Five primary causes of low sperm count in males and how to prevent them

Over the past 50 years, men’s sperm count has declined by 51 percent.

This is the most important conclusion in the research conducted by Israel’s Hebrew University of Jerusalem and Mount Sinai School of Medicine in America.

Researchers analyzed the data and found that men had an average of 101 million reproductive cells per millimeter of semen in 1970, but that average has now dropped to 49 million.

As well as quantity, there is evidence that the quality of men has also declined, and reproductive cells have declined over the past decades.

“What was most affected was the sperm’s ability to circulate,” says urologist and andrologist Moker Raphael Radelli, vice president of the Razilian Association of Assisted Reproduction. Without this ability, the reproductive capacity of the sperm decreases.

Sperm count affected over time has concerned health experts.

“It’s really worrying because we’re seeing this process accelerate and we don’t even know where it’s going to end,” says Dr. Eduardo Miranda.

According to the same study, between 1970 and 1990, there was a 1.16% decline in sperm count, which has increased to 2.64% since 2000.

What is alarming is that it has become a global problem and scientists are seeing an increase in this trend across the globe.

However, the question is, what could be the reasons behind this problem? According to experts, there are five possible reasons for this. However, the good news is that there are ways to improve it.

 Obesity

If you are overweight, it can affect the health of your sperm.

Obesity leads to increased growth of adipose tissue, which releases a substance that directly affects the hormone testosterone. It is the most important hormone in sperm production.

According to Miranda, obesity also increases oxidative stress, which affects cells in the body.

“Similarly, an obese person also develops obesity around the penis, which can be very dangerous for spermatozoa,” he says.

The testicles, where reproductive cells are stored, should be kept at a temperature one to two degrees cooler than the rest of the body. This is why the scrotal sac is outside the body in men.

This is the reason that due to the increase in fat, the reproductive capacity of the organs is reduced or may be completely eliminated.

According to the World Health Organization, 39% of men worldwide are overweight. This explains why the sperm count has fallen over the past decades.

 Addiction

Alcohol, cigarettes, vaping ie use of electronic cigarettes, use of marijuana, cocaine and steroids. You know what all these items have in common?

All of these affect sperm count and quality in men.

“Some of these things have a direct effect on these cells, while others have an indirect effect,” says Marand. They can also affect the production of hormones that are important for testicular health.

The biggest example in this regard is the testosterone replacement drugs, gels and injections used by experts, which are usually used during bodybuilding.

According to experts, this market has expanded at an alarming rate over the years. Experts further say that when you inject this hormone into the body for no reason, the body thinks that its production is no longer needed.

This can also cause the testicles to decrease in size and the sperm count to drop. This disorder is called azoospermia.

Sexually transmitted infections

Sexually transmitted diseases that cause inflammation of the epididymis, such as chlamydia and gonorrhea, can also cause damage.

The epididymis is actually attached to the testicles and is where the sperm are stored, so any changes here can affect the sperm.

According to World Health Organization estimates, 129 million new cases of chlamydia and 82 million new cases of gonorrhea occurred in men and women in 2020.

Human papillomavirus (HPV) is also involved, says Dr. Radelli.

“It is also said to affect sperm production and even DNA,” he says.

 Habit of sitting with laptop on lap

The testicles, where reproductive cells are stored, should be kept at a temperature one to two degrees cooler than the rest of the body. This is why the scrotal sac is outside the body in men.

According to research published in the last decade, the habit of keeping a laptop on one’s lap can lead to a decrease in sperm count.

Toxic substances

Experts also point to toxins commonly known as endocrine disruptors.

They are found in air pollution as well as in plastics and pesticides.

In short, the structure of these molecules is very similar to the hormones in our body. Just like a key fits into a lock, these substances manage to fit into cell receptors and trigger some unwanted process.

One of the new discoveries in recent research has been linked to reproduction, but research is still ongoing.

“But we don’t know the exact extent of the problem yet, and there’s a lot of research going on to determine that,” Radley says.

Loss of fatherhood

Besides the environmental and lifestyle factors behind low sperm count, there are two internal issues that also contribute to this phenomenon. The first of these is genetic.

An estimated 10 to 30 percent of cases of infertility are related to problems in the male’s DNA.

The second is related to aging and the fact that men’s ability to become fathers increases with age.

“We know that fertility declines throughout life,” he explains. Although the deficiency in men is not as pronounced as in women, there is a reduction in hormones that are important for the production of sperms.

If we consider that the number of sperm has declined by 51% in 50 years and the speed at which this is happening has accelerated in the last two decades, is the trend getting closer and closer to zero?

If this rate of sperm count decline continues at its current rate, by 2050 the reproductive cell concentration will be close to zero. But Miranda believes that is unlikely to happen.

According to Miranda, “The situation is deteriorating, but at some point this process will stop, perhaps with the help of new technologies.”

Methods of rescue

For those who want to have a baby, the first step to increase the chances of success is to make some changes in your lifestyle and thereby eliminate habits that are harmful to the testicles.

Examples include maintaining or losing weight through a balanced diet and regular physical exercise. Abstinence or total abstinence from alcohol, cigarettes and other drugs is also a basic requirement.

If you have recreational sex, it is important to use condoms to prevent other infections, including chlamydia.

People who are vaccinated against HPV at an early age are better protected against the virus and its effects on the body.

If despite all these changes in the routine, the difficulty in conceiving a child persists, a doctor should be consulted immediately.

According to national and international guidelines, the type of treatment will depend on the age of the woman.

“If you’re under 35, couples should try to have a baby for a year,” says Miranda.

“This process should be continued with regular intercourse about three times a week.”

However, if the couple is over 35 years of age, difficulty conceiving beyond six months is a cause for alarm.

“Research needs to involve couples to explore possible causes and identify the best treatments,” Radley says.

If the problem is in men, experts usually recommend vitamin supplements rich in antioxidants that help protect the testicles.

According to Miranda, “Certainly it is possible to correct some diseases with drugs and surgery that are at the root of the problem.”

As a last resort couples may resort to assisted reproductive techniques such as in vitro fertilization.

 

Late! How come certain individuals get laid at every opportunity?

If you look around you, there is bound to be someone you know who is always late. He will tell you some excuse for coming late, but next time he will be late again.

Are these excuses really false excuses or are people who are always late ‘forced by habit’?

Scientists believe that some degree of procrastination is a human personality trait and that people who procrastinate think differently mentally.

According to a 2014 survey, one in five Americans is late at least once a week, meaning there is one occasion during the week when they don’t get somewhere on time.

Grace Pacey, author of the book ‘Lay!’, says that there are two types of normal people.   One is the timekeeper, the punctual person who is always eager to be on time, and the other is the timebender, who is always behind the times.

She says that people who are time benders (i.e., always behind time) don’t like routine and have a strong dislike for sameness, so they get bored very quickly.

According to them, timebenders can focus on a task if they are interested in it and if they are short on time, their work becomes very effective.

According to Grace Pacey, if you were to spot time-benders in the office, they would be the people whose desks are always cluttered and cluttered because they start one task before finishing it.

So, do you have some of these qualities?

David Robson, author of the book ‘The Expectation Effect’, says that doing everything neatly and on time is an important part of personality. They say you can find out by asking people how much order they like in their lives.

People who are always late may have it a little less, but does it end there or is there more to it?

Grace Pacey says that time benders (procrastinators) perceive time differently and that each minute is not the same length.

Time can go fast or slow for such people, so they may be so engrossed in something that they don’t even notice the passing of time, and it’s also common for them to miss deadlines when they’re close. If you stand on the head, they start working in the best way.

In 2016, researchers at the University of Washington examined how well different people can measure time in their minds.

People were given some tasks along with a clock so they could see how much time had passed.

But these tasks were so demanding that he did not remember to look at the clock.

So the scientists found that some people had a better mental estimate of the passage of time.

Many people never miss a plane or a train, but if they want to drop their kids off from school on time, they can’t do it. why like this?

Grace Pacey says that timebenders are not late for everything, but only where they feel they will not suffer the consequences.

So we procrastinate the most when we are not given a deadline for something and we are not informed of the consequences of not meeting it, such as social gatherings and events.

So if it is said that we arrive on time when it is important, then people around us may be hurt thinking that it is not important that they have to wait.

So Grace Pacey says that the importance of deadlines should be understood and such people should either set deadlines themselves or tell others so that we take it seriously and it is important that there are consequences for not meeting deadlines because otherwise. I don’t follow it.

What can be done?

Our friends are the most confused when we are late and in every group of friends there is one friend who is always late.

If you don’t see someone like that in your group, it might just be you.

Well, if a person is famous (or rather infamous) among their friends for lying, the problem can get worse.

David Robson says that lazy people blame their genes so much that they don’t even feel the need to fix themselves, so our thoughts about ourselves become reality and it’s very annoying. However, we can improve ourselves with a little effort.

But the latest research in psychology tells us that changing habits is not impossible but can be done with some effort.

So can we commit ourselves to time and order?

David Robson says that several studies have shown that when people were asked to set a daily schedule for a few weeks or months and do their work accordingly, for example, setting aside time to tidy their desks., so it was seen that after some time it started to become a habit in people’s minds.

So if you’re a time bender, it’s definitely a part of your personality to some degree, and some people have a better sense of the passage of time mentally, but you don’t necessarily have to accept it as your destiny, but some This problem can also be solved through hard work.

 

Adult Health Nursing MCQs

1) It is clinical condition in which the arterial PH is greater then 7.45 PaCO3 is less then 38 mmHg.
A. Respiratory distress
B. Alkalosis & Acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

2) Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable to client with fecal incontinences?
A. Risk for deficient fluid volume
B. Disturbed body image
C. Bowel incontinence
D. Altered nutrition: more than body requirement

3) Cystitis is a type of urinary tract infection of:
A. Uncomplicated lower or upper UTI
B. Upper UTI
C. Complicated lower or upper UTI
D. Lower UTI

4) When counseling a client in ways to prevent cholecystitis, which of the following guidelines is most important?
A. Eat a low-fat low cholesterol diet
B. Limit exercise to 10 minutes/day
C. Keep weight proportionate to height
D. Eat a low-protein diet

5) % of abortion in the first 12 weeks of pregnancy result from chromosomal abnormalities:
A. 50 to 80
B. 20 to 30
C. 30 to 40
D. 40 to 45

6) The patient should be setting when deep breating and coughing because this position:
A. Loosens respiratory secretions
B. Helps the patient to support their incision wiht a pillow
C. Allows the patient to observe their area and relex
D. Is physically more comfortable for the patient

7) Five minutes after the client’s first post operative exercise, the client’s vital sign have not yet return to baseline. Which is an appropriate nursing diagnosis:
A. Alteration in comfort
B. Risk for activity intolerance
C. Impaired physical mobility
D. Risk for discuss syndrome
8) The doctor has ordered 500 mg of a medication po once a day. The tablets on hand are labeled as 1 tablet = 250 mg. How many tablets will you administer to your patient?
A. 03 Tablets
B. 1 Tablets
C. 02 Tablets
D. 04 Tablets

9) Foods high in purine are restricted to patients in:
A. Calcium stones
B. Oxalate stones
C. Uric acid stones
D. Struvite stones

10) What is/are the most common cause(s) of chronic liver disease?
A. Obesity
B. Bacteria
C. Gall bladder stones
D. Alcohol abuse

11) Inflammation of the lower end of the esophagus leading to a back flow of gastric juices is called:
A. Structural abnormalities
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Acid reflux
D. Reflux esophagitis

12) Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?
A. Mc Burney’s point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis
B. Lefty lower quadrant pain is suggestive of a appendicitis
C. Appendicitis is more common among females than males
D. A high fiber diet is a risk factor associated with appendicitis

13) Renal cell carcinoma which is greater than 7 cm tumor limited to the kidney, no evidence of lymph node involvement & metastatic disease is called:
A. Stage II RCC
B. Stage I RCC
C. Stage IV RCC
D. Stage III RCC

14) Excessive bleeding occurs at frequent intervals in reproductive disorders is:
A. Menometrorrhagia
B. Menorrhagia
C. Polymenorrhea
D. Metrorrhagia

15) A hernia is the of an organ or tissue out of the body cavity in which it is normally found:
A. Trauma
B. Syndrome
C. Protrusion
D. Pressure

16) Swelling of the salivary glands in mumps is called:
A. Periodontitis
B. Parotitis
C. Granuloma

D. Salivitis

17) Painless enlargement of one or more lymph nodes on one side of the neck is:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Non Hodgkin disease
C. Lymphomas
D. Hodgkin’s Disease

18) When establishing realistic goal, the nurse:
A. Bases of the goals on the narse’s personal knowledge
B. Must have the client cooperation
C. Knows the resourses of the health care facility, family and the client
D. Must have a client who is phyiscally and emotionally stable

19) Puberty age in female is:
A. 18 to 19 years
B. 19 to 20 years
C. 16 to 17 years
D. 10 to 14 years

20) A client being treated for chronic cholecystitis should be given which of the following instructions?
A. Use anti cholinergic as prescribed
B. Increase protein in diet
C. Avoid antacids
D. Increase rest

21) Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable to client with fecal incontinence?
A. Altered Nutrition:more than body requirement
B. Risk for Deficient fluid volume
C. Bowel Incontinence
D. Disturbed body image

22) What can reduce a patient’s anxiety and postsurgical pain?
A. Preoperative checklist
B. Psychological counseling
C. Preoperative teaching
D. Preoperative medication
23) A hiatus hernia occurs when the upper part of the stomach is dislocated through the hole, called a Hiatus, in the , into the chest:
A. Duodenum
B. Abdominal cavity
C. Diaphragm
D. Esophagus

24) Mechanical obstruction of intestine in which bowel twists and turns on itself:
A. Adhesions
B. Amyloidosis
C. Volvulus
D. Stenosis

25) Which electrolyte is essential for enyzme and neurological activities?
A. Magnesium
B. Phosphate
C. Potassium
D. Chloride

26) Which of the following stage the carcinogen is irreversible?
A. Progression stage
B. Promotion stage
C. Initiation
D. Regression

27) From the following nursing diagnosis which is suitable for hemorrhoids:
A. Urinary retention related to postoperative reflux spasm and fear of pain
B. Imbalance nutrition less than body requirement
C. Anxity related to surgical intervention
D. Constipation related to ignoring the urge to defecate because of pain during elimination

28) Which one is the best investigation to find out the stone in urinary tract:
A. Ultrasound
B. M.R.I
C. I.V.P
D. CT scan

29) Which is the most common complication of peptic ulcer disease?
A. Haemorrhage
B. Penetration
C. Gastric outlet obstruction
D. Perforation

30) In what order should one perform an abdominal assessment:
A. Inspection, percussion, palpitation, auscultation
B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpitation
C. Percussion, Palpitation, Inspection, Auscultation
D. Palpitation, Inspection, Percussion,. auscultation

31) From the following in which operation patient needs sitz bath:
A. Appendectomy
B. Colostomy
C. Hysterectomy
D. Hemorrhoids

32) Food poisoning “should be suspected with persons who shared food within the previous 1-6 hours, and symptoms of nausea, vomiting,and idarrhea, typically, this is due to:
A. Emetics
B. Infection
C. Intoxication
D. Inebrition

33) Is a malignant disorder of hemopoietic tissues, associated increased number of
leukocytosis in the blood:
A. Hemophilia
B. H. Influenza
C. Leukemia
D. Poly cythemia

34) is primarily a disease of children older than 2 years of age:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Renal abscess
D. Acute pyelonephritis

35) Spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites:
A. Dysplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Malignant
D. Metastasis

36) What intervention is the best relieve constipation during pregnancy?
A. Lying flat on back when sleeping
B. Taking a mild over-the counter laxative
C. Reduction of iron intake by half or more
D. Increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetable

37) Anemia which can be classified based on the body temperature and antibodies react with the RBC antigen is:
A. Polycythemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Immune hemolytic anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
38) is disorder in which bone lose density and become porous and fragile:
A. Menarche
B. Osteoporoses
C. Formix
D. Dysmenoria

39) The most appropriate tool in confirmation of malignancy in the patient is:
A. History
B. Physical examination
C. Blood CP
D. Biopsy of tissue

40) Normal Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) per minute is:
A. 115 ml
B. 100 ml
C. 105 ml
D. 120 ml

Health assessment MCQs

1) When doing an assessment on a client’s eyes the very first thing that a nurse should look at is?
A. Eye internal structures
B. Eye external structures
C. The pupils reactivity to light
D. Color of the irises of the eye

2) While the nurse is inspecting the throat of a client with a tongue blade, the client begins to gag. What does this response indicate to the nurse?
A. The client is nauseated.
B. The client has nerve damage to his tongue.
C. The client has a functioning response.
D. The client has a malfunctioning response

3) During the health history, a client begins to talk about her dog and the trouble she is having housebreaking the new pet. To help the client return to the health interview, the nurse could use the communication skill:
A. Listening
B. Reflecting
C. Questioning
D. Focusing

4) After inspecting a client’s abdomen, which assessment technique should the nurse use next ?
A. Light Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Deep Palpation

5) Nurse Tara asks her client Farhan to clench his jaw as she continues to palpate his head. When she asks him to do this what is Nurse Tara most likely trying to palpate?
A. Faran’s submandibular joint
B. Farhan’s submental joint
C. Farhan’s temporomandibular joint
D. Faran’s temporal artery

6) The nurse is planning to palpate a client’s bladder. Which area of the abdomen should this palpation be done?
A. Hypogastric region
B. Right hypochondriac region
C. Right Lower Quadrant
D. Left lumbar region

7) A 70-year-old male client comes into the clinic with weight loss and difficulty swallowing. Which of the following should the nurse document for this client?
A. Odynophagia
B. Bulimia
C. Dysphagia
D. Aphasia

8) A 15-year-old high school student came to the clinic with a 1-day history of nausea and anorexia. He describes the pain as generalized yesterday, but today it has localized to the right lower quadrant. You palpate the left lower quadrant and the patient experiences pain in the right lower quadrant. What is the name of this sign?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign

9) During eye assessment when you asked the patient to follow your finger or pencil as you move it in toward the bridge of the nose. Which of the following test you are performing?
A. Visual acuity
B. Visual Fields by Confrontation
C. Test for convergence
D. Visual fields

10) A nurse doing her assessment proceeds to palpate a client’s frontal and maxillary sinuses. What should she make sure she checks for?
A. Tactile signs of carcinoma
B. Swelling
C. Lesions
D. Tenderness

11) A nurse would use either a Snelling chart or the finger wiggle test to assess a client’s what?
A. Hearing
B. Vision
C. Consensual light reflex
D. Bone conduction

12 ) During assessment of pharynx you as the client to say “Ah” and uvula and soft palate rise centrally. It determine the function of which cranial nerve:
A. Spinal accessory
B. Vagus
C. Trochlear
D. Trigeminal

13) During the assessment of a client, the nurse gently touches the tip of a sterile cotton swab in the client’s eye. Which of the following would be considered an expected response for the client to make?
A. Begin sneezing.
B. Blink.
C. Scream in pain.
D. Swat the nurse’s hand away.

14) If assessing a client for kidney tenderness, where would you begin?
A. External Oblique Angle
B. Left Upper Quadrant
C. Right Upper Quadrant
D. Costovertebral Angle

15) The three things a nurse needs to check for when doing an examination on the eyes regarding the external structures is?
A. Eyelash texture, shape of eyes, redness
B. Shape of eyes, pupils reactivity, iris’s color
C. Drainage, possible tumors, irritation
D. Eyelash distribution, coloring, drainage

16) A 40-year-old female came for evaluation of abdominal pain. She stated that it is worse after eating, especially if she has a meal that is spicy or high in fat. She has taken antacids, but they have not helped the pain. After examining her abdomen, you strongly suspect cholecystitis. Which sign on examination increases your suspicion for this diagnosis?
A. Murphy’s sign
B. Psoas sign
C. Grey Turner’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign

17) During the percussion of a client’s abdomen, the nurse hears a loud high-pitched drum like tone. The nurse would document this sound as being:
A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Hyper-resonance
D. Flatness

18) What could the nurse assess based solely on the way the client walks into the room?
A. Signs of illness, well nourished
B. Dress and signs of illness
C. Gender and age
D. Gait and posture

19) Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of Bell’s palsy?
A. Asymmetry of the mouth
B. Asymmetry of the entire side of the face
C. Asymmetry of the lower face
D. Involuntary movements of the face

20) The nurse notices that a client walks with a limp and has long legs. Which of the following aspects of the general survey is this nurse assessing?
A. Physical appearance
B. Behavior
C. Mental status
D. Mobility

21) Test for shifting dullness is performed to assess:
A. Liver abscess
B. Ascites
C. Cholecystitis
D. Peritonitis

22) When a nurse performing the eye examinations, which piece of equipment does she/he use to inspect the eye structures?
A. Ultrasonic stethoscope
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Ophthalmoscope
D. Otoscope

23) The normal liver span of an adult is:
A. 7-12 cm
B. 5-12 cm
C. 6-12 cm
D. 4-12 cm

24) A client comes into the clinic for a routine breast and axilla exam. Which assessment technique does the nurse use first during this examination?
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion

25) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. a. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. b. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program…
C. A:
D. c. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E

26) Grade +2 pitting edema is:
A. 4 mm deep
B. 6 mm deep
C. 2 mm deep
D. 8 mm deep

27) The nurse is going to assess a client’s blood pressure. To do this, the nurse will need to have:
A. A stethoscope and sphygmomanometer
B. A tongue blade and tuning fork
C. A flashlight and gloves
D. A stethoscope and thermometer

28) The clinic is sponsoring a client education session for breast cancer awareness month. Which of the following considerations should be included to support cultural differences about breast health?
A. Refer all clients to the American Cancer Society if they have questions.
B. Encourage all females to increase their intake of vitamins A and E.
C. Inform all about the low-cost breast cancer screening program.
D. Encourage all females to complete monthly breast exams

29) After auscultating the bowel sounds of a client, the nurse realizes the sounds were long. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to use to document this finding?
A. Intensity
B. Pitch
C. Quality
D. Duration

30) During the physical assessment of Mr. Ahsan’s skin, the nurse observed that Mr. Ahsan’s skin color is pale, the nurse expect that Mr. Ahsan may has:
A. Jaundice
B. Anemia
C. Heart failure
D. Pulmonary edema

31) The nurse assesses a client’s vision to be 20/150. The client asks for an explanation of the numbers. Which of the following would be a correct explanation for the nurse to say to the client?
A. You might need surgery to correct the nystagmus
B. You see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 150 feet.
C. You see at 150 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 20 feet.
D. You have impaired vision

32) A nurse conducting an assessment on a client’s head would do what first?
A. Inspect and palpate hair
B. Look at patient’s prior medical history
C. Inspect and palpate scalp
D. Inspect and palpate sinuses to control spread of germs

33) The nurse is planning to assess the abdomen of an adult male.
A. Place the client in side-lying position
B. Ask client to empty bladder
C. Tell client to raise arms above the head
D. Ask client to hold his breath for a few seconds

34) Normal angle at nail base is:
A. 10 degrees
B. 160 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 30 degrees

35) When performing an ear assessment, the nurse notes tenderness of the pinna and tragus to movement and the presence of drainage in the external canal. The nurse suspects which of the following?
A. Otitis Media
B. Otitis Externa
C. An inner ear infection
D. A negative rmberg’s sign

36) The nurse asks the client to move his eyes in the shape of an H and then in a large X. The portion of the physical assessment the nurse is completing with this client is:
A. Assessing the optic nerve
B. Assessing extra ocular muscle movements
C. Assessing the eyelids
D. Assessing the red reflex

37) As the nurse introduces the otoscope into a client’s ear, the client starts to jerk his head and complains of pain. Which of the following should the nurse do?
A. Remove the otoscope and reinsert taking care not to touch the sides of the ear canal.
B. Begin to remove the embedded cerumen.
C. Instill ear drops.
D. Document “unable to complete the examination.

38) Which cranial nerve is affected by Bell’s palsy?
A. Facial (CN VII)
B. Trigeminal (CN V)
C. Vagus (X)
D. Abducens (CN VI)

39) In medical which term is used for “impaired near vision”?
A. Amblyopia
B. Myopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Diplopia

40) During the physical examination of a male client’s scrotum, the nurse palpates a mass. What should the nurse do next with this information?
A. Perform transillumination to further assess the finding.
B. Nothing. This is a normal finding.
C. Document mass palpated, left testicle.
D. Ask the client how long he’s had a tumor in his testicle.

41) During the breast exam, the nurse asks the client to raise her arms over her head. Why did the nurse change the client’s position?
A. The client has small breasts.
B. The client has large breasts.
C. The nurse couldn’t palpate the axillae correctly.
D. Skin dimpling is accented in this position

Adult health Nursing-I solved past paper -2015

Q1) a) define Folic acid deficiency anaemia

Folate​-​deficiency anaemia​is the lack of ​folic acid​in the blood. ​Folic acid​is a B vitamin that helps your body make red blood cells. If you don’t have enough red blood cells, you have ​anaemia​. Red blood cells carry oxygen to all parts of your body.

  1. b) write down the dietary sources of Folic acid

Good sources include:

  1. broccoli
  2. brussels sprouts
  3. leafy green vegetables, such as cabbage, kale, spring greens and spinach
  4. peas
  5. chickpeas and kidney beans
  6. liver (but avoid this during pregnancy)
  7. breakfast cereals fortified with folic acid
  8. Okra
  9. Beets
  10. Orange juice
  1. write down the importance of Folic acid in human body
    1. Helps your body form red blood cells and DNA
    2. Promotes normal growth and development
    3. May play a role in prevention of certain cancers
    4. Reduces your risk for heart attack and stroke
    5. Can Prevent some Birth Defects

 

Q2) a) define renal failure

Renal failure is defined as a significant loss of renal function in both kidneys to the point where less than 10 to 20% of normal GFR remains.

  1. b) difference between acute and chronic renal failure
Acute renal failure Chronic renal failure
1) Onset – over days to weeks Onset 1) Onset – over weeks to months
2) Reversibility – Invariably reversible 2) Usually Irreversible
3) Cause – Pre-renal or post-renal 3) Mostly Renal.
4) Urinary volume – Oliguria & Anuria. 4) Polyuria & Nocturia.
5) Renal failure casts – Absent 5) Renal Failure casts – Present.
6) Specific Gravity – High. 6) Specific Gravity – Low & fixed.
7) Past history of renal disease – Absent 7) Present
8) Dialysis – Required for short period 8) Required repeatedly.
9) Renal transplantation – Not required 9) Required.

Q3) a) define leukemia

Definition It is a group of malignant disorder, affecting the blood and blood –forming tissue of the bone marrow lymph system and spleen.

  1. b) discuss the sign symptoms and diagnosis of Leukemia

Common leukemia signs and symptoms include:

  1. Fever or chills.
  2. Persistent fatigue, weakness.
  3. Frequent or severe infections.
  4. Losing weight without trying.
  5. Swollen lymph nodes enlarged liver or spleen.
  6. Easy bleeding or bruising.
  7. Recurrent nosebleeds.
  1. Tiny red spots in your skin (petechiae)

Diagnosis Of Leukemia

  1. History and physical examination
  2. Clinical features
  3. Blood Examination (work up)
  4. Peripheral blood examination
  5. Chest X ray
  6. Bone marrow studies: BM biopsy, imprint and aspiration.
  7. Flow cytometry
  8. Cytological differentiation and immunophenotyping: FISH, RTPCR, chromosome analysis

Q4) a) define ovarian cyst

ovarian cyst

An ovarian cyst is a semi-solid or fluid-filled sac within the ovary.

  1. b) discuss the causes and management of ovarian cyst

Cause Ovarian Cysts

  1. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that causes lots of small, harmless cysts to develop on your ovaries. The cysts are small egg follicles that do not grow to ovulation and are the result of altered hormone levels.

Medical Management

  1. Watchful waiting (observation):​ An ultrasound scan will be carried out about a month or so later to check it, and to see whether it has gone.
  2. Hormonal birth control pills: prevent the development of new cysts in those who frequently get them.
  3. Analgesic (Pain relievers):​such as nonsteroidal ant-inflammatory drugs, opioids analgesic.

Surgical Management

  1. Laparoscopy (keyhole surgery)
  2. Laparotomy

 

Q5) a) define Fluid volume excess

Fluid overload or volume overload (hypervolemia) is a medical condition where there is too much fluid in the blood. Excess fluid, primarily salt and water, builds up throughout the body resulting in weight gain.

  1. enlist the clinical manifestation and nursing management of fluid volume excess

Signs of fluid overload may include:

  1. Rapid weight gain.
  2. Noticeable swelling (oedema) in your arms, legs and face.
  3. Swelling in your abdomen.
  4. Cramping, headache, and stomach bloating.
  5. Shortness of breath.
  6. High blood pressure.
  7. Heart problems, including congestive heart failure.

Nursing Management of Fluid Volume Excess

  1. I&O and daily weights; assess lung sounds, oedema, other symptoms; monitor responses to medications- diuretics
  2. Promote adherence to fluid restrictions, patient teaching related to sodium and fluid restrictions
  3. Monitor, avoid sources of excessive sodium, including medications
  4. Promote rest
  5. Semi-Fowler’s position for orthopnoea
  6. Skin care, positioning/turning

Q6) a) define colorectal cancer

Colorectal cancer​is cancer that occurs in the colon or rectum. Sometimes it is called colon cancer

  1. b) discuss the risk factors and nursing management of colorectal cancer

Risk factors

  1. Genetics
  2. Family history
  3. Obesity
  4. Race
  5. Irritable bowel syndrome
  6. Type 2 diabetes

Nursing Management of Colorectal Cancer

1.Prevention is primary issue

2.Client teaching

3.Diet: decrease amount of fat, refined sugar, red meat; increase amount of fiber; diet high in fruits and vegetables, whole grains, legumes

4.Screening recommendations

5.Seek medical attention for bleeding and warning signs of cancer

6.Risk may be lowered by aspirin or NSAID use

Q7) write a short note on the following

1) CT scan

A computerized tomography (CT) scan combines a series of X-ray images taken from different angles around your body and uses computer processing to create cross-sectional images (slices) of the bones, blood vessels and soft tissues inside your body. CT scan images provide more-detailed information than plain X-rays do.

2) upper and lower GI endoscopies

Endoscopy is a procedure in which the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is viewed through a fiber-optic camera known as an endoscope, inserted either through the mouth (upper) to scan the oesophagus, stomach, and small intestines, or through the anus (lower) to examine the large intestine, colon and rectum.

3) ultrasound

Ultrasound is sound that travels through soft tissue and fluids, but it bounces back, or echoes, off denser surfaces. This is how it creates an image. The term “ultrasound” refers to sound with a frequency that humans cannot hear. For diagnostic uses, the ultrasound is usually between 2 and 18 megahertz (MHz).

4) barium studies

Barium studies are specialized X-ray examinations of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract such as the oesophagus, stomach, small and large intestines using a solution containing barium.

5)Biopsy (liver)

A liver biopsy is a procedure to remove a small piece of liver tissue, so it can be examined under a microscope for signs of damage or disease.

Adult health Nursing-I Solved past paper -2014

Q1) define cirrhosis of liver write its specific nursing management

Cirrhosis is a chronic progressive disease of the liver characterized by extensive degeneration and destruction of the liver parenchymal cells.

Specific Nursing Management

Nursing management for the patient with cirrhosis of the liver should focus on promoting rest, improving nutritional status, providing skin care, reducing risk of injury, and monitoring and managing complications.

Q2) define pancreatitis what are its clinical manifestations

Define pancreatitis

An inflammation of pancreas is called pancreatitis.

Clinical Manifestations

1.Pain in epigastrium region or in left upper quadrant

2.Constant pain

3.Low grade fever

4.Weight loss

5.Shock in severe condition

6.Nausea/Vomiting

7.Steatorrhea (fatty stool)

8.Decrease bowel movement

9.Breathlessness

10.Weak pulse

11.Low body temperature

12.Bluish discoloration of skin.

Q3) differentiate between peptic and duodenal ulcer

Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the inside lining of your stomach and the upper portion of your small intestine. The most common symptom of a peptic ulcer is stomach pain. Peptic ulcers include Gastric ulcers that occur on the inside of the stomach.

A duodenal ulcer is a peptic ulcer that develops in the first part of the small intestine (duodenum). An oesophageal ulcer occurs in the lower part of your oesophagus. Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the inside lining of your stomach and the upper portion of your small intestine.

Q4) define peritonitis and write its specific nursing management

Define peritonitis

An acute or chronic inflammation of peritoneum layer and peritoneal cavity.

Specific Nursing Management

1.Blood pressure monitoring

2.Medications

3.Pain management

4.I & O charting

5.Iv fluids

6.Drainage monitoring

Q5) define Iron deficiency anaemia write down its clinical manifestations and nursing management

Iron deficiency anaemia ​is a common type of anaemia — a condition in which blood lacks adequate healthy red blood cells. Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body’s tissues. As the name implies, iron deficiency anaemia is due to insufficient iron.

Iron deficiency anaemia signs and symptoms may include:

  1. Extreme fatigue.
  2. Pale skin.
  3. Chest pain, fast heartbeat, or shortness of breath.
  4. Headache, dizziness, or light-headedness.
  5. Cold hands and feet.
  6. Inflammation or soreness of your tongue.
  7. Brittle nails.

Nursing management

  1. Assess cardiovascular & respiratory status
  2. Monitor vital signs
  3. Recognizing s/s bleeding
  4. Monitor stool, urine, and emesis for occult blood
  5. Diet teaching—foods rich in iron
  6. Provide periods of rest
  7. Supplemental iron
  8. Discuss diagnostic studies
  9. Emphasize compliance
  10. Iron therapy for 2-3 months after the haemoglobin levels return to normal

Q6) define acute renal failure write down its specific nursing management

Renal failure ​is defined as a significant loss of renal function in both kidneys to the point where less than 10 to 20% of normal GFR remains.

Acute Renal Failure Nursing Management:

  1. Monitor for complications.
  2. Participate in emergency treatment of fluids and electrolyte imbalances
  3. Provide physical and emotional support
  4. Monitor fluid and electrolyte balance
  5. Reduce metabolic rate
  6. Promoting Pulmonary function

Q7) define urinary incontinence write down its clinical manifestations

Define urinary incontinence

Urinary incontinence is the involuntary leakage of urine. It means a person urinates when they do not want to. Control over the urinary sphincter is either lost or weakened.

1.Stress incontinence:​increased intra-abdominal pressure (sneezing, coughing, changing position)

2.Urge incontinence:​strong urge to void that cannot be suppressed (neurological dysfunction)

3.Reflex incontinence ​: hyper reflex in the absence of normal sensation (spinal cord injury)

4.Overflow incontinence:​over distention of the bladder (spinal cord lesions, tumours, strictures, prostatic hyperplasia.

5.Functional incontinence:​cognitive impairment, Alzheimer’s disease)

6.Lactogenic incontinence: ​Extrinsic medical factors (alpha-adrenergic agents

7.Mixed incontinence:​Combination of stress and urge incontinence

Anatomy and Physiology MCQs/BCQs

1. Bone and cartilage is a type of:
A. Nervous tissue
B. Muscular tissue
C. Epithelial tissue
D. Endocrine tissue
E. Connective tissue

2. Color of the skin, due to the presence of:
A. Collagen
B. Langerhans cells
C. Melanocytes
D. Merkel cells
E. Keratinocytes

3. Anosmia is loss of sense of
A. vision
B. hearing
C. smell
D. taste

4. The maximum volume air which can be moved into and out of the lungs is known as:
A. Total lung capacity
B. Inspiratory capacity
C. Vital capacity
D. Functional residual capacity

5. Regarding eye, sensory receptors for vision are:
A. Ciliary body
B. Rods and cones
C. Olfactory cells
D. Lens

6. The basic structure and functional unit of nervous system is:
A. Schwann Cells
B. Neurons
C. Astrocytes
D. Microglia

7. All of the following are the functions of oxytocin; except
A. Ejection of milk
B. Parturition
C. Fertilization
D. Formation of milk

8. A student identifying histological section under microscope. The tissue was multilayered. The upper most layer is squamous in shape. What type of epithelium it is?
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Transitional epithelium
C. Stratified squamous epithelium
D. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
E. Pseudostratified epithelium

9. Common iliac artery supplies the:
A. Lower limb
B. Abdomen
C. Thorax
D. Upper limb
E. Head and neck

10. Which of the following bone forms the axial skeleton?
A. Humerus
B. Radius
C. Femur
D. Ulna
E. Sternum

11. Center of micturition reflex is located in:
A. Lumber segment of cord
B. Cerebral cortex
C. Brainstem (pontine micturition center)
D. Sacral segment of spinal cord

A girl moves the upper limb in all directions during exercise, what type of movement she performed?
A. Abduction
B. Circumduction
C. Flexion
D. Adduction
E. Extension

12. Adrenal medulla secretes:
A. Adrenaline and noradrenaline
B. mineralocorticoid
C. Glucocorticoid
D. Androgens

13. Short bones are present in which part of the human body?
A. Palm and sole
B. Leg
C. Upper arm
D. Thigh region
E. Forearm

14. The hormone which promotes tissue growth and regulates metabolisms:
A. Aldosterone
B. Thyroid hormone
C. Prolactin
D. Growth hormone

15. Which of the following chamber of the heart contain the sinoatrial node(SA)?
A. Left atrium
B. Left auricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle
E. Left ventricle

16. The cells form the myelin sheath in the central nervous system are:
A. Ependymal cells
B. Microglial cells
C. Astrocytes
D. Oligodendrocytes
E. Schwann cells

17. Which one of the following hormone is secreted by posterior pituitary gland?
A. Growth hormone
B. Antidiuretic hormone
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone
D. Follicle stimulating hormone

18. The most common synapse in CNS is:
A. Mechanical Synapse
B. Chemical Synapse
C. Gap Junctions
D. Electrical Synapse

19. Central nervous system is made up of:
A. Peripheral nerves
B. None of these
C. Brain and spinal cord
D. Somatic nerves

20. Exchange of gases by diffusion between blood and body cells is known as:
A. Alveolar ventilation
B. Internal respiration
C. Pulmonary ventilation
D. External respiration

21. How much percentage of oxygen is transported inform of oxyhemoglobin?
A. 1.5 %
B. 60 %
C. 98.5 %
D. 40 %

22. Dorsiflexion movement occur at which of the following joint:
A. Ankle joint
B. Shoulder joint
C. Knee joint
D. Elbow joint
E. Wrist joint

23. A body is divided into anterior and posterior half by which of the following imaginary plane
A. Midsagittal plane
B. Coronal plane
C. Right median plane
D. Left median plane
E. Para-median plane

24. Which of the following bones united by the sutures?
A. Sesamoid bones
B. Skull bones
C. Long bones
D. Tarsal bones
E. Carpal bones

25. Renin is secreted by:
A. Juxtaglomerular cells(JG)
B. PCT
C. DCT
D. Vasa recta

26. Main Muscle of quiet inspiration is:
A. Internal Intercostal
B. External Intercostal
C. Diaphragm
D. Abdominals

27. Surfactant is secreted by:
A. Type I Pneumocystis
B. Goblet Cells
C. Type IV Pneumocystis
D. Type II Pneumocystis

28. Shoulder joint is a type of:
A. Cartilaginous joint
B. Syndesmosis
C. Synovial joint
D. Fibrous joint
E. Secondary cartilaginous joint

29. The release of thyroid hormones (T3 andT4) in blood is stimulated by:
A. FSH
B. ACTH
C. TSH
D. LH

30. Skin is lined by:
A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Cuboidal epithelium
C. Transitional epithelium
D. Pseudostratified epithelium
E. Columnar epithelium

31. Pharynx continue with the esophagus at the level of:
A. 2nd thoracic vertebra
B. 6th cervical vertebra
C. 3rd cervical vertebra
D. 2nd cervical vertebra
E. 4th cervical vertebra

32. Somatic, cutaneous senses which originates from the skin are:
A. Chemoreceptors
B. Special senses
C. Pain, touch, cold and heat
D. proprioceptors

33. Heart receives the parasympathetic supply by means of:
A. Cranial nerves
B. Vagus nerve
C. Sympathetic plexus
D. Cervical nerves

34. A student was standing in class with folding both arms which one of the following movement she did performed?
A. Medial rotation at shoulder region
B. Flexion at shoulder region
C. Extension at shoulder region
D. Circumduction at shoulder region
E. Lateral rotation at shoulder region

35. Which of the following part is not included in large intestine?
A. Cecum
B. Descending colon
C. Duodenum
D. Ascending colon
E. Transverse colon

36. System of the body which is NOT necessary for survival is:
A. Central nervous system
B. Cardiovascular system
C. Reproductive system
D. Respiratory system

37. Al are the phases of menstrual cycle except:
A. Luteal phase
B. Secretory phase
C. Menstrual phase
D. Proliferative phase

38. Superior venacava is formed by the union of:
A. Cardiac veins
B. Common iliac veins
C. Brachiocephalic veins
D. Internal jugular veins
E. Azygous veins

 

Answer Key

1 E

2 C

3 C

4 C

5 B

6 B

7 A

8 C

9 A

10 B

11 C

12 A

13 A

14 A

15 D

16 E

17 C

18 B

19 C

20 B

21 C

22 A

23 A

24 B

25 B

26 B

27D

28 C

29 C

30 A

31 C

32 A

33 B

34 B

35 C

36 C

37 A

38 C

 

Verbal and non-verbal communication

Define verbal and non-verbal communication.

Verbal communication is interpersonal communication that includes oral communication, written communication, and sign language. Verbal communication relies on words to convey meaning between two or more people.

Nonverbal communication encompasses a whole host of physicalized nonverbal cues that convey emotional states and complement verbal messages. Nonverbal human communication involves many different parts of the body and can be either conscious or subconscious on the part of the communicator.

Rules to make a precis

Explain rules to make a precis?

RULES OF MAKING A PRÉCIS

A well written précis should be a serviceable substitute for the original work. The goal of a précis is to preserve the core essence of the work in a manner that is both clear and concise. While writing a précis, the writer should follow the below given rules to make it an effective piece of work.

Read Carefully

First read the passage twice or thrice carefully to summarize it. This will enable you to understand the main theme of the passage.

Underlining

Underline and mark the important ideas and essential points from the original text.

Outline

With the help of underlined ideas, draw the outline of your précis.

Omission

Omit all the unnecessary information or the long phrases which could be replaced by one word. All the adjectives and the adverbs can also be omitted in order to make a good précis.

Don’t Omit

While making a précis, the writer should never omit the important points and ideas which are essential to be described.

Size

Keep the fact in your mind that the length of the précis should be the one third of the original passage.

Indirect Speech

A précis should be written in indirect speech. If there is direct speech in the passage, it should be changed into indirect speech.

Tense and Person

It should be written in the third person and past tense. In the case of universal truth the present tense should be used.           

Own Words

A précis should be written in your own words and the writer should abstain from borrowing words from the original passage.

Précis of a Dialogue

The précis of a dialogue or conversation should always be expressed in form of narrative.

Objective Approach

A précis writer should adopt an objective approach. He should not add his personal ideas to a précis. Put all the important points and ideas in a logical order.

One Paragraph

There could be two or more paragraphs in the original text. While making the précis, try to write all the ideas in one paragraph.

Rough Draft

After omitting all the unnecessary ideas, the writer should prepare a rough draft to finalize it.

Final Draft

Having read the rough draft and pointed out some mistakes which may be found in the rough draft, the writer can prepare the final draft.