Adult Health Nursing MCQs

1) It is clinical condition in which the arterial PH is greater then 7.45 PaCO3 is less then 38 mmHg.
A. Respiratory distress
B. Alkalosis & Acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

2) Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable to client with fecal incontinences?
A. Risk for deficient fluid volume
B. Disturbed body image
C. Bowel incontinence
D. Altered nutrition: more than body requirement

3) Cystitis is a type of urinary tract infection of:
A. Uncomplicated lower or upper UTI
B. Upper UTI
C. Complicated lower or upper UTI
D. Lower UTI

4) When counseling a client in ways to prevent cholecystitis, which of the following guidelines is most important?
A. Eat a low-fat low cholesterol diet
B. Limit exercise to 10 minutes/day
C. Keep weight proportionate to height
D. Eat a low-protein diet

5) % of abortion in the first 12 weeks of pregnancy result from chromosomal abnormalities:
A. 50 to 80
B. 20 to 30
C. 30 to 40
D. 40 to 45

6) The patient should be setting when deep breating and coughing because this position:
A. Loosens respiratory secretions
B. Helps the patient to support their incision wiht a pillow
C. Allows the patient to observe their area and relex
D. Is physically more comfortable for the patient

7) Five minutes after the client’s first post operative exercise, the client’s vital sign have not yet return to baseline. Which is an appropriate nursing diagnosis:
A. Alteration in comfort
B. Risk for activity intolerance
C. Impaired physical mobility
D. Risk for discuss syndrome
8) The doctor has ordered 500 mg of a medication po once a day. The tablets on hand are labeled as 1 tablet = 250 mg. How many tablets will you administer to your patient?
A. 03 Tablets
B. 1 Tablets
C. 02 Tablets
D. 04 Tablets

9) Foods high in purine are restricted to patients in:
A. Calcium stones
B. Oxalate stones
C. Uric acid stones
D. Struvite stones

10) What is/are the most common cause(s) of chronic liver disease?
A. Obesity
B. Bacteria
C. Gall bladder stones
D. Alcohol abuse

11) Inflammation of the lower end of the esophagus leading to a back flow of gastric juices is called:
A. Structural abnormalities
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Acid reflux
D. Reflux esophagitis

12) Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?
A. Mc Burney’s point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis
B. Lefty lower quadrant pain is suggestive of a appendicitis
C. Appendicitis is more common among females than males
D. A high fiber diet is a risk factor associated with appendicitis

13) Renal cell carcinoma which is greater than 7 cm tumor limited to the kidney, no evidence of lymph node involvement & metastatic disease is called:
A. Stage II RCC
B. Stage I RCC
C. Stage IV RCC
D. Stage III RCC

14) Excessive bleeding occurs at frequent intervals in reproductive disorders is:
A. Menometrorrhagia
B. Menorrhagia
C. Polymenorrhea
D. Metrorrhagia

15) A hernia is the of an organ or tissue out of the body cavity in which it is normally found:
A. Trauma
B. Syndrome
C. Protrusion
D. Pressure

16) Swelling of the salivary glands in mumps is called:
A. Periodontitis
B. Parotitis
C. Granuloma

D. Salivitis

17) Painless enlargement of one or more lymph nodes on one side of the neck is:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Non Hodgkin disease
C. Lymphomas
D. Hodgkin’s Disease

18) When establishing realistic goal, the nurse:
A. Bases of the goals on the narse’s personal knowledge
B. Must have the client cooperation
C. Knows the resourses of the health care facility, family and the client
D. Must have a client who is phyiscally and emotionally stable

19) Puberty age in female is:
A. 18 to 19 years
B. 19 to 20 years
C. 16 to 17 years
D. 10 to 14 years

20) A client being treated for chronic cholecystitis should be given which of the following instructions?
A. Use anti cholinergic as prescribed
B. Increase protein in diet
C. Avoid antacids
D. Increase rest

21) Which nursing diagnosis is most applicable to client with fecal incontinence?
A. Altered Nutrition:more than body requirement
B. Risk for Deficient fluid volume
C. Bowel Incontinence
D. Disturbed body image

22) What can reduce a patient’s anxiety and postsurgical pain?
A. Preoperative checklist
B. Psychological counseling
C. Preoperative teaching
D. Preoperative medication
23) A hiatus hernia occurs when the upper part of the stomach is dislocated through the hole, called a Hiatus, in the , into the chest:
A. Duodenum
B. Abdominal cavity
C. Diaphragm
D. Esophagus

24) Mechanical obstruction of intestine in which bowel twists and turns on itself:
A. Adhesions
B. Amyloidosis
C. Volvulus
D. Stenosis

25) Which electrolyte is essential for enyzme and neurological activities?
A. Magnesium
B. Phosphate
C. Potassium
D. Chloride

26) Which of the following stage the carcinogen is irreversible?
A. Progression stage
B. Promotion stage
C. Initiation
D. Regression

27) From the following nursing diagnosis which is suitable for hemorrhoids:
A. Urinary retention related to postoperative reflux spasm and fear of pain
B. Imbalance nutrition less than body requirement
C. Anxity related to surgical intervention
D. Constipation related to ignoring the urge to defecate because of pain during elimination

28) Which one is the best investigation to find out the stone in urinary tract:
A. Ultrasound
B. M.R.I
C. I.V.P
D. CT scan

29) Which is the most common complication of peptic ulcer disease?
A. Haemorrhage
B. Penetration
C. Gastric outlet obstruction
D. Perforation

30) In what order should one perform an abdominal assessment:
A. Inspection, percussion, palpitation, auscultation
B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpitation
C. Percussion, Palpitation, Inspection, Auscultation
D. Palpitation, Inspection, Percussion,. auscultation

31) From the following in which operation patient needs sitz bath:
A. Appendectomy
B. Colostomy
C. Hysterectomy
D. Hemorrhoids

32) Food poisoning “should be suspected with persons who shared food within the previous 1-6 hours, and symptoms of nausea, vomiting,and idarrhea, typically, this is due to:
A. Emetics
B. Infection
C. Intoxication
D. Inebrition

33) Is a malignant disorder of hemopoietic tissues, associated increased number of
leukocytosis in the blood:
A. Hemophilia
B. H. Influenza
C. Leukemia
D. Poly cythemia

34) is primarily a disease of children older than 2 years of age:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Renal abscess
D. Acute pyelonephritis

35) Spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites:
A. Dysplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Malignant
D. Metastasis

36) What intervention is the best relieve constipation during pregnancy?
A. Lying flat on back when sleeping
B. Taking a mild over-the counter laxative
C. Reduction of iron intake by half or more
D. Increasing the consumption of fruits and vegetable

37) Anemia which can be classified based on the body temperature and antibodies react with the RBC antigen is:
A. Polycythemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Immune hemolytic anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
38) is disorder in which bone lose density and become porous and fragile:
A. Menarche
B. Osteoporoses
C. Formix
D. Dysmenoria

39) The most appropriate tool in confirmation of malignancy in the patient is:
A. History
B. Physical examination
C. Blood CP
D. Biopsy of tissue

40) Normal Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) per minute is:
A. 115 ml
B. 100 ml
C. 105 ml
D. 120 ml

Adult health Nursing-I Solved past paper -2014

Q1) define cirrhosis of liver write its specific nursing management

Cirrhosis is a chronic progressive disease of the liver characterized by extensive degeneration and destruction of the liver parenchymal cells.

Specific Nursing Management

Nursing management for the patient with cirrhosis of the liver should focus on promoting rest, improving nutritional status, providing skin care, reducing risk of injury, and monitoring and managing complications.

Q2) define pancreatitis what are its clinical manifestations

Define pancreatitis

An inflammation of pancreas is called pancreatitis.

Clinical Manifestations

1.Pain in epigastrium region or in left upper quadrant

2.Constant pain

3.Low grade fever

4.Weight loss

5.Shock in severe condition


7.Steatorrhea (fatty stool)

8.Decrease bowel movement


10.Weak pulse

11.Low body temperature

12.Bluish discoloration of skin.

Q3) differentiate between peptic and duodenal ulcer

Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the inside lining of your stomach and the upper portion of your small intestine. The most common symptom of a peptic ulcer is stomach pain. Peptic ulcers include Gastric ulcers that occur on the inside of the stomach.

A duodenal ulcer is a peptic ulcer that develops in the first part of the small intestine (duodenum). An oesophageal ulcer occurs in the lower part of your oesophagus. Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the inside lining of your stomach and the upper portion of your small intestine.

Q4) define peritonitis and write its specific nursing management

Define peritonitis

An acute or chronic inflammation of peritoneum layer and peritoneal cavity.

Specific Nursing Management

1.Blood pressure monitoring


3.Pain management

4.I & O charting

5.Iv fluids

6.Drainage monitoring

Q5) define Iron deficiency anaemia write down its clinical manifestations and nursing management

Iron deficiency anaemia ​is a common type of anaemia — a condition in which blood lacks adequate healthy red blood cells. Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body’s tissues. As the name implies, iron deficiency anaemia is due to insufficient iron.

Iron deficiency anaemia signs and symptoms may include:

  1. Extreme fatigue.
  2. Pale skin.
  3. Chest pain, fast heartbeat, or shortness of breath.
  4. Headache, dizziness, or light-headedness.
  5. Cold hands and feet.
  6. Inflammation or soreness of your tongue.
  7. Brittle nails.

Nursing management

  1. Assess cardiovascular & respiratory status
  2. Monitor vital signs
  3. Recognizing s/s bleeding
  4. Monitor stool, urine, and emesis for occult blood
  5. Diet teaching—foods rich in iron
  6. Provide periods of rest
  7. Supplemental iron
  8. Discuss diagnostic studies
  9. Emphasize compliance
  10. Iron therapy for 2-3 months after the haemoglobin levels return to normal

Q6) define acute renal failure write down its specific nursing management

Renal failure ​is defined as a significant loss of renal function in both kidneys to the point where less than 10 to 20% of normal GFR remains.

Acute Renal Failure Nursing Management:

  1. Monitor for complications.
  2. Participate in emergency treatment of fluids and electrolyte imbalances
  3. Provide physical and emotional support
  4. Monitor fluid and electrolyte balance
  5. Reduce metabolic rate
  6. Promoting Pulmonary function

Q7) define urinary incontinence write down its clinical manifestations

Define urinary incontinence

Urinary incontinence is the involuntary leakage of urine. It means a person urinates when they do not want to. Control over the urinary sphincter is either lost or weakened.

1.Stress incontinence:​increased intra-abdominal pressure (sneezing, coughing, changing position)

2.Urge incontinence:​strong urge to void that cannot be suppressed (neurological dysfunction)

3.Reflex incontinence ​: hyper reflex in the absence of normal sensation (spinal cord injury)

4.Overflow incontinence:​over distention of the bladder (spinal cord lesions, tumours, strictures, prostatic hyperplasia.

5.Functional incontinence:​cognitive impairment, Alzheimer’s disease)

6.Lactogenic incontinence: ​Extrinsic medical factors (alpha-adrenergic agents

7.Mixed incontinence:​Combination of stress and urge incontinence