Sex during periods/Menstruation

Is It Safe to Have Sex During Your Period?

  • Benefits
  • Side Effects
  • Tips,

 Can you have sex during your period?

You will have a menstrual cycle once a month during your reproductive years. There’s no need to avoid sexual activity during your period unless you’re very sensitive. Though period sex might be messy, it is completely safe. Having sex while menstruation can also provide certain benefits, such as relief from menstrual cramps.

 

Benefits

There are a few advantages to having sex during your period:

  1. Pain relief from cramping

Menstrual cramps may be relieved by orgasms. Menstrual cramps are caused by your uterus contracting in order to discharge its lining. When you have an orgasm, the muscles in your uterus contract as well. Then they let go. Period cramps should be relieved by this release.

Sex also causes the production of endorphins, which are hormones that make you feel wonderful. Furthermore, sexual activity diverts your attention away from your period discomfort.

  1. Short duration of periods

Sex may cause your periods to be shorter. Muscle spasms during an orgasm force the uterine contents out more quickly. This might lead to shorter durations.

  1. increased sexual desire

Because of hormonal shifts, your libido alters during your menstrual cycle. While many women indicate that their sex desire increases about two weeks before their period, others report feeling more turned on during their period.

  1. Natural lubricant

During your period, you can store the KY. The blood serves as a natural lubricant.

  1. It could help with your headache.

Approximately half of women with migraine headaches have them during their periods. Although most women with menstrual migraines avoid sex during their attacks, many of those who do report that it improves their headaches partially or entirely.

 What are the possible side effects?

The most obvious disadvantage of having sex during your period is the mess. When you have a high flow, blood might go on you, your partner, and the bedding. Aside from making your bed messy, bleeding might make you feel self-conscious. Anxiety over making a mess might detract from the enjoyment of sex.

Another concern about having sex during your period is the possibility of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI) such as HIV or hepatitis. These viruses dwell in blood and can be transmitted by contact with contaminated menstrual blood. Using condoms whenever you have sex reduces your chances of transmitting or contracting a STI.

If you intend to have sex while on your period and are wearing a tampon, you must remove it beforehand. During intercourse, a forgotten tampon can be pushed so far up into your vagina that you’ll need to visit a doctor to have it removed.

 

Can you get pregnant/conceive?

If you aren’t actively attempting to conceive, utilizing protection is a smart idea regardless of where you are in your menstrual cycle. Your chances of becoming pregnant are decreased during your period, but it is still possible.

You are most likely to become pregnant during ovulation, which occurs around 14 days before your period begins. However, each woman’s cycle duration is unique, and your cycle length might alter monthly. If you have a short menstrual cycle, you are more likely to become pregnant during your period.

Consider the fact that sperm may dwell in your body for up to seven days. So, if you have a 22-day cycle and ovulate soon after having your period, you may be releasing an egg while sperm are still in your reproductive tract.

 

Is it necessary to wear/use protection?

Using protection will also protect you against STIs. Because viruses like HIV thrive in menstrual blood, you can not only get a STI during your period, but you can also more readily transmit one to your partner.

Wear a latex condom every time you have sex to lower your chances of becoming pregnant and contracting a STI. If you or your spouse are allergic to latex, there are other options for protection. You can get advice from your pharmacist or doctor.

 

Tips on having sex during your period

Here are a few pointers to make period sex more pleasant and less messy:

Communicate openly and honestly with your spouse. Tell them how you feel about having sex during your period and inquire about their feelings. If either of you is apprehensive, discuss the reasons for your unease.

If you’re wearing a tampon, take it out before you start messing about.

To collect any blood drips, place a dark-colored cloth on the bed. Or, to avoid the mess totally, have sex in the shower or bath.

Keep a damp towel or wet wipes beside the bed for cleanup.

Wear a latex condom with your lover. It will provide protection against pregnancy and STIs.

If your typical sexual position makes you uncomfortable, try something new. Try resting on your side with your spouse behind you, for example.

 Takeaway

Don’t let your period prevent you from having fun. If you do a little planning, sex may be just as delightful on those five or so days as it is the rest of the month. You might be startled to discover that sex is much more stimulating during your period.

Fundamental of Nursing

Fundamental of Nursing MCQs/BCQs BSc Nursing

1. A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The nurse administered anti diarrheal tablets to the patient. What phrase of nursing process is being implemented here by the nurse?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Implementation

2. It is best describe as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care for individual, families, group and community.
A. Assessment
B. Nursing Process
C. Diagnosis
D. Implementation

3. The 1st technique used in examining the abdomen of a client is:
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Percussion
D. Inspection

4. During a routine examination you are assessing the putting pressure on the patient’s abdomen to evaluate that whether the patient is having tenderness or not, you are performing which of the following technique:
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion

5. The nurse is using otoscope for assessing the patient. Which of the following area is tested?
A. Optic
B. Olfactory
C. Oculomotor
D. Trochlear

6. A nurse is performing an initial assessment for a client. Which of the following could be considered objective information except?
A. The client’s blood pressure increases when the provider enters the room
B. The client weighs 186 pounds
C. The client rates pain at a level of 6 on the numeric rating scale
D. The client has a pinpoint rash on the face and trunk

7. A patient comes to the health care setup, you are assessing the patient and you gathered information about the patient current health status and past health status, you are doing..
A. Assessment
B. Interviewing
C. Data Collection
D. All of the above

8. A patient is brought to ED in unconscious status, you gathered data from the patient’s relatives or attendants, this type of data can be labeled as_________________
A. Primary source of data
B. Objective data
C. Secondary source of data
D. All of the above

9. During your conversation for gathering data, you asked several questions from the patient and you got the answers for those questions, you are using ________________ skill for data collection.
A. Objective data
B. Secondary data
C. Source of data
D. None of the above

10. The component of the nursing diagnose that shows the client’s health status and directs the nurse towards the formation of the nursing interventions is___________________
A. Etiology
B. Defining characteristics
C. Problem Statement
D. None of the above

11. The Nurse is providing physical care, emotional support, comfort, teaching, counseling and environmental support to the patient, all these interventions can be labeled as _______________
A. Dependent interventions
B. Independent interventions
C. Collaborative interventions
D. Systematic interventions.

12. Nursing documentation can be use in the following aspects:
A. Communication
B. Education
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

13. While preparing the patient for surgery, Nurse is taking signatures from the patient or the patient’s relative to allow for the surgery, this document is called_______________
A. Medical record
B. Detailed chart
C. Check list
D. Patient assessment form
E. None of the above

14. The organized, purposeful and disciplined thinking process is known as______________
A. Deep thinking
B. Enhanced thinking
C. Critical thinking
D. Dependent thinking

15. The following are the steps that are involved in critical thinking_____________
A. Interpretation
B. Analysis
C. Evaluation
D. Self regulation
E. Both A & B
F. All of the above

16. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage is known as:
A. Pain
B. Stimulus
C. Stress
D. None of the above

17. A 50 year old male patient is admitted in the medicine department, is complaining of the pain in the right lower limb, The nurse assessed the patient and was unable to know the etiology of the pain, this pain can be labeled as ________________
A. Nociceptive pain
B. Psychogenic pain
C. Neuropathic pain
D. Relative pain.

18. A 62 year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department, with severe chest pain on the left side, spreading towards the left shoulder and left arm, when the nurse assessed the patient she came to know that the patient is suspected for MI, the nurse labeled the type of pain as_____
A. Phantom pain
B. Referred pain
C. Radiating pain
D. Psychogenic pain

19. Retrosternal chest pain can be labeled as______________
A. Phantom pain
B. Referred pain
C. Radiating pain
D. Psychogenic pain

20. A 780 year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department, with diabetic foot gangrene with severe pain in the foot, the doctor performed surgery and amputated the foot, post operatively the patient was perceiving pain in the foot, the nurse informed the doctor that the patient is having _________________ pain.
A. Referred pain
B. Radiating pain
C. Psychogenic pain
D. Nociceptive pain
E. None of the above

21. According to this theory pain is produced when any sensory nerve is stimulated to a certain level:
A. Intensity theory
B. Specificity Theory
C. Gate control Theory
D. All of the above

22. All of the following are Non Pharmacological measures for relieving pain except__________
A. Distraction
B. Humor
C. Music
D. Opoids
E. Relaxation

23. The sum of all the interactions between an organism and the food it consumes is called_____
A. Nutrients
B. Nutrition
C. Food availability
D. All of the above

24. Rate at which food is metabolized to maintain energy requirements of a person who is awake and at rest
A. Catabolism
B. Anabolism
C. Basal Metabolic Rate
D. Metabolism

25. The nurse is assessing a 3 year old baby for nutritional status, The nurse measures the Height and weight, Growth curve, Head and chest circumferences, Skin fold thickness, and Mid arm circumference, the nurse asks the student nurse that which type of measurements she had taken, the student nurse will answer _______________
A. Anthropometric measurement
B. Body measurement
C. Height and weight
D. Physical measurement

26. You are asked to calculate the BMI for the patient having Weight = 70 kg (154 lb) and Height= 5 feet (60 inches or 1.52 m) , what will be the BMI of the patient _____________
A. 20
B. 30.1
C. 55
D. 22

27. You calculated the BMI of the patient in question no. 26, look at the patient BMI and label the patient into one category:
A. Under weight
B. Normal weight
C. Obesity
D. None of the above

28. You are taking history from the patient at OPD, and the patient tell you that he pass feces 2 times a day in routine, he tells now he has not passed stool from 4 days, the nurse will consider that the patient is having:
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Flatulence
D. Bowel incontinence

29. If constipation is prolonged it can lead to _____________
A. More Constipation
B. Bowel incontinence
C. Fecal impaction
D. Fecal incontinence.

30. A 25year old male patient is admitted in the medicine department, is complaining of excessively liquid stool, Difficult to control urge for defecation and Spasmodic cramps, on assessment you came to know that the patient is dehydrated and have increase bowel sound, what will be your diagnoses?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Flatulence
D. Bowel incontinence

31. The loss of voluntary ability to control the fecal and gaseous discharge through the anal sphincter is called _________________
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Flatulence
D. Bowel incontinence

32. you are taking history from the patient, and the patient tells you that he is unable to control flatus, as well as complain of minor soiling: you can consider this condition as___________
A. Diarrhea
B. Partial bowel incontinence
C. Major bowel incontinence
D. None of the above.

33. The presence of excessive flatus in the intestines is called_______________
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

34. A nursing student ask you a question that, in which stage of sleep the dreaming occurs, what will be your answer ????
A. NREM Stage 3
B. NREM Stage 4
C. REM Stage
D. Deep Sleep Stage
E. All of the above

35. While caring for a client with disturbed sleep pattern, which of the following will be your nursing intervention on priority?
A. Maintain a good circadian rhythm
B. Get adequate exercise during day time, but avoid excessive exertion before bed time.
C. Avoid dealing with office work or family problem before bedtime.
D. Use the bed mainly for sleep, so that you associate it with sleep.

36. The most common form of sexual activity is _______________
A. Homosexual genital intercourse
B. Orgasm
C. Libido
D. Heterosexual genital intercourse

37. Sexual response cycle includes the following phases except__________
A. Excitement phase
B. Plateau phase
C. Maintenance phase
D. Orgasmic phase
E. Resolution phase

38. “Many sexual therapist advise to increase sexual communication to avoid this problem” which of the following best justifies the above statement.
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Pre mature Ejaculation
C. Dysparunia
D. All of the above

39. The chronic vulvar discomfort or pain that characterized by complaints of burning or pain or irritation of the female genitalia is known as:
A. Dysparunia
B. Vaginal infection
C. Vulvodynia
D. Vaginismus

40. You are on duty in urology department and you are asked to, asses the male patient’s genital organs, you will assess all of the following in physical examination except?
A. Inspect for any scars or lesions on the external genitals.
B. Ask for Current problem in sexual activity
C. Inspect for any changes in the shape of genital organs.
D. Compare the size of both testes

41. Nurse Elisabeth is teaching about sexual health to client, she taught about various things, some of them are the following, the head nurse noted Elisabeth that all of her teaching was right except:
A. Encourage open communication between partners.
B. Teach about kegel exercise to women.
C. Teach about any changes in sexual pattern due to any medications or following surgical procedure.
D. Do you have any problem in your sexuality?

42. The permanent cessation of function of vital organs of the body, including heart beat, spontaneous breathing and brain activity is known as_____________
A. Rest
B. Sleep
C. Death
D. All of the above

43. You have a 75 years old patient in ICU in critical condition, the physician tells you that the patient is not in satisfactory condition and going towards death, he noted the following manifestation and made his statement:
A. Loss of muscle tone
B. Slowing of the circulation
C. Changes in the vital signs
D. Sensory impairment
E. All of the above
F. None of the above

44. In the same case (as in question 43), the patient is expired, and the doctor declares the patient death, on which of the following basis the doctor declared this death?
A. Total lack of response to external stimuli
B. No muscular movement
C. No reflexes
D. Flat encephalogram
E. All of the above
F. Both B, C and D

45.” Does not understand concept of death, believes death is reversible, temporary departure or sleep.” From whom we can expect the above mentioned response?
A. A 5 year child
B. An Adult
C. A person in late adulthood
D. None of the above

46. “Fears prolonged illness, sees death as having multiple meanings, freedom from pain, and reunion with already deceased family members” From whom we can expect the above mentioned response?
A. An Adult having age of 20 years
B. A child
C. Above 65 years
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

47. The stiffening of the body that occurs about 2 to 4 hours after death is called _____________
A. Algor Mortis
B. Rigor Mortis
C. Livor Mortis
D. Stiffening of the body
E. Discoloration

48. _______________Is the gradual decrease of the body temperature after death.
A. Algor Mortis
B. Rigor Mortis
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

49. The loss that can be identified by others and can arise in response to a situation is called_________
A. Anticipatory loss
B. Perceived loss
C. Actual loss
D. None of the above

50. All of the following are Kubler Ross propose stages of grief except____________
A. Denial
B. Adopting
C. Anger
D. Depression.

Fundamental of Nursing MCQs/BCQs

Fundamental of Nursing-I|1stYear|2nd Semester| BSN(Generic)

1. Which of the following is not true about rapid eye movement sleep?
A) metabolic rate increases
B) dreams occur
C) slow wave sleep
D) pulse blood pressure and breathing increases
E) fast waves sleep

2. The client who doesn’t have fever is called:
A) Febrile
B) Hyperpyrexia
C) Afebrile
D) Pyrexia
E) Hypothermia

3. Which of the following is an example of objective data?
A) Severe headache
B) feeling of very severe pain in abdomen
C) feeling worry
D) discoloration of skin
E) complain of loose motion

4. Factors that affect sexual functioning includes
A) Family
B) Personal expectations
C) Religion
D) all of these
E) Culture

5. Concern for the Welfare and wellbeing for others is:
A) Altruism
B) Autonomy
C) Integrity
D) Social Justice
E) human dignity

6. Complicated grieving may not characterize by:
A) suicidal thoughts
B) severe physiologic symptoms
C) extended time of denial
D) sleep disturbance
E) Depression

7. Which of the following statement is true regarding non rapid eye movement (NREM)
A) also called paradoxical sleep
B) sleepoccursevery20minutesandlastfor5to30minutes
C) Brain is highly active
D) usually dream takes place in this sleep
E) sleepers heart rate and respiratory rate drops

8. Which of the following is not a component of nursing process:
A) Intervention
B) Scientific Rationale
C) Assessment & Nursing Diagnosis
D) Expected Outcome
E) Evaluation

9. Loss of voluntary ability to control fecal and gaseous discharge through anal sphincters:
A) Bowel incontinence
B) Constipation
C) Diarrhea
D) Flatulence
E) Urinary incontinence

10. Which of the following is not correct for chronic pain:
A) parasympathetic nervous system responses
B) client appears depressed and withdrawn
C) it lasted six months or longer
D) sympathetic nervous system responses
E) vital signs normal

11. After al medication have been given through nasogastric tube the nurse should:
A) Flush the tube with 30cc water
B) No Need to Flush
C) Flush the tube with 100cc water
D) Flush the tube with 50 water IN
E) Wash out tube thoroughly

12. The Most commonly used methods for stress management includes the following except
A) age
B) Minimize anxiety
C) Exercise
D) Nutrition
E) Mediating anger

13. Inability to obtain and adequate amount or quality of sleep is:
A) Hypersomnia
B) Narcolepsy
C) sleep apnea
D) insomnia
E) parainsomnia

14. Characteristics of normal color of urine is?
A) Dark amber
B) Straw, amber transparent
C) Cloudy
D) Red or dark brown
E) Dark orange

15. Painful or difficult urination is called?
A) hematuria
B) Oliguria
C) polyuria
D) residual urine
E) dysuria

16. Which of the following is a micronutrient?
A) Proteins
B) carbohydrates
C) Water
D) Fat
E) Minerals

17. The major source of body energy is:
A) Minerals
B) Vitamins
C) Carbohydrates
D) Lipids
E) Proteins

18. Data on health status of the client can be obtained by:
A) Lab. reports
B) Diagnostic test results
C) Nursing history
D) Physical assessment
E) All of these

19. Amount of urine output less than 400 ml in 24 hours is called:
A) Anuria

B) Oliguria
C) Polyuria
D) Hematuria
E) Dysuria

20. Which of The nursing intervention is not included to promote a positive concept in client:
A) establish therapeutic relationship with the client
B) avoid eye contact with patient
C) helping our clients to identify areas of strength
D) assist the client to evaluate himself
E) assist the client to make behavioral change

21. Which of The following is not a physiological manifestation of stress?
A) Depression
B) increase cardiac output
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Constipation
E) dry mouth

22. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of human need which of the following human need should met first:
A) Self-actualization
B) Safety and security
C) Self Esteem
D) Love and belonging
E) Physiologic needs

23. When Giving ophthalmic medication in the form of gtts it should be installed
A) Conjunctiva
B) Pupil
C) Sclera
D) Outer canthus
E) Inner canthus

24. Leakage of urine despite of voluntary control of urination is called:
A) Incontinence
B) Urgency
C) Dribbling
D) residual urine
E) hesitancy

25. Average daily urine output by the age of 14years through adulthood is?
A) 1500ml

B) 600-700ml
C) 800-1400ml
D) 1500ml or less
E) 700-1000ml

26. Which of The following statement regarding subcutaneous injection is not true?
A) It is injected just below the skin subcutaneous layer
B) Given at 25-degree angle
C) Only 0.5-1 ml is given
D) Insulin is also given subcutaneously
E) Given at 45-degree angle

27. Non rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep occurs about:
A) 50 to 60%
B) 70 to 80%
C) 40 to 50%
D) 30 to 40%
E) 20 to 30%

28. Physical Change of pain includes the following Except:
A) Elevated respiratory rate
B) Elevated dilated pupils, cyanosed and perspiration
C) Elevated blood pressure
D) Elevated pulse rate
E) Stress and restless

29. Process of designing nursing action required to prevent, reduce or eliminate patients’ problem is:
A) Planning
B) Assessment
C) nursing diagnosis
D) Evaluation
E) Implementation

30. The Type of functional Health Pattern which focus on the person’ perceived level of health and wellbeing and on practices for maintaining health is:
A) Self-perception/Self-concept pattern
B) Role and relationship pattern
C) Health perception/health management pattern
D) Value belief pattern
E) Cognitive/perceptual pattern

31. Which of The following statement regarding intradermal injection is not true?
A) Check for bleb or wheal
B) Use 26-27-gauge needle
C) Given at 5-15-degree angle
D) Given for allergy test
E) Inject into deep muscles

32. The first step of nursing process is?
A) Planning
B) Evaluation
C) Diagnosis
D) Assessment
E) Implementation

33. Which of The Following is a dependent nursing action?
A) Giving mouth care
B) Intake and output monitoring
C) Giving bed bath
D) Changing clients position 2hourly
E) Giving medications according to physician’s order

34. Draw The person that attention away from the pain through listening music:
A) Relaxation
B) guided imagery
C) imagery meditation
D) Distraction

35. The ability to listen actively can:
A) improve cooperation
B) improve interpersonal relationship
C) block understanding
D) minimize is communicate
E) reduce conflicts

36. One of The most important factor affecting person sleep and rest periods
A) lifestyle and habits
B) Environment
C) Illness
D) Fatigue
E) Age

37. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of oral route of medication?
A) Not suitable for unconscious patient
B) May cause irritation to gastric mucosa
C) Sometime may have adverse reaction
D) Portable, no pain, easy to take
E) Foodland Gastrointestinal motility can affect drug absorption

38. Intramuscular injection should be given at the angle of _______ degree.
A) 45
B) 75
C) 25
D) 35
E) 90

39. When Assessing a Person with altered concept the nurse should not:
A) minimize interruption
B) ask close ended questions
C) create a quiet environment
D) maintain appropriate eye contact
E) sit at eyelevel with the client

 

Answer key

1. E
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. A
6. E
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. E
16. E
17. C
18. E
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. E
23. A
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. E
32. D
33. E
34. A
35. E
36. A
37. D
38. E
39. B

Pakistan studies MCQs/BCQsdee

B. Sc Nursing, Post RN BSN

MULTPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. During khilafat movement an excited mob set fire to a police station at chauri chaura village where about 22 policemen burnt alive in:

a. February 1922

b. February 1923

c. February 1920

d. February 1921

e. February 1924

2. Who presented the resolution for the formation of All India Muslim League:

a. Nawab Salimullah Khan

b. M. Ali Johar

c. Waqar-ul-Mulk

d. Mohsin-ul-Mulk

e. Sir Agha Khan

3. Which of the following was commonly known as the ’Father of idea of Pakistan’?

a. Sir Muhammad Shafi

b. Choudhary Rehmat Ali

c. M A Jinnah

d. Allama Iqbal

4. When India cut off Pakistan’s water supply without notice?

a. June 1948

b. April 1949

c. May 1948

d. May 1949

e. April 1948

5. Mahmood Ghaznavi who ruled Ghani from 997-1030 A.D. raided India for:

a. 17 times

b. 15 times

c. 16 times

d. 19 times

e. 18 times

6. Historical wars of Paniput are very famous ; this battle field is located in Indian Punjab. How many major wars were fought in this field?

a. Five

b. Six

c. Four

d. Three

e. Two

7. The 3rd June plan was announced on 3rd June by:

a. Lord Mounbatten

b. Jawahar Lal Nehru

c. Loord Wavell

d. Moti Lal Nehru

e. M.A. Jinnah

8. Quaid-e-Azam inaugurated the State Bank of Pakistan on:

a. 14th August, 1948

b. 1st July, 1949

c. 14th July, 1948

d. 1st July, 1948

e. 1st June, 1948

9. Who was the chairman of two boundary commissions between India and Pakistan?

a. Sir Cyril Radcliff

b. Tej sinjh

c. Muhammad Muneer

d. Din Muhammad

e. Mehar Chand

10. Name the Viceroy of India who made an offer in August 1940, on the behalf of British Government to Indian people:

a. Lord Wavel

b. Lord Mount Batten

c. Lord Irwin

d. Lord Linlithgow

e. Lord Hardinge

 

11. Who was appointed as the caretaker prime minister of Pakistan after the first dismissal of Benazeer Bhutto:

a. Aftab Ahmed Sherpao

b. Muhammad Khan Junejo

c. Moen Qureshi

d. Meraj Khalid

e. Ghulam Mustafa Jatoi

12. The Muslims of Sub-continent launched the Khilafat movement in the year of:

a. 1918

b. 1919

c. 1916

d. 1917

e. 1920

13. Which of the following was the first Muslim of India who placed Two Nation Theory?

a. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

b. Sir Agha Khan

c. M. Ali Jinnah

d. M. Ali Johar

e. Sir Muhammad Shafi

14. Quaid-e-Azam Muhammad Ali Jinnah joined All India Muslim League in the year of:

a. 1913

b. 1915

c. 1914

d. 1912

e. 1916

15. All India Muslim League was established in:

a. September 1905

b. December 1906

c. September 1906

d. December 1907

e. December 1905

16. The Mughal emperor who promulgated a new faith entitled Din-e-Elahi in 1581 A.D. was:

a. Akber

b. Jahangir

c. Humayun

d. Baber

e. Aurangzeb

17. Who was the first prime minister of Pakistan?

a. Kwaja Nazim-ud-din

b. M. Ali Jinnah

c. Liaquat Ali Khan

d. Muhammad Ali Bogra

e. Nur-ul-Amin

18. The Muslim Deputation met the Viceroy Minto in 1906 at:

a. Bombay

b. Delhi

c. Simla

d. Calcutta

e. Lahore

19. Who was the founder of Mughal dynasty?

a. Sher Shah

b. Humayun

c. Akber

d. Jahangir

e. Zaheer-ud-din Baber

20. In 712 A.D a Muslim expedition to conquer Sindh was sent by Hajjaj Bin Yousuf who was:

a. Governer of Iraq

b. Governer of Makran

c. Emperor of Egypt

d. King of Persia

e. Governer of Syria

 

21. The Simla Deputation led by Agha Khan was consisted of:

a. 25 members

b. 35 members

c. 30 members

d. 32 members

e. 40 members

22. When 3rd Martial law was imposed?

a. 5th July, 1980

b. 5th July, 1978

c. 5th July, 1976

d. 5th July, 1979

e. 5th July, 1977

23. Who coined the name Pakistan?

a. Maulana Muhammad Ali Johar

b. Choudhary Khaliq-uz-zama

c. M,A. Jinnah

d. Choudhary Rehmat Ali

e. Allama Iqbal

24. Select correct chronological order:

a. Akber, Shah Jahan, Humayun, Jahangir

b. Shah Jahan, Jahangir, Akber, Humayun

c. Akber, Humayun, Jahangir, Shah Jahan

d. Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Humayun, Akber

e. Humayun, Akber, Jahangir, Shah Jahan

25. On 23rd March, 1940, the famous resolution which came to be known as Pakistan Resolution was moved by:

a. Choudhary Khaliq-uz-zama

b. Moulvi Fazal-ul-Haq

c. Sardar Auranzeb

d. Moulana Zafar Ali Khan

e. M.Ali Johar

26. Sindh Provincial Muslim League Conference was held at Karachi and passed a resolution adopting Two-Nation Theory on:

a. 10th October, 1938

b. 10th October, 1941

c. 10th October, 1937

d. 10th October, 1939

e. 10th October, 1940

27. The British Government appointed Simon Commission for the recommendation for the new constitution in the year of:

a. 1928

b. 1926

c. 1927

d. 1930

e. 1929

28. The largest political forum of the Islamic countries in the world is:

a. NAM

b. Gulf Countries

c. OIC

d. ECO

e. Arab League

29. With the resignation of Congress Ministries, the Quaid-e-Azam appealed to the people to observe Day of Deliverance on:

a. 22 December, 1938

b. 22 January, 1940

c. 22 January, 1939

d. 22 December, 1939

e. 22 December, 1940

30. Under the Vidya Mandir scheme, the students were asked to pay respect and homage to Gandhi’s picture every day in their assemblies in the schools. The author of this scheme was.

a. Gandhi

b. Imam Ali

c. Zakir Hussain

d. Nehru

e. Dr. Abdul Kalam

 

31. Name the historians who visited India in 1001 A.D. gave earliest account of distinction between the Hindus and Muslims:

a. Mahmood Ghaznavi

b. Al-Beruni

c. Subuktigin

d. Shahabuddin

e. Alptigin

32. The Indian National Congress passed the ‘Quit India Resolution’ in Bombay on:

a. 30th August, 1942

b. 31st August, 1942

c. 28th August, 1942

d. 18th August, 1942

e. 8th August, 1942

33. Where Quaid-e-Azam taken to in the last months of his life:

a. Ziarat

b. Muree

c. Rawalpindi

d. Quetta

e. Lahore

34. India exploded five nuclear tests on 11th and 13th May 1998. Pakistan replied with atomic explosions on:

a. 27th May, 1998

b. 28th May, 1998

c. 26th May, 1998

d. 25th May, 1998

e. 24th May, 1998

35. The Quran and Sunnah declared as the supreme law of Pakistan in________ of constitution of 1973.

a. 9th amendment

b. 10th amendment

c. 7th amendment

d. 8th amendment

e. 11th amendment

36. Kashmir is located in the ________ of Pakistan.

a. East

b. North East

c. North

d. West

e. South

37. When East Pakistan separated from Pakistan?

a. 8th December, 1971

b. 18th December, 1971

c. 10th December, 1971

d. 16th December, 1971

e. 20th December, 1971

38. The famous Congress-League Scheme was signed in Lucknow in the year of:

a. 1916

b. 1912

c. 1914

d. 1919

e. 1918

39. Which significant step of Bhutto Government in 1974 was a great satisfaction for religious parties?

a. Qadianis were declared as non-Muslims

b. Friday was declared weekly holiday

c. Pakistan was declared Islamic state

d. Separate Electorate were announced

 

Answer Key:

1. A
2. A
3. B
4. E
5. A
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. E
12. B
13. A
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. C
19. E
20. A
21. B
22. E
23. D
24. E
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. D
30. C
31. B
32. E
33. A
34. B
35. A
36. C
37. D
38. A
39. A

Features of sensory nerve and motor nerve:

Sensory nerves:

An afferent nerve conveying impulses that are processed by the central nervous system to become part of the organism’s perception of itself and of its environment.

The main function of the sensory nervous system is to inform the central nervous system about stimuli impinging on us from the outside or within us. By doing so, it informs us about any changes in the internal and external environment.

Sensory nerves contain only afferent fibers, long dendrites of sensory neurons. Motor nerves have only efferent fibers, long axons of motor neurons. Mixed nerves contain both types of fibers. A connective tissue sheath called the epineurium surrounds each nerve.

Motor nerves:

A motor nerve is a nerve located in the central nervous system (CNS), usually the spinal cord, that sends motor signals from the CNS to the muscles of the body. This is different from the motor neuron, which includes a cell body and branching of dendrites, while the nerve is made up of a bundle of axons.

Motor nerves have only efferent fibers, long axons of motor neurons.

Sensory and Motor Neurons

Difference between Sensory and Motor Neurons

Sensory Neuron Motor Neuron
Neurons that carry sensory impulse from sensory organs to the central nervous system are known as sensory neurons A neuron that carries motor impulses from the central nervous system to specific effectors is known as motor neurons.
They are located in the dorsal root ganglion of the spinal nerve They are located in the ventral root ganglion of the spinal cord.
It is unipolar It is multipolar
Comprises of a short axon Comprises of a long axon
An adult has an average of 10 million sensory nerves in the body Half million of motor neurons are found in the body
Found in eyes, skin, ears, tongue and nose Found in muscles and glands

 

Lateral wall of nose

Short essay on lateral wall of nose:

The lateral wall of the nasal cavity is a region of the nasopharynx essential for humidifying and filtering the air we breathe in nasally.

Here we can find a structure called agger nasi. The agger nasi is also referred to as the ‘nasoturbinal concha’ or ‘nasal ridge.’ It can be described as a small mound or ridge found in the lateral side of the nasal cavity. The structure is located midway along the anterior aspect of the middle nasal concha. An abnormally enlarged form may restrict the drainage of the frontal sinus by obstructing the frontal recess area.

The lateral cartilage (upper lateral cartilage, lateral process of septal nasal cartilage) is situated below the inferior margin of the nasal bone, and is flattened, and triangular in shape.

Surfactant

What is surfactant and what is its function?

Surfactant is a mixture of fat and proteins made in the lungs. Surfactant coats the alveoli (the air sacs in the lungs where oxygen enters the body). This prevents the alveoli from sticking together when your baby exhales (breathes out).

Its classically known role is to decrease surface tension in alveolar air spaces to a degree that facilitates adequate ventilation of the peripheral lung.

Physiology of the eye

What is the physiology of the eye?

The eye is composed of a series of lenses and spaces that give focus to images, just as a camera does. It is composed of the vitreous humor, aqueous humor, the crystalline lens, and the cornea, and each of these has its own refraction index (the average being 1.34, because of the content of these tissues).

Physiology of the Eye

The primary function of the eye is to form a clear image of objects in our environment. These images are transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve and the posterior visual pathways.

The various tissues of the eye and its adnexa are thus designed to facilitate this function.

The Eyelids

Functions include: (1) protection of the eye from mechanical trauma, extremes of temperature and bright light, and (2) maintenance of the normal precorneal tear film, which is important for maintenance of corneal health and clarity.

The Tear Film

The tear film consists of three layers: the mucoid, aqueous and oily layers.

The mucoid layer lies adjacent to the corneal epithelium.It improves the wetting properties of the tears.

The Cornea

The primary function of the cornea is refraction. In order to perform this function, the cornea requires the following:

  • transparency
  • smooth and regular surface
  • spherical curvature of proper refractive power
  • appropriate index of refraction.

The Aqueous Humour

The aqueous humour is an optically clear solution of electrolytes (in water) that fills the space between the cornea and the lens. Normal volume is 0.3 ml. Its function is to nourish the lens and cornea.

The Vitreous Body

The vitreous consists of a three-dimensional network of collagen fibers with the interspaces filled with polymerized hyaluronic acid molecules, which are capable of holding large quantities of water.

The Lens

The lens, like the cornea, is transparent. It is avascular and depends on the aqueous for nourishment.

It has a thick elastic capsule, which prevents molecules (e.g., proteins) moving into or out of it.

The Ciliary Body

The ciliary muscle (within the ciliary body) is a mass of smooth muscle, which runs circumferentially inside the globe and is attached to the scleral spur anteriorly.

Accommodation

Accommodation is the process whereby relaxation of zonular fibers allows the lens to become more globular, thereby increasing its refractive power.

The Retina

This is the “photographic film” of the eye that converts light into electrical energy (transduction) for transmission to the brain.

Laryngeal Cartilages

The larynx consists of nine laryngeal cartilages: three are single (epiglottic, thyroid, cricoid) and three are paired (arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform).

  • Thyroid:
    • Largest of the cartilages
    • It is composed of two plate-like laminae that fuse on the anterior side of the cartilage to form a peak, called the laryngeal prominence, known as the Adam’s apple.
    • Its posterior border is elongated both inferiorly and superiorly to form the superior horn of thyroid cartilage and inferior horn of thyroid cartilage.
  • Cricoid:
    • Only laryngeal cartilage to form a complete ring
  • Epiglottic cartilage:
    • Consists of elastic cartilage, giving flexibility to the epiglottis
    • Almost entirely covered in mucosa
    • Its stalk projects superiorly and attaches to the posterior aspect of the tongue, so that during swallowing the epiglottis will move to cover the respiratory opening, thus keeping food out of the lower respiratory tubules
  • Arytenoid:
    • Pyramid shaped
    • Anchor the vocal cords
  • Corniculate:
    • Attach to the apices of the arytenoid cartilages
  • Cuneiform:
    • Do not directly attach to other cartilages