known as;
a) Sampling bias
b) Sampling errors
c) Non sampling errors
d) Random error
59. The profile of single patient is reported in detail by one or more clinicians is called as follow;
a) Case control study
b) Case Series
c) Investigation
d) Case Report
60. In which of the following study we compare one group among whom the problem is present and another group where problem is absent?
a) Case control study
b) Case Series
c) Cohort study
d) Case Report

Answer key:
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. C
20. B

21. D
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. D
27. B
28. D
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. B
33. D
34. C
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. B
44. C
45. B
46. D
47. B
48. A
49. B
50. A
51. A
52. D
53. B
54. C
55. A
56. B
57. C
58. A
59. D
60. A