Islamiat MCQs/BCQs

Posted on May 15, 2022 by Bherulal

Islamiat |1stYear| 2nd Semester| BSN (Generic)

The conquest of Makkah was held in year:
A) 6 hijra
B) 9 hijra
C) 7 hijra
D) 8 hijra
E) 10 hijra
The name of grandfather of the Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H):

Abdul Mutalib

3. The Qureshi were used profession of
A) Farming
B) Teaching
C) Trading
D) Hunting
E) Fishing

4. When Prophet Muhammad(PBUH) left his followers physically the Muslims take an oath on the hand of:
A) Hazrat Ali R.A
B) Hazrat Abu Bakar R.A
C) Hazrat Usman R.A
D) Hazrat Talha R.A
E) Hazrat Umar R.A

5. The batle of Khyber was fought in hijrah:
A) 9th
B) 7th
C) 5th
D) 8th
E) 6th

6. The First Battle was fought between Muslim of Madina Quraish of Makkah was:
A) Khyber
B) Muta
C) Khandak
D) Uhad
E) Badar

7. In the battle of Baddr the leader of Quraysh was :
A) Aamir Al Hazar
B) Utbabin Rabia
C) Abu Sufyan
D) Abu Jihil
E) Umar bin abdwud

8. The name of the 1st wife of the Prophet (P.B.U.H):
A) Bibi Ume-e-Salma R.A
B) Bibi Ayesha R.A
C) Bibi Hafsa R.A
D) Bibi Khadija R.A
E) Bibi Safia R.A

9. Hazrat Ali R.A belong to:
A) Bano Quraiza
B) Bano Nazir
C) Bano Hashim
D) Bano Abbas
E) Bano Ummya

10. The Name of The Prophet whom the people had took into the fire was:
A) Hazra Essa A.S
B) Hazrat Zakarya A.S
C) Hazrat Ibrahim A.S
D) Hazrat Mussa A.S
E) Hazrat Daud A.S

11. The number of Khulafa-e-Rashdin are:
A) Two
B) Five
C) Three
D) Four
E) Six

12. The prophet (P.B.U.H) go this 1st marriage at the age of:
A) 25 years
B) 35 years
C) 30 years
D) 20 years
E) 40 years

13. In Battle of Uhud the number of Muslim Army was:
A) 600
B) 900
C) 700
D) 1000
E) 800

14. Abu Jahl Was Killed In battle of:
A) Khandak
B) Badar
C) Khyber
D) Hunain
E) Uhad

15. In The Islamic History the 1st time“Azan”call for prayer was given by:
A) Hazrat Usman
B) Hazrat Ali
C) Hazrat Umar
D) Hazrat Bilal
E) Hazrat Zubair

16. The work of taken out soul from the human body is done by the angel:
A) Hazrat Izraeel A.S
B) None of these
C) Hazrat Meekail A.S
D) Hazrat Israfeel A.S
E) Hazrat Jibraeel A.S

17. When the Holy Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) left for Madinah from Makkah, he stays on his bed:
A) Hazrat Usman R.A
B) Hazrat Ali R.A
C) Hazrat AbuBakar R.A
D) Hazrat Umar R.A
E) Hazrat Hassan R.A

18. Khana Kabah was built by:
A) Hazrat Moosa A.S
B) Hazrat Mutalib
C) Hazrat AbuTalib
D) Hazrat Daud A.S
E) Hazrat Ibrahim A.S

19. The Name of the1st daughter of the Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H):
A) Bibi Ruquia R.A
B) Bibi Sakeena R.A
C) Bibi Zainab R.A
D) Bibi Ume Kulsoom R.A
E) Bibi Fatima R.A

20. The Holy book “Quran” was revealed on the prophet:
A) Hazrat Muhammad (PBUH)
B) Hazrat Zakria A.S
C) Hazrat Daud A.S
D) Hazrat Essa A.S
E) Hazrat Mussa A.S

21. The pact of Messak-e-Madina was held in:
A) 1st Hijrah
B) 4th Hijrah
C) 2nd Hijrah
D) 3rd Hijrah
E) 5th Hijrah

22. The Heart of Holy Quran is:
A) Suray Taha
B) Surah Al Ahzab
C) Surah Furqan
D) Surah Yaseen
E) Surah Rehman

23. The total no. of the Holy verses of the “Quran” are:
A) 113
B) 116
C) 114
D) 117
E) 115

24. The saying of the Holy Prophet Muhammad(PBUH)is known as:
A) Sahifa
B) Fiqah
C) Quran
D) None of these
E) Hadees

25. The sacred building of Islam is situated in the center of Makkah is known as:
A) Arafat
B) Kabah
C) Meekat
D) Riazul Janat
E) Janatul Baqi

26. The Prophet (P.B.U.H) tookhis1st travel with his mother in the age of:
A) 8 years
B) 9 years
C) 7 years
D) 6 years
E) 5 years

27. The last pillar of Islam is:
A) Nimaz
B) Fasting
C) Zakat
D) Haj
E) Kalma Tayaba

28. The Number of Devine books are:
A) Three
B) One
C) Two
D) Five
E) Four

29. The wife of Holy Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) Bibi Ayesha R.A was the daughter of:
A) Hazrat Umar R.A
B) Hazrat Zaid R.A
C) Hazrat Abu Bakar R.A
D) Hazrat Usman R.A
E) Hazrat Zubair R.A

30. The longest surah of the Holy Quran is:
A) Surah Alaq
B) Surah Al Hijrat
C) Surah Yaseen
D) Surah Rehman
E) Surah Baqarah

31. The revelation of the holy Quran was through the angle:
A) Meekaile A.S
B) Izraiel A.S
C) Israfeel A.S
D) Jibraiel A.S
E) None of these

32. The fasting has been done in the month of:
A) Safar
B) Shouban
C) Rajab
D) Moharam
E) Ramzan

33. When Bibi Khadija Got The marriage with the Prophet (P.B.U.H) her age was:
A) 25 years
B) 40 years
C) 30 years
D) 45 years
E) 35 years

34. Due to the social boycott of Quraish of Makkah the family of Hazrat Abu Talif has stay in the valley “Shoaib Abi Talib” almost:
A) Four year
B) One year
C) Three year
D) Five year
E) Two year

35. The Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H) delivered his last sermon at the place of:
A) Taif
B) Uhad
C) Arafat
D) Hudabia
E) Safa Marvah

36. Batle of Uhad was fought in the year of :
A) 5 hijri
B) 6 hijri
C) 4 hijri
D) 3 hijri
E) 2 hijri

37. The Prophet (P.B.U.H) belongs to the linage of:
A) Hazrat Daud (A.S)
B) Hazrat Noonh (A.S)
C) Hazrat Ibrahim (A.S)
D) Hazra tMussa (A.S)
E) Hazrat Idrees (A.S)

38. 1st Soorah of the Holy Quran:
A) Surah Alaq
B) Surah Fateh
C) Surah Ikhlas
D) Surah Naas
E) Surah Falaq

39. The Prophet (P.B.U.H) had preached Islam hiddenly almost :
A) 2 year
B) 5 year
C) 1 year
D) 3 year
E) 4 year

40. Bait-e-Uqba Oola has been in the year of Nabvi:
A) 13
B) 14
C) 11
D) 12
E) 10

Answer key:

1. D
2. Abdul Mutalib
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. D
8. D
9. D
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. E
19. C
20. A
21. A
22. D
23. A
24. E
25. B
26. E
27. D
28. E
29. C
30. E
31. D
32. E
33. B
34. C
35. C
36. D
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. E

Measures of Dispersion

Posted on May 15, 2022 by Bherulal

This term is used commonly to mean scatter, Deviation, Fluctuation, Spread or variability of data. The degree to which the individual values of the variate scatter away from the average or the central value, is called a dispersion. Types of Measures of Dispersions:

Absolute Measures of Dispersion: The measures of dispersion which are expressed in terms of original units of a data are termed as Absolute Measures.
Relative Measures of Dispersion: Relative measures of dispersion, are also known as coefficients of dispersion, are obtained as ratios or percentages. These are pure numbers independent of the units of measurement and used to compare two or more sets of data values.

Absolute Measures

Range
Quartile Deviation
Mean Deviation
Standard Deviation

Relative Measure

Co-efficient of Range
Co-efficient of Quartile Deviation
Co-efficient of mean Deviation
Co-efficient of Variation.

The Range: 1. The range is the simplest measure of dispersion. It is defined as the difference between the largest value and the smallest value in the data:

2. For grouped data, the range is defined as the difference between the upper class boundary (UCB) of the highest class and the lower class boundary (LCB) of the lowest class. MERITS OF RANGE:-

Easiest to calculate and simplest to understand.
Gives a quick answer.

DEMERITS OF RANGE:-

It gives a rough answer.
It is not based on all observations.
It changes from one sample to the next in a population.
It can’t be calculated in open-end distributions.
It is affected by sampling fluctuations.
It gives no indication how the values within the two extremes are distributed

Quartile Deviation (QD): 1. It is also known as the Semi-Interquartile Range. The range is a poor measure of dispersion where extremely large values are present. The quartile deviation is defined half of the difference between the third and the first quartiles: QD = Q₃ – Q₁/2 Inter-Quartile Range The difference between third and first quartiles is called the ‘Inter-Quartile Range’. IQR = Q₃ – Q₁ Mean Deviation (MD): 1. The MD is defined as the average of the deviations of the values from an average:

It is also known as Mean Absolute Deviation. 2. MD from median is expressed as follows:

3. for grouped data:

Mean Deviation:

The MD is simple to understand and to interpret.
It is affected by the value of every observation.
It is less affected by absolute deviations than the standard deviation.
It is not suited to further mathematical treatment. It is, therefore, not as logical as convenient measure of dispersion as the SD.

The Variance:

Mean of all squared deviations from the mean is called as variance
(Sample variance=S²; population variance= σ²sigma squared (standard deviation squared). A high variance means most scores are far away from the mean, a low variance indicates most scores cluster tightly about the mean.

Formula OR S² = Calculating variance: Heart rate of certain patient is 80, 84, 80, 72, 76, 88, 84, 80, 78, & 78. Calculate variance for this data. Solution: Step 1: Find mean of this data

= 800/10 Mean = 80 Step 2: Draw two Columns respectively ‘X’ and deviation about mean (X-

). In column ‘X’ put all values of X and in (X-

) subtract each ‘X’ value with

. Step 3: Draw another Column of (X-

)², in which put square of deviation about mean.

X	(X- ) Deviation about mean	(X- )² Square of Deviation about mean
80 84 80 72 76 88 84 80 78 78	80 – 80 = 0 84 – 80 = 4 80 – 80 = 0 72 – 80 = -8 76 – 80 = -4 88 – 80 = 8 84 – 80 = 4 80 – 80 = 0 78 – 80 = -2 78 – 80 = -2	0 x 0 = 00 4 x 4 = 16 0 x 0 = 00 -8 x -8 = 64 -4 x -4 = 16 8 x 8 = 64 4 x 4 = 16 0 x 0 = 00 -2 x -2 = 04 -2 x -2 = 04
∑X = 800 = 80	∑(X- ) = 0 Summation of Deviation about mean is always zero	∑(X- )2 = 184 Summation of Square of Deviation about mean

Step 4 Apply formula and put following values ∑(X-

)²= 184 n = 10 Variance2JPG

Variance = 184/ 10-1 = 184/9 Variance = 20.44 Standard Deviation

The SD is defined as the positive Square root of the mean of the squared deviations of the values from their mean.
The square root of the variance.
It measures the spread of data around the mean. One standard deviation includes 68% of the values in a sample population and two standard deviations include 95% of the values & 3 standard deviations include 99.7% of the values
The SD is affected by the value of every observation.
In general, it is less affected by fluctuations of sampling than the other measures of dispersion.
It has a definite mathematical meaning and is perfectly adaptable to algebraic treatment.

Formula: OR S = Calculating Standard Deviation (we use same example): Heart rate of certain patient is 80, 84, 80, 72, 76, 88, 84, 80, 78, & 78. Calculate standard deviation for this data. SOLUTION: Step 1: Find mean of this data

= 800/10 Mean = 80 Step 2: Draw two Columns respectively ‘X’ and deviation about mean (X-). In column ‘X’ put all values of X and in (X-) subtract each ‘X’ value with. Step 3: Draw another Column of (X- )², in which put square of deviation about mean.

X	(X- ) Deviation about mean	(X- )2 Square of Deviation about mean
80 84 80 72 76 88 84 80 78 78	80 – 80 = 0 84 – 80 = 4 80 – 80 = 0 72 – 80 = -8 76 – 80 = -4 88 – 80 = 8 84 – 80 = 4 80 – 80 = 0 78 – 80 = -2 78 – 80 = -2	0 x 0 = 00 4 x 4 = 16 0 x 0 = 00 -8 x -8 = 64 -4 x -4 = 16 8 x 8 = 64 4 x 4 = 16 0 x 0 = 00 -2 x -2 = 04 -2 x -2 = 04
∑X = 800 = 80	∑(X- ) = 0 Summation of Deviation about mean is always zero	∑(X- )2 = 184 Summation of Square of Deviation about mean

Step 4 Apply formula and put following values ∑(X-

)2 = 184 n = 10 MERITS AND DEMERITS OF STD. DEVIATION

Std. Dev. summarizes the deviation of a large distribution from mean in one figure used as a unit of variation.
It indicates whether the variation of difference of a individual from the mean is real or by chance.
Std. Dev. helps in finding the suitable size of sample for valid conclusions.
It helps in calculating the Standard error.

DEMERITS-

It gives weightage to only extreme values. The process of squaring deviations and then taking square root involves lengthy calculations.

Relative measure of dispersion: (a) Coefficient of Variation, (b) Coefficient of Dispersion, (c) Quartile Coefficient of Dispersion, and (d) Mean Coefficient of Dispersion. Coefficient of Variation (CV): 1. Coefficient of variation was introduced by Karl Pearson. The CV expresses the SD as a percentage in terms of AM:

—————- For sample data

————— For population data

It is frequently used in comparing dispersion of two or more series. It is also used as a criterion of consistent performance, the smaller the CV the more consistent is the performance.
The disadvantage of CV is that it fails to be useful when is close to zero.
It is sometimes also referred to as ‘coefficient of standard deviation’.
It is used to determine the stability or consistency of a data.
The higher the CV, the higher is instability or variability in data, and vice versa.

Coefficient of Dispersion (CD): If X_m and X_n are respectively the maximum and the minimum values in a set of data, then the coefficient of dispersion is defined as:

Coefficient of Quartile Deviation (CQD): 1. If Q₁ and Q₃ are given for a set of data, then (Q₁ + Q₃)/2 is a measure of central tendency or average of data. Then the measure of relative dispersion for quartile deviation is expressed as follows:

CQD may also be expressed in percentage. Mean Coefficient of Dispersion (CMD): The relative measure for mean deviation is ‘mean coefficient of dispersion’ or ‘coefficient of mean deviation’:

——————– for arithmetic mean

——————– for median Percentiles and Quartiles The mean and median are special cases of a family of parameters known as location parameters. These descriptive measures are called location parameters because they can be used to designate certain positions on the horizontal axis when the distribution of a variable is graphed. Percentile:

Percentiles are numerical values that divide an ordered data set into 100 groups of values with at the most 1% of the data values in each group. There can be maximum 99 percentile in a data set.
A percentile is a measure that tells us what percent of the total frequency scored at or below that measure.

Percentiles corresponding to a given data value: The percentile in a set corresponding to a specific data value is obtained by using the following formula Number of values below X + 0.5 Percentile = ——————————————– Number of total values in data set Example: Calculate percentile for value 12 from the following data 13 11 10 13 11 10 8 12 9 9 8 9 Solution: Step # 01: Arrange data values in ascending order from smallest to largest

S. No	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12
Observations or values	8	8	9	9	9	10	10	11	11	12	13	13

Step # 02: The number of values below 12 is 9 and total number in the data set is 12 Step # 03: Use percentile formula 9 + 0.5 Percentile for 12 = ——— x 100 = 79.17% 12 It means the value of 12 corresponds to 79^th percentile Example2: Find out 25^th percentile for the following data 6 12 18 12 13 8 13 11 10 16 13 11 10 10 2 14 SOLUTION Step # 01: Arrange data values in ascending order from smallest to largest

S. No	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12	13	14	15	16
Observations or values	2	6	8	10	10	10	11	11	12	12	13	13	13	14	16	18

Step # 2 Calculate the position of percentile (n x k/ 100). Here n = No: of observation = 16 and k (percentile) = 25 16 x 25 16 x 1 Therefore Percentile = ———- = ——— = 4 100 4 Therefore, 25^th percentile will be the average of values located at the 4^th and 5^th position in the ordered set. Here values for 4^th and 5^th correspond to the value of 10 each. (10 + 10) Thus, P₂₅ (=P_k) = ————– = 10 2 Quartiles These are measures of position which divide the data into four equal parts when the data is arranged in ascending or descending order. The quartiles are denoted by Q.

Quartiles	Formula for Ungrouped Data	Formula for Grouped Data
Q₁ = First Quartile below which first 25% of the observations are present
Q₂ = Second Quartile below which first 50% of the observations are present. It can easily be located as the median value.
Q₃ = Third Quartile below which first 75% of the observations are present

Symbol Key:

Epidemiology MCQs

Posted on May 15, 2022 by Bherulal

1. Which of the following is NOT a part of continuum of natural history of the disease?
a) Stage of Susceptibility
b) Stage of preclinical
c) Stage of prevention
d) Stage of recovery

2. Which of the following is also known as retrospective studies?
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

3. Total number of deaths reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) death rate
b) Crude death rate
c) mortality rate
d) proportional mortality

4. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) Birth Rate
b) Growth Rate
c) Crude Fertility rate
d) Crude Birth Rate

5. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated number of women age 15 to 44 years mid interval is known as;
a) Crude Fertility Rate
b) Birth Rate
c) Growth Rate
d) Sex ratio

6. Number of current cases(new and old) of specified disease identified over a given time interval from estimated population at mid interval is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Period Prevalence
c) Point Prevalence
d) Disease Prevalence

7. Use of statistics to analyze characteristics or changes to a population is termed as;
a) population Pyramid
b) vital statistics
c) Population statistics
d) Population dynamics

8. Which of the following term provides true representation of whole population?
a) Sampling
b) Random Sampling
c) Case reporting
d) Sample
9. Measure of the frequency of occurrence of death in a defined population during a specified interval is called;
a) Crude death rate
b) Mortality Rate
c) Death ratio
d) Mortality

10. Public health surveillance DOES NOT consists on the following step;
a) Systematic collection
b) Analysis
c) Planning
d) Interpretation

11. Surveillance system information cycles include;
a) Family and community
b) Public, Health care provider and Health agencies
c) None of the above
d) Public, Health care provider only

12. Epidemiology can be defined as follow EXCEPT;
a) Distribution of health related states
b) Community leaders and their family crises
c) Determinant of health related events
d) Apply to the control of health problems

13. A state of disorder that results from communication ONLY by direct contact is termed as;
a) Infectious disease
b) Contamination
c) Epidemic
d) Contagious disease

14. Which of the following is NOT a basic measurement in epidemiology;
a) Rate
b) Nominator
c) Ratio
d) Proportion

15. Which of the following is usually expressed as percentage;
a) Rate
b) Nominator
c) Ratio
d) Proportion

16. Measurement of disease, disability or death and converting this information in to rates and ratio is defined as;
a) Specificity
b) Screening
c) Frequency
d) Sensitivity

17. Measurement of current status of disease is termed as;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) Cumulative Incidence
d) Mid interval population

18. A person who harbors the microorganisms of a disease and excretes them without self suffering from symptoms is called;
a) Reservoir
b) Carrier
c) Host
d) Agent

19. The modes of transmission of infectious diseases are as follow EXCEPT;
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Physiological
d) Biological

20. The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) a and b
d) Cumulative incidence

21. Epidemiological methods can be categorized as follow;
a) Descriptive, cohort and case control
b) Descriptive, cross sectional and experimental
c) Descriptive, prospective and experimental
d) Descriptive, Analytical and experimental

22. In descriptive epidemiology disease described in terms of;
a) What, Why and How
b) Host, Agent and Environment
c) Time, Place and Person
d) Agent, Place and Person

23. Which of the following is also known as prospective study;
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

24. In epidemiological triad environmental factors can be classified as;
a) Physical
b) Chemical
c) Social
d) Biological

25. Which of the following ratio provide us an estimate of risk in case control study;
a) Odd ratio
b) Sex ratio
c) Disease ratio
d) Dependency ratio

26. The entire group of people or elements that have at least one thing is common is known as;
a) Sample
b) Parameter
c) Hypothesis
d) Population

27. Sampling done on the basis of some pre determined ideas and its result can not be generalized is defined as follow;
a) Snow ball sampling
b) Purposive sampling
c) Probability sampling
d) Non-probability sampling

28. Tertiary prevention includes;
a) Disability limitation
b) Prompt treatment
c) Rehabilitation
d) a and c
e) a and b

29. Agents such as vitamins, protein, fat etc. are an examples of;
a) Physical Agents
b) Nutritive Agents
c) Chemical Agents
d) All of the above

30. Which of the following are key components of Epidemiological triangle,
a) Host, Agent and Physical Environment
b) Host, Genes and Physical Environment
c) Host, Agent and Environment
d) None of the above

31. Tertiary prevention Does not includes;
a) Disability limitation
b) Prompt treatment
c) Rehabilitation
d) a and c
32. Agents such as vitamins, protein, fat etc. are an examples of;
a) Physical Agents
b) Nutritive Agents
c) Chemical Agents
d) All of the above
33. Which of the following are not key components of Epidemiological triangle,
a) Host and Agent
b) Host and Environment
c) Host, Agent and Environment
d) Time, Place and Person
34. Which of the following is a part of continuum of natural history of the disease?
a) Stage of health promotion
b) Stage of prevention
c) Stage of Recovery
d) Stage of sampling
35. Which of the following are also known as retrospective studies?
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

36. A person who harbors the microorganisms of a disease and excretes them without self suffering from symptoms is called;
a) Reservoir
b) Carrier
c) Host
d) Agent
37. The modes of transmission of infectious diseases are as follow EXCEPT;
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Physiological
d) Biological

38. Total number of deaths reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) death rate
b) Crude death rate
c) mortality rate
d) proportional mortality
39. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated mid-interval population is called;
a) Birth Rate
b) Growth Rate
c) Crude Fertility rate
d) Crude Birth Rate
40. Number of live births reported during a given time interval from estimated number of women age 15 to 44 years mid interval is known as;
a) Crude Fertility Rate
b) Birth Rate
c) Growth Rate
d) Sex ratio

41. Number of current cases(new and old) of specified disease identified over a given time interval from estimated population at mid interval is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Period Prevalence
c) Point Prevalence
d) Disease Prevalence
42. Use of statistics to analyze characteristics or changes to a population is termed as;
a) population Pyramid
b) vital statistics
c) Population statistics
d) Population dynamics
43. Measure of the frequency of occurrence of death in a defined population during a specified interval is called;
a) Crude death rate
b) Mortality Rate
c) Death ratio
d) Mortality
44. Public health surveillance DOES NOT consists on the following step;
a) Systematic collection
b) Analysis
c) Planning
d) Interpretation
45. Surveillance system information cycles include;
a) Family and community
b) Public, Health care provider and Health agencies
c) None of the above
d) Public, Health care provider only

46. A state of disorder that results from communication ONLY by direct contact is termed as;
a) Infectious disease
b) Contamination
c) Epidemic
d) Contagious disease
47. Which of the following is NOT a basic measurement in epidemiology;
a) Rate
b) Nominator
c) Ratio
d) Proportion
48. Measurement of current status of disease is termed as;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) Cumulative Incidence
d) Mid interval population
49. The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time is called;
a) Prevalence
b) Incidence
c) a and b
d) Cumulative incidence
50. Which of the following is also known as prospective study;
a) Cohort studies
b) Descriptive studies
c) Experimental studies
d) Case control studies

51. Which of the following ratio provide us an estimate of risk in case control study;
a) Odd ratio
b) Sex ratio
c) Disease ratio
d) Dependency ratio
52. The entire group of people or elements that have at least one thing is common is known as;
a) Sample
b) Parameter
c) Hypothesis
d) Population
53. Sampling done on the basis of some pre determined ideas and its result can not be generalized is defined as follow;
a) Snow ball sampling
b) Purposive sampling
c) Probability sampling
d) Non-probability sampling

54. Graphical illustration that shows the distribution of various age groups in population is known as;
a) Dependency Ratio
b) Age Ratio
c) Population Pyramid
d) Population Dynamics
55. Ratio of population who are economically not active to those who are economically active can be defined as;
a) Dependency Ratio
b) Age Ratio
c) Population Ratio
d) Risk benefit ratio
56. In which of the following sampling there is a minimum chance of bias and equally chances of being selected for study.
a) Accidental Sampling
b) Simple Random Sampling
c) Purposive Sampling
d) Snow ball Sampling
57. In study if we are selecting every seventh subject it comes under which of the following sampling method?
a) Stratified Sampling
b) Quota Sampling
c) Systematic Sampling
d) Purposive Sampling
58. Systematic errors produced by your sampling procedure is known as;
a) Sampling bias
b) Sampling errors
c) Non sampling errors
d) Random error
59. The profile of single patient is reported in detail by one or more clinicians is called as follow;
a) Case control study
b) Case Series
c) Investigation
d) Case Report
60. In which of the following study we compare one group among whom the problem is present and another group where problem is absent?
a) Case control study
b) Case Series
c) Cohort study
d) Case Report

Answer key:
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. C
20. B

21. D
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. D
27. B
28. D
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. B
33. D
34. C
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. B
44. C
45. B
46. D
47. B
48. A
49. B
50. A
51. A
52. D
53. B
54. C
55. A
56. B
57. C
58. A
59. D
60. A

Explain the Madni life of the Prophet (P.B.U.H) in detail?

Posted on May 14, 2022 by Bherulal

The Prophet’s entry into Madina ushers in a new phase for the divine message. Islam gaining fresh followers began to assert its strength and soon started to spread out over the four corners of the Arabian Peninsula.

In the previous chapters we have already noted that the Prophet was 53 years of age at the time of his auspicious migration. In Madina he spent the remaining 10 years of his life and it was here that other brilliant aspects of his immaculate personality became fully manifest. The divine call now entered a decisive stage and many important events took place in Madina, which eventually laid a firm foundation for the spread of Islam to the furthest reaches of the globe.

In 8 Hijra, 10,000 Muslim men were moving toward Mecca, which resulted in Victory of Mecca.

It can be seen Islam progressed rapidly when there was peace. As when there were wars – during 2 to 5 Hijra, Muslim rose from 300 to 1500 [or 3000] -Versus- during peaceful 6 to 8 Hijra, Muslim men rose to 10,000. So these events made the migration to Madinah a success. The blessings of Allah and prayers of Holy Prophet PBUH, vehement opposition by Meccans, acceptance by people in Madina, organized efforts, a Peace treaty with Meccans, and concentrated missionary work, were the causes, in short to say.

Fundamental of Nursing

Posted on May 13, 2022 by Bherulal

Fundamental of Nursing MCQs/BCQs BSc Nursing

1. A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The nurse administered anti diarrheal tablets to the patient. What phrase of nursing process is being implemented here by the nurse?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Implementation

2. It is best describe as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care for individual, families, group and community.
A. Assessment
B. Nursing Process
C. Diagnosis
D. Implementation

3. The 1st technique used in examining the abdomen of a client is:
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Percussion
D. Inspection

4. During a routine examination you are assessing the putting pressure on the patient’s abdomen to evaluate that whether the patient is having tenderness or not, you are performing which of the following technique:
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion

5. The nurse is using otoscope for assessing the patient. Which of the following area is tested?
A. Optic
B. Olfactory
C. Oculomotor
D. Trochlear

6. A nurse is performing an initial assessment for a client. Which of the following could be considered objective information except?
A. The client’s blood pressure increases when the provider enters the room
B. The client weighs 186 pounds
C. The client rates pain at a level of 6 on the numeric rating scale
D. The client has a pinpoint rash on the face and trunk

7. A patient comes to the health care setup, you are assessing the patient and you gathered information about the patient current health status and past health status, you are doing..
A. Assessment
B. Interviewing
C. Data Collection
D. All of the above

8. A patient is brought to ED in unconscious status, you gathered data from the patient’s relatives or attendants, this type of data can be labeled as_________________
A. Primary source of data
B. Objective data
C. Secondary source of data
D. All of the above

9. During your conversation for gathering data, you asked several questions from the patient and you got the answers for those questions, you are using ________________ skill for data collection.
A. Objective data
B. Secondary data
C. Source of data
D. None of the above

10. The component of the nursing diagnose that shows the client’s health status and directs the nurse towards the formation of the nursing interventions is___________________
A. Etiology
B. Defining characteristics
C. Problem Statement
D. None of the above

11. The Nurse is providing physical care, emotional support, comfort, teaching, counseling and environmental support to the patient, all these interventions can be labeled as _______________
A. Dependent interventions
B. Independent interventions
C. Collaborative interventions
D. Systematic interventions.

12. Nursing documentation can be use in the following aspects:
A. Communication
B. Education
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

13. While preparing the patient for surgery, Nurse is taking signatures from the patient or the patient’s relative to allow for the surgery, this document is called_______________
A. Medical record
B. Detailed chart
C. Check list
D. Patient assessment form
E. None of the above

14. The organized, purposeful and disciplined thinking process is known as______________
A. Deep thinking
B. Enhanced thinking
C. Critical thinking
D. Dependent thinking

15. The following are the steps that are involved in critical thinking_____________
A. Interpretation
B. Analysis
C. Evaluation
D. Self regulation
E. Both A & B
F. All of the above

16. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage is known as:
A. Pain
B. Stimulus
C. Stress
D. None of the above

17. A 50 year old male patient is admitted in the medicine department, is complaining of the pain in the right lower limb, The nurse assessed the patient and was unable to know the etiology of the pain, this pain can be labeled as ________________
A. Nociceptive pain
B. Psychogenic pain
C. Neuropathic pain
D. Relative pain.

18. A 62 year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department, with severe chest pain on the left side, spreading towards the left shoulder and left arm, when the nurse assessed the patient she came to know that the patient is suspected for MI, the nurse labeled the type of pain as_____
A. Phantom pain
B. Referred pain
C. Radiating pain
D. Psychogenic pain

19. Retrosternal chest pain can be labeled as______________
A. Phantom pain
B. Referred pain
C. Radiating pain
D. Psychogenic pain

20. A 780 year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department, with diabetic foot gangrene with severe pain in the foot, the doctor performed surgery and amputated the foot, post operatively the patient was perceiving pain in the foot, the nurse informed the doctor that the patient is having _________________ pain.
A. Referred pain
B. Radiating pain
C. Psychogenic pain
D. Nociceptive pain
E. None of the above

21. According to this theory pain is produced when any sensory nerve is stimulated to a certain level:
A. Intensity theory
B. Specificity Theory
C. Gate control Theory
D. All of the above

22. All of the following are Non Pharmacological measures for relieving pain except__________
A. Distraction
B. Humor
C. Music
D. Opoids
E. Relaxation

23. The sum of all the interactions between an organism and the food it consumes is called_____
A. Nutrients
B. Nutrition
C. Food availability
D. All of the above

24. Rate at which food is metabolized to maintain energy requirements of a person who is awake and at rest
A. Catabolism
B. Anabolism
C. Basal Metabolic Rate
D. Metabolism

25. The nurse is assessing a 3 year old baby for nutritional status, The nurse measures the Height and weight, Growth curve, Head and chest circumferences, Skin fold thickness, and Mid arm circumference, the nurse asks the student nurse that which type of measurements she had taken, the student nurse will answer _______________
A. Anthropometric measurement
B. Body measurement
C. Height and weight
D. Physical measurement

26. You are asked to calculate the BMI for the patient having Weight = 70 kg (154 lb) and Height= 5 feet (60 inches or 1.52 m) , what will be the BMI of the patient _____________
A. 20
B. 30.1
C. 55
D. 22

27. You calculated the BMI of the patient in question no. 26, look at the patient BMI and label the patient into one category:
A. Under weight
B. Normal weight
C. Obesity
D. None of the above

28. You are taking history from the patient at OPD, and the patient tell you that he pass feces 2 times a day in routine, he tells now he has not passed stool from 4 days, the nurse will consider that the patient is having:
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Flatulence
D. Bowel incontinence

29. If constipation is prolonged it can lead to _____________
A. More Constipation
B. Bowel incontinence
C. Fecal impaction
D. Fecal incontinence.

30. A 25year old male patient is admitted in the medicine department, is complaining of excessively liquid stool, Difficult to control urge for defecation and Spasmodic cramps, on assessment you came to know that the patient is dehydrated and have increase bowel sound, what will be your diagnoses?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Flatulence
D. Bowel incontinence

31. The loss of voluntary ability to control the fecal and gaseous discharge through the anal sphincter is called _________________
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. Flatulence
D. Bowel incontinence

32. you are taking history from the patient, and the patient tells you that he is unable to control flatus, as well as complain of minor soiling: you can consider this condition as___________
A. Diarrhea
B. Partial bowel incontinence
C. Major bowel incontinence
D. None of the above.

33. The presence of excessive flatus in the intestines is called_______________
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

34. A nursing student ask you a question that, in which stage of sleep the dreaming occurs, what will be your answer ????
A. NREM Stage 3
B. NREM Stage 4
C. REM Stage
D. Deep Sleep Stage
E. All of the above

35. While caring for a client with disturbed sleep pattern, which of the following will be your nursing intervention on priority?
A. Maintain a good circadian rhythm
B. Get adequate exercise during day time, but avoid excessive exertion before bed time.
C. Avoid dealing with office work or family problem before bedtime.
D. Use the bed mainly for sleep, so that you associate it with sleep.

36. The most common form of sexual activity is _______________
A. Homosexual genital intercourse
B. Orgasm
C. Libido
D. Heterosexual genital intercourse

37. Sexual response cycle includes the following phases except__________
A. Excitement phase
B. Plateau phase
C. Maintenance phase
D. Orgasmic phase
E. Resolution phase

38. “Many sexual therapist advise to increase sexual communication to avoid this problem” which of the following best justifies the above statement.
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Pre mature Ejaculation
C. Dysparunia
D. All of the above

39. The chronic vulvar discomfort or pain that characterized by complaints of burning or pain or irritation of the female genitalia is known as:
A. Dysparunia
B. Vaginal infection
C. Vulvodynia
D. Vaginismus

40. You are on duty in urology department and you are asked to, asses the male patient’s genital organs, you will assess all of the following in physical examination except?
A. Inspect for any scars or lesions on the external genitals.
B. Ask for Current problem in sexual activity
C. Inspect for any changes in the shape of genital organs.
D. Compare the size of both testes

41. Nurse Elisabeth is teaching about sexual health to client, she taught about various things, some of them are the following, the head nurse noted Elisabeth that all of her teaching was right except:
A. Encourage open communication between partners.
B. Teach about kegel exercise to women.
C. Teach about any changes in sexual pattern due to any medications or following surgical procedure.
D. Do you have any problem in your sexuality?

42. The permanent cessation of function of vital organs of the body, including heart beat, spontaneous breathing and brain activity is known as_____________
A. Rest
B. Sleep
C. Death
D. All of the above

43. You have a 75 years old patient in ICU in critical condition, the physician tells you that the patient is not in satisfactory condition and going towards death, he noted the following manifestation and made his statement:
A. Loss of muscle tone
B. Slowing of the circulation
C. Changes in the vital signs
D. Sensory impairment
E. All of the above
F. None of the above

44. In the same case (as in question 43), the patient is expired, and the doctor declares the patient death, on which of the following basis the doctor declared this death?
A. Total lack of response to external stimuli
B. No muscular movement
C. No reflexes
D. Flat encephalogram
E. All of the above
F. Both B, C and D

45.” Does not understand concept of death, believes death is reversible, temporary departure or sleep.” From whom we can expect the above mentioned response?
A. A 5 year child
B. An Adult
C. A person in late adulthood
D. None of the above

46. “Fears prolonged illness, sees death as having multiple meanings, freedom from pain, and reunion with already deceased family members” From whom we can expect the above mentioned response?
A. An Adult having age of 20 years
B. A child
C. Above 65 years
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

47. The stiffening of the body that occurs about 2 to 4 hours after death is called _____________
A. Algor Mortis
B. Rigor Mortis
C. Livor Mortis
D. Stiffening of the body
E. Discoloration

48. _______________Is the gradual decrease of the body temperature after death.
A. Algor Mortis
B. Rigor Mortis
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

49. The loss that can be identified by others and can arise in response to a situation is called_________
A. Anticipatory loss
B. Perceived loss
C. Actual loss
D. None of the above

50. All of the following are Kubler Ross propose stages of grief except____________
A. Denial
B. Adopting
C. Anger
D. Depression.

Fundamental of Nursing MCQs/BCQs

Posted on May 12, 2022 by Bherulal

Fundamental of Nursing-I|1stYear|2nd Semester| BSN(Generic)

1. Which of the following is not true about rapid eye movement sleep?
A) metabolic rate increases
B) dreams occur
C) slow wave sleep
D) pulse blood pressure and breathing increases
E) fast waves sleep

2. The client who doesn’t have fever is called:
A) Febrile
B) Hyperpyrexia
C) Afebrile
D) Pyrexia
E) Hypothermia

3. Which of the following is an example of objective data?
A) Severe headache
B) feeling of very severe pain in abdomen
C) feeling worry
D) discoloration of skin
E) complain of loose motion

4. Factors that affect sexual functioning includes
A) Family
B) Personal expectations
C) Religion
D) all of these
E) Culture

5. Concern for the Welfare and wellbeing for others is:
A) Altruism
B) Autonomy
C) Integrity
D) Social Justice
E) human dignity

6. Complicated grieving may not characterize by:
A) suicidal thoughts
B) severe physiologic symptoms
C) extended time of denial
D) sleep disturbance
E) Depression

7. Which of the following statement is true regarding non rapid eye movement (NREM)
A) also called paradoxical sleep
B) sleepoccursevery20minutesandlastfor5to30minutes
C) Brain is highly active
D) usually dream takes place in this sleep
E) sleepers heart rate and respiratory rate drops

8. Which of the following is not a component of nursing process:
A) Intervention
B) Scientific Rationale
C) Assessment & Nursing Diagnosis
D) Expected Outcome
E) Evaluation

9. Loss of voluntary ability to control fecal and gaseous discharge through anal sphincters:
A) Bowel incontinence
B) Constipation
C) Diarrhea
D) Flatulence
E) Urinary incontinence

10. Which of the following is not correct for chronic pain:
A) parasympathetic nervous system responses
B) client appears depressed and withdrawn
C) it lasted six months or longer
D) sympathetic nervous system responses
E) vital signs normal

11. After al medication have been given through nasogastric tube the nurse should:
A) Flush the tube with 30cc water
B) No Need to Flush
C) Flush the tube with 100cc water
D) Flush the tube with 50 water IN
E) Wash out tube thoroughly

12. The Most commonly used methods for stress management includes the following except
A) age
B) Minimize anxiety
C) Exercise
D) Nutrition
E) Mediating anger

13. Inability to obtain and adequate amount or quality of sleep is:
A) Hypersomnia
B) Narcolepsy
C) sleep apnea
D) insomnia
E) parainsomnia

14. Characteristics of normal color of urine is?
A) Dark amber
B) Straw, amber transparent
C) Cloudy
D) Red or dark brown
E) Dark orange

15. Painful or difficult urination is called?
A) hematuria
B) Oliguria
C) polyuria
D) residual urine
E) dysuria

16. Which of the following is a micronutrient?
A) Proteins
B) carbohydrates
C) Water
D) Fat
E) Minerals

17. The major source of body energy is:
A) Minerals
B) Vitamins
C) Carbohydrates
D) Lipids
E) Proteins

18. Data on health status of the client can be obtained by:
A) Lab. reports
B) Diagnostic test results
C) Nursing history
D) Physical assessment
E) All of these

19. Amount of urine output less than 400 ml in 24 hours is called:
A) Anuria

B) Oliguria
C) Polyuria
D) Hematuria
E) Dysuria

20. Which of The nursing intervention is not included to promote a positive concept in client:
A) establish therapeutic relationship with the client
B) avoid eye contact with patient
C) helping our clients to identify areas of strength
D) assist the client to evaluate himself
E) assist the client to make behavioral change

21. Which of The following is not a physiological manifestation of stress?
A) Depression
B) increase cardiac output
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Constipation
E) dry mouth

22. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of human need which of the following human need should met first:
A) Self-actualization
B) Safety and security
C) Self Esteem
D) Love and belonging
E) Physiologic needs

23. When Giving ophthalmic medication in the form of gtts it should be installed
A) Conjunctiva
B) Pupil
C) Sclera
D) Outer canthus
E) Inner canthus

24. Leakage of urine despite of voluntary control of urination is called:
A) Incontinence
B) Urgency
C) Dribbling
D) residual urine
E) hesitancy

25. Average daily urine output by the age of 14years through adulthood is?
A) 1500ml

B) 600-700ml
C) 800-1400ml
D) 1500ml or less
E) 700-1000ml

26. Which of The following statement regarding subcutaneous injection is not true?
A) It is injected just below the skin subcutaneous layer
B) Given at 25-degree angle
C) Only 0.5-1 ml is given
D) Insulin is also given subcutaneously
E) Given at 45-degree angle

27. Non rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep occurs about:
A) 50 to 60%
B) 70 to 80%
C) 40 to 50%
D) 30 to 40%
E) 20 to 30%

28. Physical Change of pain includes the following Except:
A) Elevated respiratory rate
B) Elevated dilated pupils, cyanosed and perspiration
C) Elevated blood pressure
D) Elevated pulse rate
E) Stress and restless

29. Process of designing nursing action required to prevent, reduce or eliminate patients’ problem is:
A) Planning
B) Assessment
C) nursing diagnosis
D) Evaluation
E) Implementation

30. The Type of functional Health Pattern which focus on the person’ perceived level of health and wellbeing and on practices for maintaining health is:
A) Self-perception/Self-concept pattern
B) Role and relationship pattern
C) Health perception/health management pattern
D) Value belief pattern
E) Cognitive/perceptual pattern

31. Which of The following statement regarding intradermal injection is not true?
A) Check for bleb or wheal
B) Use 26-27-gauge needle
C) Given at 5-15-degree angle
D) Given for allergy test
E) Inject into deep muscles

32. The first step of nursing process is?
A) Planning
B) Evaluation
C) Diagnosis
D) Assessment
E) Implementation

33. Which of The Following is a dependent nursing action?
A) Giving mouth care
B) Intake and output monitoring
C) Giving bed bath
D) Changing clients position 2hourly
E) Giving medications according to physician’s order

34. Draw The person that attention away from the pain through listening music:
A) Relaxation
B) guided imagery
C) imagery meditation
D) Distraction

35. The ability to listen actively can:
A) improve cooperation
B) improve interpersonal relationship
C) block understanding
D) minimize is communicate
E) reduce conflicts

36. One of The most important factor affecting person sleep and rest periods
A) lifestyle and habits
B) Environment
C) Illness
D) Fatigue
E) Age

37. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of oral route of medication?
A) Not suitable for unconscious patient
B) May cause irritation to gastric mucosa
C) Sometime may have adverse reaction
D) Portable, no pain, easy to take
E) Foodland Gastrointestinal motility can affect drug absorption

38. Intramuscular injection should be given at the angle of _______ degree.
A) 45
B) 75
C) 25
D) 35
E) 90

39. When Assessing a Person with altered concept the nurse should not:
A) minimize interruption
B) ask close ended questions
C) create a quiet environment
D) maintain appropriate eye contact
E) sit at eyelevel with the client

Answer key

1. E
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. A
6. E
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. E
16. E
17. C
18. E
19. B
20. B
21. C
22. E
23. A
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. E
32. D
33. E
34. A
35. E
36. A
37. D
38. E
39. B

Pakistan studies MCQs/BCQsdee

Posted on May 12, 2022 by Bherulal

B. Sc Nursing, Post RN BSN

MULTPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. During khilafat movement an excited mob set fire to a police station at chauri chaura village where about 22 policemen burnt alive in:

a. February 1922

b. February 1923

c. February 1920

d. February 1921

e. February 1924

2. Who presented the resolution for the formation of All India Muslim League:

a. Nawab Salimullah Khan

b. M. Ali Johar

c. Waqar-ul-Mulk

d. Mohsin-ul-Mulk

e. Sir Agha Khan

3. Which of the following was commonly known as the ’Father of idea of Pakistan’?

a. Sir Muhammad Shafi

b. Choudhary Rehmat Ali

c. M A Jinnah

d. Allama Iqbal

4. When India cut off Pakistan’s water supply without notice?

a. June 1948

b. April 1949

c. May 1948

d. May 1949

e. April 1948

5. Mahmood Ghaznavi who ruled Ghani from 997-1030 A.D. raided India for:

a. 17 times

b. 15 times

c. 16 times

d. 19 times

e. 18 times

6. Historical wars of Paniput are very famous ; this battle field is located in Indian Punjab. How many major wars were fought in this field?

a. Five

b. Six

c. Four

d. Three

e. Two

7. The 3rd June plan was announced on 3rd June by:

a. Lord Mounbatten

b. Jawahar Lal Nehru

c. Loord Wavell

d. Moti Lal Nehru

e. M.A. Jinnah

8. Quaid-e-Azam inaugurated the State Bank of Pakistan on:

a. 14th August, 1948

b. 1st July, 1949

c. 14th July, 1948

d. 1st July, 1948

e. 1st June, 1948

9. Who was the chairman of two boundary commissions between India and Pakistan?

a. Sir Cyril Radcliff

b. Tej sinjh

c. Muhammad Muneer

d. Din Muhammad

e. Mehar Chand

10. Name the Viceroy of India who made an offer in August 1940, on the behalf of British Government to Indian people:

a. Lord Wavel

b. Lord Mount Batten

c. Lord Irwin

d. Lord Linlithgow

e. Lord Hardinge

11. Who was appointed as the caretaker prime minister of Pakistan after the first dismissal of Benazeer Bhutto:

a. Aftab Ahmed Sherpao

b. Muhammad Khan Junejo

c. Moen Qureshi

d. Meraj Khalid

e. Ghulam Mustafa Jatoi

12. The Muslims of Sub-continent launched the Khilafat movement in the year of:

a. 1918

b. 1919

c. 1916

d. 1917

e. 1920

13. Which of the following was the first Muslim of India who placed Two Nation Theory?

a. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

b. Sir Agha Khan

c. M. Ali Jinnah

d. M. Ali Johar

e. Sir Muhammad Shafi

14. Quaid-e-Azam Muhammad Ali Jinnah joined All India Muslim League in the year of:

a. 1913

b. 1915

c. 1914

d. 1912

e. 1916

15. All India Muslim League was established in:

a. September 1905

b. December 1906

c. September 1906

d. December 1907

e. December 1905

16. The Mughal emperor who promulgated a new faith entitled Din-e-Elahi in 1581 A.D. was:

a. Akber

b. Jahangir

c. Humayun

d. Baber

e. Aurangzeb

17. Who was the first prime minister of Pakistan?

a. Kwaja Nazim-ud-din

b. M. Ali Jinnah

c. Liaquat Ali Khan

d. Muhammad Ali Bogra

e. Nur-ul-Amin

18. The Muslim Deputation met the Viceroy Minto in 1906 at:

a. Bombay

b. Delhi

c. Simla

d. Calcutta

e. Lahore

19. Who was the founder of Mughal dynasty?

a. Sher Shah

b. Humayun

c. Akber

d. Jahangir

e. Zaheer-ud-din Baber

20. In 712 A.D a Muslim expedition to conquer Sindh was sent by Hajjaj Bin Yousuf who was:

a. Governer of Iraq

b. Governer of Makran

c. Emperor of Egypt

d. King of Persia

e. Governer of Syria

21. The Simla Deputation led by Agha Khan was consisted of:

a. 25 members

b. 35 members

c. 30 members

d. 32 members

e. 40 members

22. When 3rd Martial law was imposed?

a. 5th July, 1980

b. 5th July, 1978

c. 5th July, 1976

d. 5th July, 1979

e. 5th July, 1977

23. Who coined the name Pakistan?

a. Maulana Muhammad Ali Johar

b. Choudhary Khaliq-uz-zama

c. M,A. Jinnah

d. Choudhary Rehmat Ali

e. Allama Iqbal

24. Select correct chronological order:

a. Akber, Shah Jahan, Humayun, Jahangir

b. Shah Jahan, Jahangir, Akber, Humayun

c. Akber, Humayun, Jahangir, Shah Jahan

d. Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Humayun, Akber

e. Humayun, Akber, Jahangir, Shah Jahan

25. On 23rd March, 1940, the famous resolution which came to be known as Pakistan Resolution was moved by:

a. Choudhary Khaliq-uz-zama

b. Moulvi Fazal-ul-Haq

c. Sardar Auranzeb

d. Moulana Zafar Ali Khan

e. M.Ali Johar

26. Sindh Provincial Muslim League Conference was held at Karachi and passed a resolution adopting Two-Nation Theory on:

a. 10th October, 1938

b. 10th October, 1941

c. 10th October, 1937

d. 10th October, 1939

e. 10th October, 1940

27. The British Government appointed Simon Commission for the recommendation for the new constitution in the year of:

a. 1928

b. 1926

c. 1927

d. 1930

e. 1929

28. The largest political forum of the Islamic countries in the world is:

a. NAM

b. Gulf Countries

c. OIC

d. ECO

e. Arab League

29. With the resignation of Congress Ministries, the Quaid-e-Azam appealed to the people to observe Day of Deliverance on:

a. 22 December, 1938

b. 22 January, 1940

c. 22 January, 1939

d. 22 December, 1939

e. 22 December, 1940

30. Under the Vidya Mandir scheme, the students were asked to pay respect and homage to Gandhi’s picture every day in their assemblies in the schools. The author of this scheme was.

a. Gandhi

b. Imam Ali

c. Zakir Hussain

d. Nehru

e. Dr. Abdul Kalam

31. Name the historians who visited India in 1001 A.D. gave earliest account of distinction between the Hindus and Muslims:

a. Mahmood Ghaznavi

b. Al-Beruni

c. Subuktigin

d. Shahabuddin

e. Alptigin

32. The Indian National Congress passed the ‘Quit India Resolution’ in Bombay on:

a. 30th August, 1942

b. 31st August, 1942

c. 28th August, 1942

d. 18th August, 1942

e. 8th August, 1942

33. Where Quaid-e-Azam taken to in the last months of his life:

a. Ziarat

b. Muree

c. Rawalpindi

d. Quetta

e. Lahore

34. India exploded five nuclear tests on 11th and 13th May 1998. Pakistan replied with atomic explosions on:

a. 27th May, 1998

b. 28th May, 1998

c. 26th May, 1998

d. 25th May, 1998

e. 24th May, 1998

35. The Quran and Sunnah declared as the supreme law of Pakistan in________ of constitution of 1973.

a. 9th amendment

b. 10th amendment

c. 7th amendment

d. 8th amendment

e. 11th amendment

36. Kashmir is located in the ________ of Pakistan.

a. East

b. North East

c. North

d. West

e. South

37. When East Pakistan separated from Pakistan?

a. 8th December, 1971

b. 18th December, 1971

c. 10th December, 1971

d. 16th December, 1971

e. 20th December, 1971

38. The famous Congress-League Scheme was signed in Lucknow in the year of:

a. 1916

b. 1912

c. 1914

d. 1919

e. 1918

39. Which significant step of Bhutto Government in 1974 was a great satisfaction for religious parties?

a. Qadianis were declared as non-Muslims

b. Friday was declared weekly holiday

c. Pakistan was declared Islamic state

d. Separate Electorate were announced

Answer Key:

1. A
2. A
3. B
4. E
5. A
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. D
11. E
12. B
13. A
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. C
19. E
20. A
21. B
22. E
23. D
24. E
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. D
30. C
31. B
32. E
33. A
34. B
35. A
36. C
37. D
38. A
39. A

Sensory and Motor Neurons

Posted on May 8, 2022 by Bherulal

Difference between Sensory and Motor Neurons

Sensory Neuron	Motor Neuron
Neurons that carry sensory impulse from sensory organs to the central nervous system are known as sensory neurons	A neuron that carries motor impulses from the central nervous system to specific effectors is known as motor neurons.
They are located in the dorsal root ganglion of the spinal nerve	They are located in the ventral root ganglion of the spinal cord.
It is unipolar	It is multipolar
Comprises of a short axon	Comprises of a long axon
An adult has an average of 10 million sensory nerves in the body	Half million of motor neurons are found in the body
Found in eyes, skin, ears, tongue and nose	Found in muscles and glands

Lateral wall of nose

Posted on May 8, 2022 by Bherulal

Short essay on lateral wall of nose:

The lateral wall of the nasal cavity is a region of the nasopharynx essential for humidifying and filtering the air we breathe in nasally.

Here we can find a structure called agger nasi. The agger nasi is also referred to as the ‘nasoturbinal concha’ or ‘nasal ridge.’ It can be described as a small mound or ridge found in the lateral side of the nasal cavity. The structure is located midway along the anterior aspect of the middle nasal concha. An abnormally enlarged form may restrict the drainage of the frontal sinus by obstructing the frontal recess area.

The lateral cartilage (upper lateral cartilage, lateral process of septal nasal cartilage) is situated below the inferior margin of the nasal bone, and is flattened, and triangular in shape.

Surfactant

Posted on May 8, 2022 by Bherulal

What is surfactant and what is its function?

Surfactant is a mixture of fat and proteins made in the lungs. Surfactant coats the alveoli (the air sacs in the lungs where oxygen enters the body). This prevents the alveoli from sticking together when your baby exhales (breathes out).

Its classically known role is to decrease surface tension in alveolar air spaces to a degree that facilitates adequate ventilation of the peripheral lung.

Nursing Tutorials

Tag Archives: LUMHS

Islamiat MCQs/BCQs

Measures of Dispersion

Epidemiology MCQs

Explain the Madni life of the Prophet (P.B.U.H) in detail?

Fundamental of Nursing

Fundamental of Nursing MCQs/BCQs

Pakistan studies MCQs/BCQsdee

Sensory and Motor Neurons

Lateral wall of nose

Surfactant