Acute and Chronic Metabolic Alkalosis (Base bicarbonate excess)

Definition: metabolic alkalosis is a clinical disturbance characterized by a high pH (decrease H+ concentration) and a high plasma bicarbonate concentration

It can be produced by a gain of bicarbonate or a loss of H+ (khanna and khurtzman 2001) Probably the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis is vomiting or gastric function with loss of hydrogen and chloride ions

This order also occurs in pyloric stenosis, in which only gastric fluid is lost Gastric fluid has an acid pH (usually 1-3)

Therefore loss of highly acidic fluid increase the alkalinity of body fluids Other loss of K+ such as diuretic therapy that promotes excretion of K+ (furosemide)

Hypokalemia produces alkalosis In two ways

  1. The kidney conservative potassium
  2. Cellular K+ moves out of the cell into ECF

Chronic metabolic alkalosis can occur with long term diuretic therapy, villous adenoma, external drainage of gastric fluids, cystic fibrosis and chronic ingestion of milk and calcium carbonate

Clinical Manifestation

  • Primary symptoms related to decreased calcium ionization such as tingling of the finger and toes, dizziness, and hypertonic muscles Serum Ca+ level decreased in alkalosis as more Ca+ combines with serum proteins
  • Respirations are depressed as compensatory action by the lungs
  • Arterial tachycardia may occur As pH increases above 7.6 and hypokalemia develops Ventricular disturbance may occur
  • Decreased motility and paralytic ileus may also occur Symptoms of chronic metabolic alkalosis are same as for acute metabolic alkalosis
  • ABG’s – pH greater than 7.45 and serum bicarbonate concentration greater than 20mEq/L Serum electrolytes – decreased Ca+ + K+

Management

  • Treatment aimed at reversing the underlying disorder
  • Sufficient chloride must be supplied for kidney to absorb sodium with chloride Restoring normal fluids by Na+Cl fluids
  • To maintain alkalosis Administer K+CL
  • Histamine – 2 – receptor antagonists (cimitidine)
  • Management of chronic metabolic alkalosis is aimed to correct underlying acid- base disorder

Metabolic Acidosis

Definition: metabolic acidosis is a clinical disturbance characterized by a low pH (increased H+ concentration) and a low plasma bicarbonate concentration

  • It can be produced by a gain of hydrogen ion or a loss of bicarbonate (Swenson, 2001)
  • It can be divided clinically into two forms according to values of serum anion gap
  • High anion gap acidosis
  • Normal anion gap acidosis
  • Anion gap = Na+ + K+ – (Cl + HCO3)
  • Anion gap = Na+ – (Cl + HCO3)
  • Potassium is often omitted from the equation because of its low level in the plasma
  • The normal value for an anion gap is 8 to 12mEq/L (8 – 12 mmol/L) without K+ in the equation
  • Normal anion gap acidosis results from the direct loss of bicarbonate as in diarrhea, lower intestinal fistulas, use of divertics
  • High anion gap acidosis results from excessive accumulation of fixed acid
  • If it increased to 30mEq/L (30mmol/L) or more than a high anion gap metabolic acidosis is present regardless of what the pH and the HCO3 are
  • High ion gap occurs in ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis

Clinical Manifestation

  • Signs and symptoms of metabolic acidosis vary with the severity of the acidosis may include Headache
  • Confusion Drowsiness
  • Increased respiratory rate and depth Nausea and vomiting
  • Peripheral vasodilatation
  • And decreased cardiac output occurs when the pH falls below 7 On Examination physical findings
  • Low BP
  • Cold and Clammy skin Shock (Swenson 2001)

Diagnosis

  • ABG’s – expected blood gas changes, low bicarbonate level less than 22mEq/L and low pH less than 7.35
  • Serum electrolytes Hyperkalemia ECG

Management

  • Treatment is directed at correcting the metabolic defects (Swenson 2001) Decrease source of chloride
  • Administer bi carbonate if pH level is less 7.1 Serum K+ level monitored closely Hypokalemia is corrected
  • In chronic metabolic acidosis low serum Ca+ are treated Hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis

Respiratory Acidosis, and Respiratory Alkalosis (carbonic acid deficit)

Respiratory Acidosis

Definition: respiratory acidosis is a clinical disorder in which the pH is less than 7.35 and the Pco2 is greater than 42mmHg

It may be either:

  • Acute respiratory acidosis
  • Chronic respiratory acidosis

Respiratory acidosis is always due to inadequate excretion of Co2 with inadequate ventilation, resulting in elevated plasma Co2 levels and thus elevated carbonic acid (H2CO3) levels (Epstein and singh 2001)

Acute respiratory acidosis occurs in emergency situations such as acute pulmonary edema, aspiration of foreign object, atelectasis, pneumothorax, over dose of sedatives, sleep apnea syndrome

Reparatory acidosis can also occur in disease that impair respiratory muscles such as: muscular dystrophy, myasthenia gravis and gullian-ballian syndrome

Clinical manifestation

  • Clinical manifestations in acute and chronic respiratory acidosis vary sudden hypercapnia (PaCO2) can cause increased pulse rate
  • Increased respiratory rate
  • Increased blood pressure
  • Mental cloudiness
  • Feeling of fullness in the head
  • An elevated PaCO2
  • Cerebrovascular vasodilatation
  • Increased cerebral blood flow particularly when it is higher than 60mmHg
  • Ventricular fibrillation may be the first sign of respiratory acidosis
  • If respiratory acidosis is severe, intra cranial pressure may increase, resulting in palpation and dilated conjuctival blood vessels
  • Chronic respiratory acidosis occurs with pulmonary disease such as:
  • Chronic emphysema and bronchitis, obstructive sleep apnea and obesity
  • Cyanosis, ICP, tachypnea, COPD

Assessment and Diagnostic Findings

  • Arterial blood gas (ABG’s) evaluation reveals a pH less than 7.35 a PaCO2 greater than 42mmHg and variation in the bicarbonate level
  • Depending on the duration and cause of the acidosis in acute respiratory acidosis
  • ECG

Medical management

  • Treatment is directed at improving ventilation
  • Pharmacological agents are used as indicated e.g bronchodilators, to relieve spasm Antibiotics for infection
  • Thrombolytics or anti coagulants are used for pulmonary emboli Adequate hydration
  • Mechanical ventilation use appropriately may improve pulmonary ventilation

Respiratory Alkalosis (carbonic acid deficit)

 Definition: respiratory alkalosis is a clinical condition in which the arterial pH is greater than 7.45 and the PaCO2 is less than 38mmHg

  • As like respiratory acidosis acute and chronic condition can occur
  • Respiratory alkalosis is always due to hyperventilation which cause excessive blowing off of CO2 and hence a decrease in the plasma carbonic acid concentration
  • Causes can include”
  • Extreme anxiety
  • Hypoxemia
  • Inappropriate ventilator setting
  • Chronic respiratory alkalosis results from chronic hypocapnia and decreased serum bicarbonate levels
  • Chronic liver insufficiency
  • Cerebral tumors are predisposing factors

Clinical Manifestation

  • Light headedness – due to vasoconstriction and decreased cerebral blood flow
  • Inability to concentrate
  • Numbness
  • Tingling due to decreased calcium
  • Tinnitus and at time loss of consciousness
  • Tachycardia
  • Arterial dysthermias

Diagnosis

  • ABG’s assist in the diagnosis of respiratory alkalosis
  • In acute state pH is elevated above normal as result of low PaCO2 and normal bicarbonate level
  • Serum electrolytes analysis decreased Ca+ level
  • Patient with chronic respiratory alkalosis are usually asymptomatic

Medical Management

  • Treatment depends on the underlying cause of respiratory alkalosis
  • If the cause is anxiety – the patient instructed to breath slowly to allow CO2 to accumulate
  • A sedative may be required to relieve hyperventilation in vary anxious patients
  • To correct underlying problem

Fluid Volume Excess (Hypervolemia)

Definition:

  • Fluid volume excess (FVE) refers to an isotonic expansion of ECF (Extra cellular fluid) caused by the abnormal retention of water and sodium in approximately the same proportions in which they normally exist in the ECF
  • It is always secondary to an increase in the total body sodium content which lead an increase to total body water, due to there is isotonic retention of body substances the serum sodium concentration remains essentially normal

Pathophysiology

  • FVE may be related to simple fluid overload or diminished functions of the homeostatic mechanisms responsible for regulating fluid balance

Contributing factors include

  • Heart failure
  • Renal failure
  • Cirrhosis of liver
  • Other contributing factors are
  • Consumption of excessive amount of table or other sodium salts
  • Administration of excessive sodium containing fluid to patient with impaired regulatory mechanisms (Beck – 2000)

Clinical Manifestation

  • Clinical manifestation of FVE start from expansion of the extra cellular fluid (ECF) and include
  • Edema
  • Distended Neck Veins
  • And Crackles (abnormal lung sound) Other manifestations include
  • Tachycardia
  • Increased blood pressure
  • Increased pulse pressure
  • Increased central venous pressure
  • Increased Wt
  • Increased urine output
  • Shortness of breath (SOB) and wheezing

Diagnosis

  • Laboratory data useful in diagnosing FVE include BUN and hematocrit level
  • In both FVE both of these values may be decreased because of plasma dilution
  • Other causes include low protein intake and anemia
  • In chronic renal failure both serum osmolality and sodium level are decreased due to excessive retention of water
  • x- ray chest reveal pulmonary congestion
  • LFT
  • RFT

Medical Management

  • Treat the cause
  • If the fluid excess is related to excessive administration of sodium containing fluids, discontinuing the infusion may be all that is needed
  • Symptomatic treatment consist of diuretics and restriction fluids and sodium
  • Hemodialysis
  • Nutritional therapy – restrict sodium in diet
  • Pure water may be used

Nursing Management

  • To asses for FVE
  • The nurse measure intake and output at regular intervals to identify excessive fluid retention
  • Daily Wt of patient
  • To assess breath sounds at regular intervals
  • The nurse monitors degree of edema in most depending parts of body as feet, ankles, sacral region bed ridden patient
  • The degree of pitting edema is assessed
  • Preventing FVE
  • Detecting and controlling FVE
  • Teaching, patients about edema

Fluid Volume Disturbance

Fluid Volume Deficit (Hypovolemia)

 Definition:fluid volume deficit (FVD) occurs when loss of extracellular fluid volume exceeds the intake of fluid

It occurs when water and electrolyte are lost in the same proportion as they exist in normal fluids Fluid volume deficit (hypovolemia) should not be confused with the term dehydration, which refers to loss of water alone with increased serum sodium level, FVD may occur alone or in combination with other imbalances

Pathophysiology 

FVD results from loss of body fluids and occurs more rapidly when coupled with decreased fluid intake

FVD can develop from inadequate intake alone if the decreased intake is prolonged

Causes of FVD include abnormal fluid losses such as resulting from vomiting, diarrhea, G.I suctioning and sweating and decreased intake as in Nausea or irritability to gain access to fluids (Beck – 2000) Additional risk factors diabetes inspidius, adrenal insufficiency, osmotic dieresis hemorrhage and coma

Clinical Manifestation 

Fluid volume deficit can develop rapidly and can be

  • Mild
  • Moderate
  • Or severe depending on the degree of fluid loss

Important characteristics of FVD include

  • Acute wt loss
  • Decreased skin turgor
  • Oliguria
  • Concentrated urine
  • Postural hypotension
  • A weak, rapid heart rate
  • Flattened neck veins
  • Increased temperature
  • Decreased central venous pressure
  • Cool
  • Clamming skin related to peripheral vasoconstriction
  • Thirst
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea
  • Muscles weakness
  • Cramps

Diagnosis

  • BUN (blood urine nitrogen) related to serum cretinine concentration (a ratio greater than 20:1)
  • Health history
  • Physical examination
  • Serum electrolytes changes serum K, Na (hypokalemia, hyponatermia or hypernatermia, hyperkalemia)
  • Urine specific gravity increased

Medical Management 

  • Planning of correction of fluid loss for patient with fluid volume deficit (FVD)
  • The health care provider consider the usual maintenance requirements of the patient and other factors (such as fever) that can influence fluid needs
  • When deficit is not severe the oral route is preferred
  • In acute and severe losses the I/V route is required isotonic electrolyte solutions e.g lactated Ringer’s or 0.9% N/S are frequently used to treat hypotension pts with FVD
  • Maintain and assess I/O (intake and output chart)
  • Wt: , vital signs, central venous pressure, level of consciousness (LOC), breath sounds, skin color
  • The rate of fluid administration is based on severity of loss of and patient hemodynamic response

Nursing Management 

  • To assess for fluid volume deficit
  • Nurse monitors and measures fluid intake and output at least every 8 hours and sometime hourly
  • Vital signs closely monitored
  • Nurse should observe for weak pulse and postural hypotension
  • Skin and tongue turgor is monitored on regular basis
  • Preventing FVD – as diarrhea
  • Correcting FVD – if patient is unable to take fluid the orally the nurse should give fluid parental I/V

Manifestations Of Urinary System Disorders

 

MANIFESTATIONS OF URINARY SYSTEM DISORDERS
General Manifestations Specific Manifestations Related to Urinary System
 Edema  Pain  Patterns of Urination  Urine Output  Urine Composition
Fatigue Facial (periorbital) Dysuria Frequency Anuria Concentrated
Headaches Ankle Flank or Urgency Oliguria Dilute
Blurred vision Ascites costovertebral Hesitancy of stream Polyuria Hematuria
Elevated blood pressure Anasarca angle Change in stream Pyuria
Anorexia Sacral Groin Retention Color (red, brown,
Nausea and vomiting Suprapubic Dysuria yellowish green)
Chills Nocturia
Itching Incontinence
Excessive thirst Stress incontinence
Change in body weight Dribbling
Cognitive changes

Urinary System

HEALTH HISTORY
Health Perception–Health Management
• How is your energy level compared with 1 yr ago?
• Do you notice any visual changes?*
• Have you ever smoked? If yes, how many packs per day?
Nutritional-Metabolic
• How is your appetite?
• Has your weight changed over the past yr?*
• Do you take vitamins, herbs, or any other supplements?*
• How much and what kinds of fluids do you drink daily?
• How many dairy products and how much meat do you eat?
• Do you drink coffee? Colas? Tea?
• Do you eat chocolate?
• Do you spice your food heavily?*
Elimination
• Are you able to sit through a 2-hr meeting or ride in a car for 2 hr without urinating?
• Do you awaken at night with the desire to urinate? If so, how many times does this occur during an average night?
• Do you ever notice blood in your urine?* If so, at what point in the urination does it occur?
• Do you ever pass urine when you do not intend to? When?
• Do you use special devices or supplies for urine elimination or control?*
• How often do you move your bowels?
• Do you ever experience constipation?
• Do you frequently experience diarrhea? Do you ever have problems controlling your bowels? If so, do you have problems controlling the passage of gas? Watery or liquid stool? Solid stool?
Activity-Exercise
• Have you noticed any changes in your ability to do your usual daily activities?*
• Do certain activities aggravate your urinary problem?*
• Has your urinary problem caused you to alter or stop any activity or exercise?*
• Do you require assistance in moving or getting to the bathroom?*
Sleep-Rest
• Do you awaken at night from an urge to urinate?*
• Do you awaken at night from pain or other problems and urinate as a matter of routine before returning to sleep?*
• Do you experience daytime sleepiness and fatigue as a result of nighttime urination?*
Cognitive-Perceptual
• Do you ever have pain when you urinate?* If so, where is the pain?
Self-Perception–Self-Concept
• How does your urinary problem make you feel about yourself?
• Do you perceive your body differently since you have developed a urinary problem?
Role-Relationship
• Does your urinary problem interfere with your relationships with family or friends?*
• Has your urinary problem caused a change in your job status or
affected your ability to carry out job-related responsibilities?*
Sexuality-Reproductive
• Has your urinary problem caused any change in your sexual pleasure or performance?*
• Do you have hygiene problems related to sexual activities that cause you concern?*
Coping–Stress Tolerance
• Do you feel able to manage the problems associated with your urinary problem? If not, explain.
• What strategies are you using to cope with your urinary problem?
Values-Beliefs
• Has your present illness affected your belief system?*
• Are your treatment decisions related to your urinary problem in conflict with your value system?*

Adult Health Nursing MCQs/BCQs- 4th Semester

1. The Cranial nerves are ____ in pairs

  1. 10
  2. 8
  3. 6
  4. 4
  5. 12

2. Causes of Hyper parathyroidism

  1. Neck trauma
  2. Parathyroid adenoma
  3. Carcinoma
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the available choices

3. _________ is a group of metabolic disorders characterized by elevated levels of blood insulin

  1. Pineal gland
  2. Diabetes mellitus
  3. Thymus gland
  4. Hyper thyroidism
  5. Diabetes insipidus

4. Primary hypertension or essential hypertension observed in

  1. Obesity
  2. Use of salt in excess
  3. Aging
  4. All of the above
  5. Alcohol and smoking

5. Valve in the heart between left atrium and left ventricle is called

  1. Bicuspid valve
  2. Tricuspid valve
  3. Cardio Sphincter valve
  4. None of the available choices
  5. Ileocecal valve

6. The pituitary gland lies In the hypophyseal fossa of the ________

  1. Nasal bone
  2. None of the available choices
  3. Temporal bone
  4. Sphenoid bone of the cranial cavity
  5. Both nasal bone and temporal bone

7. An abnormally dilated tortures superficial vein caused by incompetent veins is observed in the disorder

  1. Deep venous thrombosis
  2. Varicose vein
  3. Venous thrombosis
  4. Atherosclerosis
  5. Arteriosclerosis

8. The Central Nervous system (CNS) is composed of

  1. Brain and spinal cord
  2. None of these
  3. Digestive system
  4. Lungs and heart
  5. Liver and kidney

9. It is characterized by progressive loss of joint cartilage and happens in the disorder:

  1. Osteoporosis
  2. Osteoarthritis
  3. Fracture
  4. Osteomalacia
  5. T.B of the bone

10. __________ is the disorder in which there is reduction of bone density in it, the rate of bone resorption is greater than the rate of bone formation

  1. Osteoarthritis
  2. Rheumatoid arthritis
  3. Osteoporosis
  4. Osteomyelitis
  5. Osteitis deformans

11. Cerebro Spinal Fluid (CSF)is secreted continuously at the rate of per day

  1. 800 ml
  2. 1000 ml
  3. 720 ml
  4. 400 ml
  5. 500 ml

12. A condition in where arteries become narrowed and hardened due to an excessive buildup of plaque around the artery wall the disorder is known as ?

  1. Varicose vein
  2. Aneurism
  3. Atherosclerosis
  4. Venous thrombosis
  5. Arteriosclerosis

13. The weight of the pituitary gland about _____ and consist _____ distinct parts that originate from different types of cells

  1. 350mg / 5parts
  2. 500mg / 2 parts
  3. 400mg / 2 parts
  4. 600mg / 4 parts
  5. 500mg / 3 parts

14. Following are the clinical manifestations of CVA or brain attack except one:

  1. Increase cognition
  2. Confusion or changes in mental status
  3. Visual disturbance
  4. Numbness
  5. Motor, perceptual & sensory loss

15. It causes decreased density and possible fracture and often referred to (Silent Disease)

  1. Osteomalacia
  2. Osteoporosis
  3. Bone tumor
  4. Tuberculosis
  5. Rheumatoid arthritis

16. _______ is a lens opacity or cloudiness or blurred vision a leading cause of disability in older patient:

  1. Conjunctivitis
  2. Foreign body in the eye
  3. Cataract
  4. Retinal detachment
  5. Glaucoma

17. The thyroid gland is situated in the neck in front of the larynx and trachea at the level of :

  1. None of the available choices
  2. 3rd 4th and 5th cervical and 2nd thoracic vertebrae
  3. 2nd 3rd and 4th cervical and 1st thoracic vertebrae
  4. 1st 2nd and 3rd cervical and 2nd thoracic vertebrae
  5. 5th 6th and 7th cervical and 1st thoracic vertebrae

18. Basal Ganglia, Thalamus, Hypothalamus are other parts of:

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Pons
  3. Mid brain
  4. Cerebellum
  5. Medulla oblongata

19. For descriptive purposes each hemisphere of cerebrum is divided into lobes

  1. 6
  2. 4
  3. 2
  4. 8
  5. 10

20. Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater are the layers of

  1. Spinal cord
  2. Both Brain and Spinal cord
  3. Heart
  4. Brain
  5. Vertebral column

21. A ________ an ischemic stroke or

  1. None of these
  2. CVS
  3. CVA
  4. CNS
  5. PNS

22. _______ is the largest part of the brain and it occupies the anterior and middle cranial fossa

  1. Mid brain
  2. Medulla oblongata
  3. Cerebrum
  4. None of the available choices
  5. Cerebellum

23. _______ is defined as acute hemorrhage from nostril, nasal cavity or nasopharynx

  1. Peptic ulcer
  2. Epistaxis
  3. T.B
  4. Gastritis
  5. Malena

24. _____ is the removal of a part of the body

  1. Soft tissue injury
  2. Paget’s disease of the bone
  3. Amputation
  4. Fracture
  5. Osteomyelitis

25. Following are the Key sign and symptoms occurs in as increased metabolic rate, weight loss, good appetite, anxiety etc.

  1. Hypothyroidism
  2. Cushing syndrome
  3. Hypo thyroidism
  4. Hyper thyroidism
  5. Hyper parathyroidism

26. The nursing intervention of trigeminal neuralgia except one?

  1. Recognize the patient’s anxiety
  2. Allow the patient to rub his/her face with soapy water
  3. Provide post-operative care
  4. Instruct the patient to rinse mouth after eating when tooth brushing cause pain
  5. Monitor patient for bone marrow depression during long term drug therapy

27. High Blood Pressure is said to be present if it is at or above in young men:

  1. 100/60mmHg
  2. 130/90mmHg
  3. 120/80mmHg
  4. 110/70mmHg
  5. 140/90mmHg

28. Clinical presentation as difficulty in breathing, wheezing, chest tightness, restlessness, shortness of breathing (SOB) found in :

  1. Emphysema
  2. Liver failure
  3. Asthma
  4. Renal failure
  5. Dyspnea

29. ______ is disorder of posterior lobe of pituitary gland due to deficiency of vasopressin the anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)?

  1. Addison’s disease
  2. Gestational diabetes mellitus
  3. Hypothyroidism
  4. Diabetes mellitus
  5. Diabetes insipidus

30. Which type of joint is freely moveable?

  1. Synarthrodial and Amphiarthrodial
  2. Diarthrosis
  3. Amphiarthrodial
  4. Synarthrodial
  5. None of the available choices

31. Following are the clinical manifestations of the hyperthyroidism except one?

  1. Decreased respiration rate
  2. Palpitations
  3. Nervousness
  4. Pulse rate between 90 and 160 beats per minutes
  5. Poor tolerance of heat

32. The functions of hypothalamus includes except one:

  1. Control of autonomic nervous system
  2. Thirst and water balance
  3. Body temperature
  4. Bone growth
  5. Appetite

33. According to classification of fracture the open fracture means:

  1. Severeal bone fracture
  2. Complete fracture
  3. Simple no break in skin
  4. Break the skin and mucous membrane
  5. Greenstick

34. Following sign and symptoms are often observed as bone fracture, recent weight loss, arthritis, pallor of skin, kidney stone, and constipation in disorder of:

  1. Anemia
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Hypoparathyroidism
  4. Hyperparathyroidism
  5. Hyperthyroidism

35. The causative agent of pulmonary tuberculosis is:

  1. Pneumococcus
  2. Mycobacterium
  3. E-coli
  4. Streptococcus
  5. H-influenza

36. ______ results from excessive adreno-cortical activity observed in:

  1. Systemic lupus erythematous
  2. Cushing syndrome
  3. Nephrotic syndrome
  4. Diabetes mellitus
  5. Addison’s disease

37. The key features observed as polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, fatigue, sudden vision changes I the disorder of:

  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. Gastroenteritis
  3. Cholicystitis
  4. Myasthenia gravis
  5. Hydro nephrosis

38. Diabetes insipidus is a disorder of:

  1. Pineal gland
  2. Pancreatic gland
  3. Thymus gland
  4. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland
  5. Posterior lobe of pituitary gland

39. The heart has _____ chambers in it

  1. 6
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 4
  5. 5

40. A chronic metabolic disorder in which a bone is excessively broken down is known as:

  1. Strain and sprain
  2. Paget’s disease of the above
  3. Osteoporosis
  4. Rheumatoid arthritis
  5. Osteoarthritis

Health Assessment MCQs/BCQs 4th Semester

1.The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is involved in the sensory supply to __________

  1. Abdominal muscles
  2. Face and muscles of mastication
  3. Respiratory muscles
  4. Head and neck muscles

2. While palpating Ms. Asia’s chest, the nurse should detect a 1cm soft, tapping vibration over the midclavicular line at the 5th intercostal space (ICS). This is correctly interpreted as

  1. Heave
  2. Lift
  3. Normal PMI
  4. Thrill

3. While preforming passive Range Of Motion (ROM), your client has a strong painful muscle contraction. Which is this involuntary movement called?

  1. Spasm
  2. Asterixis
  3. Fasciculation
  4. Tremor

4. _________ Is the inability to move the joints after a period of rest:

  1. Stiffness
  2. Swelling
  3. Deformity
  4. Locking

5. The normal breathing sound is:

  1. Monophonic wheeze
  2. Wheeze (rhonchi)
  3. Crackles (crepitation)
  4. Vesicular

6. A connection or point of contact between bones and cartilage is called as:

  1. Muscle
  2. Ligaments
  3. Joint
  4. Tendon

7. The normal chest AP ratio is:

  1. 2.5
  2. 2.6
  3. 1.2
  4. 1.3
  5. 1.4

8. Which one is true about Weber test?

  1. Air conduction is less than bone conduction
  2. Both are nothing
  3. Air conduction is greater than bone conduction
  4. Bone conduction is greater than air conduction

9. To palpate the chest for thrills, nurse should use what part of hand

  1. Ulnar surface
  2. Palm
  3. Back of hands
  4. Finger tips

10. 20/20 vision means:

  1. Ptosis
  2. Normal vision
  3. Myopia
  4. Hyper myopia

11. Amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle over 1 minute:

  1. Preload
  2. Cardiac output
  3. Stroke volume
  4. Afterload

12. Nail base angle should normally measure

  1. 180 Degrees
  2. 100 Degrees
  3. 130 Degrees
  4. 160 Degrees

13. Blue bloater is sign of

  1. Asthma
  2. Bronchitis
  3. Bronchiestasis
  4. Emphysema

14. Lymph nodes are:

  1. Transverse, round or oval shaped structures
  2. Longitudinal, round or oval shaped structures
  3. Round, oval or bean shaped structures
  4. Long, round or oval shaped structures

15. Ability to recognize common objects through the senses:

  1. Aphasia
  2. Apraxia
  3. Graphesthesia
  4. Ataxia

16. _________ is a thin, pearly gray, oval, semi-transparent membrane at the medial end of the outer ear

  1. Tympanic cavity
  2. Semicircular canals
  3. Eustachian tube
  4. Tympanic membrane

17. Moving the ankle to bring the dorsum of the foot forward to the tibia:

  1. Plantar flexion
  2. Supination
  3. Protraction
  4. Dorsiflexion

18. During physical chest assessment nurse found that Mr. Asad has anterior-posterior chest diameter that is approximately same as his lateral diameter of rib cage. Nurse documents this as:

  1. Normal chest diameter
  2. Barrel chest
  3. Pectus excavatum
  4. Pectus carinatum

19. Flat sound normally heard over

  1. Bone
  2. Infant lungs
  3. Adult lungs
  4. Abdomen

20. Hyper Resonance sound normally heard over:

  1. Bone
  2. Abdomen
  3. Adult lungs
  4. Infant lungs

21. The most outer layer of the heart is

  1. Endocardium
  2. Myocardium
  3. Pericardium
  4. Precordium

22. Heel to toe walking is called:

  1. Adjustment
  2. Healthy walking
  3. Standing with feet together
  4. Tandem walking

23. ________ is a palpable vibration transmitted through patent bronchi and lung parenchyma to the chest wall where they can be felt as vibrations:

  1. Tactile fremitus
  2. Periodontal fremitus
  3. Pleura fremitus
  4. Dental fremitus

24. The phase of ventricular contraction in which the ventricles have been filled, then contract to expel the blood into the aorta and pulmonary arteries:

  1. Systole
  2. Diastole
  3. Cardiac output
  4. Stroke volume

25. Joint capable for flexion, extension and opposition

  1. Elbow
  2. Knee
  3. Thumb
  4. Finger

26. Movement of bone towards the midline is

  1. Extension
  2. Abduction
  3. Adduction
  4. Flexion

27. An ability to discern the shapes and details of the things you see:

  1. Visual acuity
  2. Visual field and visual acuity
  3. Accommodation
  4. Visual field

28. Sac containing fluid that are located around the joints to prevent friction is

  1. Capsule
  2. Tendon
  3. Cartilage
  4. Bursa
  5. Joint

29. A normal resting heart rate

  1. 100 to 150
  2. 150 to 200
  3. 60 to 100
  4. 60 to 70

30. A sound produced in part by hemodynamic events immediately following closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves

  1. S4
  2. S2
  3. S3
  4. S1

31. A barrel chest is not an expected finding for

  1. Aging adults
  2. Teenagers
  3. Infants
  4. In old age

32. Which type of test is perform for the Position sense

  1. Rinne test
  2. Allan test
  3. Romberg test
  4. Weber test

33. _________ is the ability to perceive and recognize an object in the absence of visual and auditory information

  1. Hemiparesis
  2. Paresis
  3. Stereognosis
  4. Graphesthesia

34. The grating sound produced be two inflamed surface is refers:

  1. Murmur
  2. Crackles
  3. Pleural friction rub
  4. Wheezes

35. Pink puffer is a sign of

  1. Bronchiectasis
  2. Emphysema
  3. Asthma
  4. Bronchitis

36. The first sound results from the closing of the _______ and _______ valves

  1. Aortic and pulmonary valves
  2. Aortic and tricuspid valves
  3. Mitral and pulmonic valves
  4. Mitral and tricuspid valve

37. The Vagus nerve provides motor supply to the

  1. Facial muscles
  2. Larynx
  3. Pharynx
  4. Sternocleidomastoid

38. Which one is proper grading for reflexes :

  1. 1 to 6
  2. 0 to 2
  3. 1 to 5
  4. 0 to 4

39. The cranial nerve 01 which have sense of smell is called

  1. Olfactory
  2. Optic nerve
  3. Trochlear
  4. Oculomotor

40. An instrument used to look into the ear canal is:

  1. Laryngeal scope
  2. Stethoscope
  3. Otoscope
  4. Ophalmoscope

Health Assessment Solved Past paper 2019

Q1) define interview and explain the principles of interviewing

Interview Definition:

The interview is a process of communication or interaction in which the subject or interviewee gives the needed information verbally in a face to face situation.

Principles Of Interviewing:

  1. Interviewing is a special kind of conversation
  2. Has a definite purpose
  3. More structured
  4. Strong element of control
  5. Two parties only: interviewer and respondent
  6. Different amounts of speaking (30/70)
  7. A significant aspect of daily business

Q2) describe the component of health history that should be produced during the assessment of skin, head and neck

Subjective Data:

  1. Any previous skin disease or problem (infection, rashes, lesions, itching).
  2. How was it treated?
  3. Skin allergic problem
  4. precipitating factors (stress, weather, drugs)
  5. Any birth marks or tattoos.
  6. Change in skin color, pigmentation and lesions
  7. Any recent hair loss
  8. Amount of sun exposure

Examination of Skin:

1. Color
2.Temperature
3.Texture
4.Mobility
5.Turgor
6.Moisture
7.Sensation
8.Integrity

Lesions

  1. lLocation/ distribution
  2. lMorphology
  3. –Primary
  4. –Secondary
  5. –Vascular
  6. –Cancerous

Q3) classify the structure landmarks of the nose mouth and pharynx

Nose

  1. The nose is the first segment of the respiratory system.
  2. It is the sensory organ of smell
  3. External nose (It shaped like a triangle with one side attached to the face on its leading edge.
  4. The superior part is the bridge and the free corner is the tip.
  5. The oval openings at the base of the triangle are the nares just inside, each nares widen into the vestibule.
  6. The upper third of the external nose is made of bone, the rest is cartilage. The parts of the nose are:
  7. Nasal cavity
  8. Septum
    iii.        Turbinate
    Paranasal sinuses
    Frontal
    Maxillary
    vii.       Ethmoid
    VIII. Sphenoid

Mouth

  1. Mouth is the first segments of the digestive system and the airway of the respiratory system.
  2. The oral cavity is the short passage boarded by the lips, palate, checks, and tongue.
  3. It continues the teeth, gums, tongue and salivary glands.
  4. The arching roof of the mouth is the palate, it is divided into two parts.
  5. The interior, hard palate; Posterior to this is the soft palate.
  6. The uvula is the free projection hanging down from the middle of the soft palate.
  7. The cheeks are the side walls of the oral cavity.
  8. Floor of the mouth is tongue and horse shoe shaped mandible bone.
  9. Parotid
  10. Submandibular gland
  11. Sublingual fold, duct and gland
  12. Teeth

Pharynx:

  1. Oropharynx
  2. Tonsils
  3. Nasopharynx

Q4) describe the specific assessment to be made during the physical examination of abdomen

Assessment

1. Inspect
a. Shape and contour
i. Look across abdomen left to right
ii. Can use pen light to look for visible bulging or masses
iii. Look for distention
b. Umbilicus – discoloration, inflammation, or hernia
c. Skin texture and color
d. Lesions or scars
i. Note details – length, color, drainage, etc.
e. Visible pulsations
f. Respiratory movements (belly breather)
2. Auscultate
a. Start in RLQ → RUQ → LUQ → LLQ
i. This follows the large intestine
b. Use diaphragm of stethoscope to listen for 1 full minute per quadrant
i. Active – Should hear 5-30 clicks per minute
ii. Hypoactive
iii. Hyperactive
iv. Absent – must listen for 5 minutes per quadrant to confirm this
c. Use bell of stethoscope to listen for bruits
i. Aorta – over the epigastrium
ii. Iliac and femoral arteries – Inguinal are
iii. Renal arteries – A few cm above and to the side of the umbilicus
1. Press firmly
iv. The presence of a bruit could indicate narrowing of the arteries – if this is a new finding, report to provider
3. Percuss
a. Percuss x 4 quadrants, starting in RLQ as with auscultation
b. Expect to hear tympany
c. Dullness could indicate a mass, fluid-filled bladder, blood in the belly, or significant adipose tissue
i. Exception – dullness over the liver is expected
d. CVA tenderness
i. Place nondominant hand flat over the costovertebral angle (flank).
ii. Strike your hand with the ulnar surface of your dominant hand
iii. Should be nontender
iv. Repeat bilaterally
4. Palpate
a. Light palpation – small circles in all 4 quadrants
i. Can do 4 small areas in each quadrant to be thorough
b. Deep palpation – deeper circles in all areas
c. Palpating for masses – make note of size, location, consistency, tenderness, and mobility
d. Make note of any guarding or tenderness
e. Assess for rebound tenderness
i. Press down slowly and deeply
ii. Release quickly
iii. Ask patient which hurt most (down or up)
iv. Rebound tenderness over RLQ could indicate appendicitis
f. If distended, perform Fluid-Wave test to look for ascites:
i. Place patient’s hand over umbilicus
ii. Place your hand on right flank, then tap or push on the left flank with your other hand
iii. If you feel the tap/push on the opposite hand, that’s a Positive Fluid-Wave test
1. Indicates Ascites
iv. You may also see the patient’s hand ‘wave’ with the fluid

Q5) define breast examination and discuss the steps of self-breast examination

 Definition

A physical exam of the breast performed by a health care provider to check for lumps or other changes. Also called CBE.

steps of self-breast examination

 Step 1: stand up before the mirror and Start by looking for differences between your breasts

  1. Good breast self-exams should be concerned with both the look and feel of breasts. The look element should be performed while either standing or sitting in front of a mirror, with your clothes removed. Examine both breasts and look for:
  2. Visible lumps
  3. Any unusual differences between the two breasts

iii.  Dimpling or indentations in the breast tissue

  1. Redness, scaliness, or other changes to the skin or nipples that appear abnormal
  2. Changes to your nipples, for example a nipple that is newly inverted or pulling in

Step 2: Put your hands on your hips, pull your elbows forward

  1. Look for the same changes in the breasts from Step 1 — such as redness, lumps and indentations — this time with your hands resting on your hips

while squeezing your elbows forward since this might bring out lumps that might not appear otherwise. Keep your hands on your hips and slowly swivel from side to side to catch possible abnormalities from more angles.

  1. Next, lift your arms above your head to see if there’s any puckering or dimpling of the skin when you elevate them. “When you raise your arms, the mass, if there is one, stays there and the skin pulls in,” says Kruper.

Step 3: Use 3 fingers when examining your breasts

  1. The feel part of the breast self-exam should be done while lying down, with a pillow propping up your head and your arm resting behind it. With the opposite hand, take the first three fingers — index, middle and ring fingers — and use them to press down around the breast and surrounding area using circular motions. Using three fingers, rather than just one, keeps you from mistaking normal breast tissue for lumps. Increase the pressure you use with each pass around the breasts to ensure you are not just feeling superficial tissue.

Step 4: Examine the areas surrounding the breast

  1. After examining your breasts, it is important to perform a check of the areas around them. Continue to use circular motions and increasing pressure as you move from the collarbone to the sternum and down below the breast. From the lower part of the breast, travel up to the area under your arm to look for any swelling in the lymph nodes. “What you’re looking for is something that stands out — something that feels like a pea, or a marble or a walnut,” says Kruper. “Something that definitely feels different than the surrounding breast tissue.”

Step 5: Perform the test at the same time each month

A, Be sure to do the breast self-examination the same time every month. If you are still menstruating, Kruper recommends you do the exam about seven to 10 days after your menstrual cycle, since at that time there will likely be fewer cycle-related changes in the breast tissue. Women who are postmenopausal can do the exam at any time of the month, as long it is around the same time each month.

B, Keep in mind that there is some debate about whether women should perform routine breast self-exams to find potentially cancerous lumps.

According to current research, some of the issues depend on the possibility of false positives and the possibility that the screenings might not really increase a woman’s probability of survival.

Q6) classify the equipment needed to perform a physical examination

 The equipment needed to perform a physical examination

  1. Within reach and ready
  2. Arranged as per need
  3. Required equipment
  4. Extra supplies/equipment
  5. Clean or sterile equipment
  6. Warm metallic piece

The following are the more common but essential medical tools that are used during physical health exam.

  1. Medical Weighing Scale
  2. Sphygmomanometer
  3. Stethoscope
  4. Thermometer
  5. Ophthalmoscope
  6. OTOSCOPE
  7. TUNING FORK
  8. NASAL SPECULUM
  9. PERCUSSION HAMMER
  10. VAGINAL SPECULUM
  11. PROTOSCOPE
  12. GLOVES

Q7) define health assessment and identify types of health assessment

Definition

A health assessment is a plan of treatment that outlines a person’s unique requirements and how those needs will be met. A is provided by the hospital system or a skilled nursing facility. Health assessment is the evaluation of one’s health status through a physical exam and a health history. It is done to detect diseases in people who appear to be healthy.
There are four types of Health Assessment

1)   Comprehensive Initial Assessment:

  1. The initial assessment, also known as triage assessment.
  2. Performed shortly after admittance to hospital
  3. Performed by the nurse to collect data on all aspects of patient’s health
  4. It helps to determine the nature of the problem and prepares the way for the ensuing assessment stages.
  5. The initial assessment is used more than the other assessments used by nurses.
  6. Components may include obtaining a patient’s medical history or putting him/her through a physical exam, or preparing a psychosocial assessment for a mental health patient.
  7. Other components may include obtaining a patient’s vital signs and taking subjective statements from the patient, as well as double-checking the subjective symptoms with the objective signs of the condition.

2)   Focused Assessment:

  1. The focused assessment is the stage in which the problem is exposed and treated.
  2. Due to the importance of vital signs and their ever-changing nature, they are continuously monitored during all parts of the assessment.
  3. May be performed during initial assessment or as routine ongoing data collection
  4. Performed to gather data about a specific problem already identified, or to identify new or overlooked problems
  5. Performed by the nurse to collect data about the specific problem
  6. Depending on the problem, initial treatment for pain and long-term treatment for the root cause of the trouble is administered and monitored.
  7. Part of the goal of the focused assessment is to diagnose and treat the patient in order to stabilize her condition.
  8. Focused assessments may also include X Rays or other types of tests.

3)   Time-Lapsed Assessment:

  1. Once treatment has been implemented, a time-lapsed assessment must be conducted to ensure that the patient is recovering from his problem and his condition has stabilized.
  2. Depending on the nature of the problem, the time-lapsed assessment may span the length of one or two hours or a couple of months.
  3. Performed to compare a patient’s current status to baseline data obtained earlier
  4. Performed to reassess health status and make necessary revisions in plan of care
  5. Performed by the nurse to collect data about current health status of patient
  6. During the time-lapsed assessment, the current status of the patient is compared to the previous baseline during and prior to treatment.
  7. Similar to the focused assessment, the time lapsed assessment may also include lab work, X-rays or other diagnostic medical testing.

4)   Emergency Assessments:

  1. During emergency procedures, a nurse is focused on rapidly identifying the root causes of concern for the patient and assessing the airway, breathing and circulation (ABCs) of the patient.
  2. Once the ABCs are stabilized, the emergency assessment may turn into an initial or focused assessment, depending on the situation.
  3. If the nurse is not in a health care setting, emergency assessments must also include an assessment for scene safety so that no other individuals, including the nurse himself/herself are hurt during the rescue and emergency response process.
  4. Performed by the nurse to gather data about the life-threatening problem